Mango Flashcards
What did you grow Mango revenue at?
6%, 6.7% in the out years (2015-2022)
What did you grow Mango EBITDA at?
Mango EBITDA was driven off the EBIT calculation, which grew at 7.5% - 9.0% each year, then we added D&A. EBITDA growth ended up at ~8-9% per year
What were the EBITDA margins?
15.3% in 2012 and increased steadily until 2022 where it reached 19.6%
What were other important assumptions of the Mango operating model?
- Cap Ex held as a constant percent of sales
- Dividend/share grew at 7.5%
What were important DCF assumptions?
8% WACC, 3% perpetuity growth rate
- TV = 72.5% of EV
- midpoint = 40% premium to current
What trading multiples did you use for Mango?
P/E: 17.0-19.0x
EBITDA: 10.5-12.5x
Walk me through the acquirer operating model?
- first spread brokers revenue/EBIT estimates and took median until 2015
- then analyzed Euronomitor data for each regional category
- adjusted broker growth rates in out years (2015-2022) to more accurately reflect this growth rate
- cap ex = % of sales, D&A = % of cap ex
- dividend/share = plus 5% each year
- repurchase, $3 Bn per year
What was Pear revenue and revenue growth?
Revenue =
Growth = 4.5% through ‘15, 4.0% onwards
What was Pear EBITDA, EBITDA growth, margin??
EBITDA =
EBITDA growth = 4.8% - 5.0%
EBITDA margin = slight expansion = ~19%-20%
Why were the acquisitions more accretive than the RMT?
1) LEVERAGE - used leverage in acquisitions (4.0x PF EBITDA)
2) Higher ownership due to structure –> more synergies
Why did each subsequent acquisition become less attractive to the acquirer? (wholeco, regional split, global split)
1) Lower net income because of DIS-SYNERGIES
2) Lower EBITDA because of Dis-Synergies and Multiple Valuation –> lower EBITDA means less leverage –> less PF ownership
Other main considerations in analysis?
1) SOCIAL / LEGACY
2) Confidence in acquirer management
What was accretion dilution in the second analysis???
GAAP -7.5%, 9%, 11.5% with 4.0x, 4.5x, and 5.0x leverage, respectively
We also analyzed cash, which was 5-6% higher in all cases than GAAP
What is the difference between cash and GAAP acc/(dil)?
GAAP - accounted for transaction goodwill
- write-up of assets
- write-up of intangibles
- DTL
Higher depreciation/amortization expense flowed through P&L and lowered net income, making GAAP less accretive
What were the actual cost synergies (not quant, explain)
1) G&A: consolidate overhead
2) selling: overlapping selling/customer service
3) distribution: consolidate physical, more leverage with distributors
4) advertising: leverage scale in purchasing media, consumer promos
5) raw materials: pool purchasing of overlapping materials
6) packaging: pool purchasing of overlapping materials
7) corporate unallocated: eliminate 1 corporate center