March 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

What increases the risk for NEC?

a. Minimal enteral feeding
b. Drugs that inhibit gastric acid secretion
c. Prophylactic enteral antibiotics
d. Probiotics

A

B

Nelsons 20th ed p.871: Emerging evidence indicates that use of inhibitors of gastric acid secretion (H2-receptor blockers, proton pump inhibitors) or prolonged empirical antibiotics in neonatal period is associated with increased risk of NEC.

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2
Q

Most common cause of antenatal fetal distress?

a. DM
b. Multiple pregnancy
c. Hypertension
d. Uteroplacental insufficiency

A

D

Nelsons 20th ed p.806 The predominant cause of antepartum fetal distress is uteroplacental insufficiency….

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3
Q

Blood transfusion not indicated?

a. Asymptomatic preterm with Hgb 7 g/dl
b. Asymptomatic term infant with Hgb 10 g/dl
c. Infants with HMD on respiratory support
d. Symptomatic term infant with Hgb 8 g/dl

A

B

Suggested transfusion thresholds (Hgb)

  1. No respiratory support
    WEEK 1: 10
    WEEK 2: 8.5
    WEEK 3: 7.5
  2. Presence of respiratory support
    WEEK 1: 11.5
    WEEK 2: 10
    WEEK 3: 8.5

(Nelson 21st Table 124.4)

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4
Q

Excessively small anterior & posterior fontanel can be found in?

a. Congenital rubella syndrome
b. IUGR
c. Congenital hyperthyroidism
d. None of the above

A

C

Because symptoms are usually not present at birth, the clinician depends on neonatal screening tests for the diagnosis of congenital hypothyroidism. The anterior and posterior fontanels are open widely, and the presence of this sign at birth may be a clue to early recognition of congenital hypothyroidism (Nelson 21st p2917)

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5
Q

Mother is on heroin while pregnant. True of effects of heroin on newborn EXCEPT

a. Increase risk of congenital anomaly
b. Decrease incidence of RDS
c. Decrease hyperbilirubinemia
d. All of the above are true

A

A

Heroin in pregnancy

  • preterm birth
  • neonatal abstinence syndrome
  • growth delay (LBW)
  • Lower incidence of respiratory distress syndrome
  • Lower incidence of hyperbilirubinemia
  • NO significant differences in head circumference or frequency of congenital anomalies

(NCBI)

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6
Q

Which should be given attention after birth?

a. Cephalhematoma
b. Caput succedaneum
c. Tongue thrusting
d. None of the above

A

A

Caput succedaneum is a benign self limited condition

Tongue thrusting or extrusion reflex (when the tongue is touched, it extrudes) is a primitive reflex

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7
Q

Cause of symmetric facial palsy?

a. Hypoplasia of 7th nerve nucleus
b. CN7 peripheral facial palsy

A
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8
Q

Newborn with asphyxia, cyanotic at birth. Responds intermittently to 100% O2 via hood. CXR is normal. What to consider?

a. Congenital heart disease
b. PPHN
c. Respiratrory distress syndrome
d. Meconium aspiration syndrome

A

B

Hyperoxia test responsive, so CHD less likely. Clear CXR, so RDS, MAS less likely

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9
Q

Period of teratogenesis?

a. 1-14 days
b. 14 days to 9 weeks
c. 9 weeks onwards
d. None of the above

A

B

The embryonic period, during which organogenesis takes place, occurs between implantation at around 14 days to around 60 days postconception. This is usually the most sensitive period to teratogenesis when exposure to a teratogenic agent has the greatest likelihood of producing a malformation.

(NCBI)

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10
Q

Multidrug resistant TB is resistant to:

a. Isoniazid & Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid & Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid & Pyrazinamide
d. Rifampicin & Pyrazinamide

A

A

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.168 Multidrug-resistance (MDR): resistance to at least both isoniazid & rifampicin.

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11
Q

How many weeks from illness can TST be positive

a. 2-12 weeks
b. 8-16 weeks
c. 8-12 weeks
d. 2-16 weeks

A

A

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.83 In most children the delayed-type hypersensitivity response to tuberculin, which is the estimated interval between TB exposure and detectable skin test reactivity (referred to as the window period) ranges from two to twelve weeks.

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12
Q

Treatment of Category 1A TB

a. 2HRZE/4HR
b. 2HRZE/10HR
c. 2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE
d. 2HRZES/1HRZE/9HRE

A

B

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.151 Table 11.5 Recommended treatment regimens for adults and children

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13
Q

Xray findings in Primary TB EXCEPT

a. Calcifications
b. Lymphangitis
c. Pleural effusion
d. All of the above can be seen in primary TB

A

A

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.95 In primary TB, the following radiographic changes may be seen: parenchymal involvement (primary focus), lymphangitis, localized pleural effusion, and regional lymphadenitis. The primary complex is composed of all of the above 4 findings. The most common radiologic finding is lymphadenopathy.

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14
Q

Steroids can be used in TB EXCEPT

a. Pleural thickening in pleural effusion
b. TB meningitis in HIV negative
c. TB pericarditis
d. Miliary TB

A

A

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.157 The benefit of corticosteroids has been evaluated in the following forms of complicated tuberculosis: 1) TB meningitis, 2) TB pericarditis, 3) TB pleural effusion, where a recent systematic review concludes that there is insufficient data to support routine use. Although steroids do not appear to reduce the development of residual pleural thickening, some studies showed a significantly more rapid resolution of symptoms. 4) Endobronchial TB, 5) Miliary TB

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15
Q

Baby was born to a mother with TB. (+) hepatosplenomegaly. On xray, 2-3 mm calcific lesions Given antibiotic but no response.

a. Congenital TB
b. CMV
c. Bacterial sepsis
d. Toxoplasmosis

A

A

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.61-62 Perinatal/Postnatal Tuberculosis
To delineate, Cantwell and colleagues have defined congenital TB as any infant with a TB lesion and one or more of the following criteria: 1) present within the first week of life, 2) a primary hepatic complex or caseating hepatic grabuloma, 3) TB infection of the placenta or endometrial TB in the mother; or exclusion of the possibility of postnatal transmission by ecluding TB in other contacts.
In the absence of the aforementioned criteria and the non-specific clinical features, a clinician relies
On having a high index of suspicion and a detailed history & PE…..

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16
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for child less than 5 years old & immunocompromised?

a. TST
b. NAAT
c. IGRA
d. sputum AFB

A

A

17
Q

Multidrug therapy with ocular disturbance after 4 weeks

a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol

A

D

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.141-142 Table 11.1 First line anti-tuberculosis drugs

18
Q

Skin finding in cutaneous TB?

a. Choroid tubercle
b. Papulonecrotic tuberculids
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

A

B

TB Guidelines 4th ed p.58-59 Cutaneous Tuberculosis Table 6.2

19
Q

Varicella vaccine is recommended to be given

a. 2 to 4 weeks
b. 12 months
c. 9 months
d. 6-10-14 weeks

A

B

20
Q

Patient with vesicles on trunk. Noted outbreak in school.

a. Varicella
b. Herpes zoster
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d. All of the above

A

A

21
Q

When is neonatal varicella acquired?

a. 5 days before and 2 days after delivery
b. 7 days before and 7 days after delivery
c. 2 days before and 5 days after delivery
d. None of the above

A

A

Persons with varicella may be contagious 24-48 hours before rash is evident and until vesicles are crusted, usually 3-7 days after onset of rash.

Varicella is spread by aerosolization of virus in cutaneous lesions and by oropharyngeal secretions (Nelson 21st p1709)

Mortality is particularly high in neonates born to susceptible mothers who contract varicella around the time of delivery. Infants whose mothers demonstrate varicella in the period from 5 days prior to delivery to 2 days afterwards are at high risk for severe varicella. (Nelson 21st p1710)

22
Q

When does the rash of measles fade?

a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days

A

C

Measles rash
The rash begins on the forehead (around the hairline), behind the
ears, and on the upper neck as a red maculopapular eruption. It then spreads downward to the torso and extremities, reaching the palms and soles.

With the onset of the rash, symptoms begin to subside. The rash fades over about 7 days in the same progression as it evolved, leaving a fine desquamation of skin

(Nelson 21st p1671-1672)

23
Q

Most common cause of pleural effusion in children

a. TB
b. Malignancy
c. Pneumonia
d. None of the above

A

C

24
Q

Treatment for ascariasis

a. Albendazole 400 mg for 3 days
b. Mebendazole 100 mg for 5 days
c. Mebendazole 500 mg as single dose
d. Albendazole 500mg as single dose

A

C

Treatment options for gastrointestinal ascariasis

  1. Albendazole 400mg PO SD for all ages
  2. Mebendazole 100mg PO BID x 3 days for all ages
  3. Mebendazole 500mg PO SD for all ages
  4. Ivermectin 150-200 ug/kg PO SD

Treatment options for intestinal or biliary obstruction
1. Piperazine citrate 75mg/kg/day x 2 days

Other treatments

  1. Nitazoxanide 100mg PO BID x 3 days for children 1-3 years old
  2. Nitazoxanide 200mg PO BID x 3 days for children 4-11 years old
  3. Nitazoxanide 500mg PO BID x 3 days for adolescents and adults

(Nelson 21st p1878)

Deworming for all children 1-14 years (DOH)

  1. Albendazole 200mg SD q6 months (12-23 mos)
  2. Albendazole 400mg SD q6 months (24mos above)
  3. Mebendazole 500mg SD q6 months (12 mos above)

(Prev Ped 2016)

25
Q

Helminth acquired from larval skin penetration?

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis

A

C

26
Q

Helminth causing intestinal obstruction

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Ancyclostoma duodenale

A

A

The most common clinical problems from Ascaris are from pulmonary disease and obstruction of the intestinal or biliary tract

(Nelson 21st p1877)

27
Q

Antibiotic for extraintestinal amoebiasis?

a. Metronidazole
b. Diloxanide furoate
c. Paramomycin
d. Iodoquinol

A

A

Treatment for invasive/extraintestinal ascariasis: metronidazole, tinidazole

Luminal amebicide: Paramomycin, Iodoquinol, diloxanide furoate

(Nelson 21st p1832)

28
Q

Patient presents with fever, pharyngitis, non-suppurative conjunctivitis

a. Adenovirus
b. Kawasaki disease

A

A

Nelsons 20th ed p.1612 Pharyngoconjunctival fever is a distinct syndrome that includes a high temperature, pharyngitis, nonpurulent conjunctivitis, and preauricular and cervical lymphadenopathy

29
Q

A 2 year old patient who obtained a wound. She received 2 doses of DTAP 2 years ago, what would you give?

a. Td
b. Tetanus toxoid
c. TIG
d. DTAP

A

D

Clean minor wounds - no TIG

  1. Uncertain or with <3 doses of tetanus toxoid - give DTAP, Tdap or Td
  2. > 3 doses of tetanus toxoid - give DTAP, Tdap, or Td if >10 years since last dose of tetanus-containing vaccine
  3. > 3 doses of tetanus toxoid - give nothing if <10 years since last dose of tetanus-containing vaccine

All other wounds

  1. Uncertain or with < 3 doses of tetanus toxoid - give DTAP, Tdap or Td, give TIG
  2. > 3 doses of tetanus toxoid - give DTAP, Tdap, or Td if >5 years since last dose of tetanus-containing vaccine
  3. > 3 doses of tetanus toxoid - give nothing if <5 years since last dose of tetanus-containing vaccine

DTAP for children <7 years old
Tdap preferred over Td for underimmunized children >7 years old who have no recieved Tdap previously

(Nelson 21st p1552)

30
Q

A kid was bitten by a healthy domesticated dog. What will you recommend?

a. Give rabies vaccine and RIG
b. Observe dog for 10 days
c. Kill the dog and look for negri bodies
d. None of the above

A

B

If animal is domesticated and available for observation, quarantine and observe animal for 10 days. If without signs of rabies, no PEP. If with signs of rabies, do PEP

(Nelson 21st Fig 300.1)

31
Q

HIV positive mother, what test and when to do it in the baby?

a. PCR DNA at birth
b. PCR DNA at 6 weeks
c. ELISA at birth
d. Western blot at 3 months

A

A

Viral diagnostic testing should be performed within the first 12-24 hours of life, particularly in high risk infants

(Nelson 21st p1787)

32
Q

Not true of Hirschsprung disease

a. Common in preterm
b. Presents as bilous emesis or aspirates
c. Known as congenital aganglionic megacolon
d. Loss of ganglion cells in submucosal and myenteric plexus

A

A

Hirschsprung disease, or congenital aganglionic megacolon, is a developmental disorder (neurocristopathy) of the enteric nervous system, characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexus. It is the most common cause of lower intestinal obstruction in neonates, with an overall incidence of 1 in 5,000 live births. The male:female ratio for Hirschsprung disease is 4 : 1 for shortsegment disease and approximately 2 : 1 with total colonic aganglionosis. Prematurity is uncommon.

(Nelson 21st p1961)

33
Q

True of signs and symptoms of PUD

a. In school age children and adolescents presents as epigastric pain & nausea
b. In infants and younger children presents as dyspepsia & abdominal fullness
c. Pain is sharp or burning
d. Epigastric pain is alleviated by food intake

A

A

34
Q

Infant with nonbilous vomiting, hungry after vomiting. Noted mass to the right of umbilicus. What will you do?
a. Clear the patient as high risk and proceed with surgery
b.

A

A

35
Q

3 month old with bilous vomiting, non-distended abdomen, peristaltic movement can be noted. X ray showed double bowel gas with short segment of small intestine

a. Duodenal obstruction
b. Colonic obstruction
c. Ileal obstruction
d. None of the above

A

A

36
Q

At what age is encopresis normal?

a. 3 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. None of the above

A

B