Mandatory Competencies Flashcards

1
Q

What are your responsibilities to external clients?

A
  • Providing a good quality and diligent service, demonstrating due diligence, being competent
  • Clear communication and transparency (trust)
  • Confidentiality and integrity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you adapt your communication style to suit a variety of scenarios and why?

A
  • Tehcnical and specific with lawyers
  • Empathetic and willing to listen with community groups
  • Collaborative and direct with consultants (when required)

Cannot adopt the same approach, as do not want to offend, for example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you negotiate ethically?

A

RICS Firm:
- Avoid price fixing
- Fees should be market based and agreed on an ad hoc basis.
- Healthy competition is encouraged but aggressive cutting is not allowed.
- Must be completely transparent with clients / consumers so they understand service offering and fees.

At Ballymore:
- No significant reduction in scope
- Not being ‘unfair’ or ‘unreasonable’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the provisions of the RICS Professional Standard ‘Surveying Safely - Health and safety principles for property professionals’ 2nd Ed. 2018 (effective Feb-19)?

A

Sets out good practice principals for the management of health and safety for RICS regulated firms / members.

Keys areas of advice:
Regulated firms must provide…
1. A safe working environment - work equipment & systems
2. Competent staff (‘safe person’)
3. Seeks to ensure that individuals accept responsibility for their own actions,
5. Advice on health & well-being
6. How to address fire safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is Surveying Safely structured?

A
  • Personal Responsibilities
  • Assessing hazards and risks
  • Workplace health and safety
  • Occupational hygiene and health
  • Visiting premises & sites
  • Fire Safety
  • Residential Property Surveying
  • Procurement & Management of Contractors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the provisions of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974?

A
  1. Provide a safe place to work
  2. Provide safe equipment
  3. Ensure staff are properly trained
  4. Carry out risk assessments
  5. Provide proper facilities
  6. Appoint a competent person to oversee health and safety

Policed by the Health and Safety Executive (HSE) as a criminal offence (with fines / imprisonment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Other info included in the professional Standard includes (best practice when visiting site):

A
  • Tell someone where you are going and when you leave the building/site
  • Wear appropriate clothing (high-vis, steel-toe boots, hard hat, goggles, gloves and ear defenders
  • Ensure to sign in and out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the Construction (Design and Management) (CDM) Regulations, 2015? and why were they brought in?

A
  • Regulations for managing H&S on construction projects from pre- to post construction
  • Aims to improve the co-ordination & clearly defines responsibilities
  • It is a criminal offence policed by the HSE to breach CDM regulations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Key parts of the Construction (Design and Management) (CDM) Regulations, 2015

A
  • Main duty holders are: Client, Principal Designer, Principal Contractor
  • All projects with more than one contractor on site must have: PD, PC and H&S file
  • Onus on the client and not the contractor to ensure CDM arrangements
  • Construction Phase Plan required for all projects (safety considered at desing stage by PC)
  • HSE to be informed if a project lasts longer than 30 construction days with 20+ workers on site, more than 500 ‘person’ days
  • CDM file must be maintained during construction and passed to the building occupier / owner, containing H&S info.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain your understanding of the term HSE?

A
  • Health and Safety Executive (HSE) is the UK National Authority for managing work related health, safety, and illness issues.
  • Their aim is to protect people’s health and safety by ensuring that risks are properly managed.
  • They act in the public interest to reduce work related injuries and incidents and support businesses to adapt to remain compliant with occupational health and safety legislation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Methods Statement?
What is a Risk Assessment?

A

Document detailing the way a work task or process is to be completed. It should outline the hazards involved and include a step by step guide on how to do the job safely. Must detail which control measures have been introduced to ensure the safety of anyone affected by the task or process.

A H&S risk assessment of the significant hazards, including their likelihood and severity
Simple risk assessment:
Identify (hazards present)
Identify (people at risk)
Evaluate (severity?)
Record (findings)
Review (the R.A regulary)
Advise (all those affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do you understand by the term Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)?

A

Set of acounting rules and standards that govern financial accounting and reporting by businesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Benefits of GAAP, such as through better clarity and legibility?

A
  • Clear financial information - can reduce mistakes and confusion
  • Improved comparability - can help them benchmark performance and optimize operations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does a cash flow statement show and what is its purpose

A

Financial report that shows a business’s cash inflows (receipts) and outflows (expenditure) over a period of time. Includes VAT.

To help show whether a business can meet its expenses - early identification of potential financial issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a ‘balance sheet’
(statement of financial position)

A

A statement of the business’s financial position showing its assets, liabilities and shareholder equity at a given date, usually at the end of the financial year

Shows Financial Health - whether the company is solvent (able to pay its debts) and how much equity shareholders have.
Also heps understand liquidity and assess creditworthiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a ‘profit and loss account’?

A

Financial statement that summarizes the income, expenditure, and profits/losses of a company during a specified period

These records provide information about a company’s ability to generate revenues, manage costs, and make profits.

(Used for tax reporting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you recieve, monitor and achieve internal approval on consultant’s contract sums?

A
  1. Receiving the Consultant’s Contract Sum
    Initial Submission
    Review the Contract
    Verify Completeness: Ensure all elements included (e.g payment schedules)
  2. Internal Review of the Contract Sum
    Check Against Budget
    Check Contract Terms and Scope
  3. Monitoring and Verifying the Consultant’s Progress
    Track Deliverables
    Manage Variations
    Record and Approve Invoices
  4. Internal Approval Process
    Prepare Documentation for Approval (PFRs)
  5. Achieving Internal Approval
    Ensure Transparency
    Maintain Compliance with Regs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is a business plan important?

A

It clarifies your vision

Attracts investors and partners

Guides your business operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a business plan and what are the key elements?

A

A business plan is a document that outlines your business goals, the strategy to achieve them, and the resources you’ll need

Executive Summary (mission statement)
Project Objectives
Sales & Marketing Strategy
Market Analysis
Organisational Structure
5 Ws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are Ballymore’s corporate objectives/BP?

A

Build good quality homes
Create special and unique places
Make profit to sustain and grow the business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does a SWOT analysis do?

A

It helps organisations understand their internal capabilities and external factors that could impact their success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How to avoid conflict?

A
  • Clear, concise drafting of lease
  • Manage all parties’ expectations - clearly communicating objectives
  • Keeping good records with sufficient level of detail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the main methods of conflict management

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is dispute resolution?

A

Most basic form is negotiation where parties negotiate a resolution, opposite end is litigation (legal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is alternative dispute resolution and what are the benefits (ADR)?

A

Mediation, Arbitration, Independent Expert Determination

Compared to litigation (civic legal system & court), tend to be:
- less costly (professional fees)
- faster
- greater opportunity for negotiation
- more informal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is mediation, and how is it different to independent expert determination?

A

A confidential and informal process involving a neutral mediator who facilitates discussions between the two parties to see if a solution can be found.

However, the mediator has no decision-making authority and cannot impose a resolution. Whereas, IED binds the parties through a determination

27
Q

What is the minimum procedure for the handling of a complaint?

A

Must have published CHP that meets rules of conduct. Notify PII insurers if claim could be made. ADR mechanism must be stated in CHP.

Stage One - In House:
1. Details of CHP issued when the firm receives a valid complaint.
2. Procedure must be quick, clear, transparent, and impartially implemented.
3. Details of nominated person who will investigate the complaint (The Complaints Handling Officer) must be stated as the person of contact.
4. Complaint must be made in writing.
5. Procedures and timescales for the investigation of the complaint should be recorded.
6. Complaint should be acknowledged within 7 days and investigated within 28 days.

Stage Two - ADR Third Part Resolution:
1. If complainant isn’t happy with the review, the second stage of the CHP involves using an independent redress scheme that the firm has chosen to use.
2. Name of relevant appropriate redress mechanism must be provided to the complainant e.g., The Centre for Effective Dispute Resolution (CEDR), and the RICS Dispute Resolution Service.

28
Q

What are Ballymore’s data protection protocols?

A

It is essential that data is kept safe from corruption and that access to it is controlled to ensure privacy and protection.

Ballymore:
- Regular anti-virus & software updates
- Staff training with fake Phishing emails
- VPN & two-factor authentication requirement when working remotely

29
Q

What is the UK General Data Protection Regulation and the Data Protection Act 2018

A

DPA (Data protection Act 2018) controls how personal information is used by organisations, businesses or government

DPA is the UKs implementation of the GDPR

The EUs GDPR no longer applies in the UK, but was almost entirely transcribed into the UK GDPR in 2016. It is covered by the Data Protection Act 2018.

  • Aims to empower individuals to take control of how their data is used by third parties.
  • It gives people rights to be informed about how their personal information is used.
30
Q

What are some of the principles of the UK GDPR?

A
  • Information processed lawfully, fairly and transparently
  • Collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes
  • Adequate, relevant and limited to necessity
  • Accurate (kept up to date). Erase inaccurate data.
  • Kept no longer than necessary
31
Q

What are the 8 Individual Rights under UK GDPR?

A
  1. Right to be informed
  2. Right to access
  3. Right to rectification
  4. Right to erasure
  5. Right to restrict processing
  6. Right to data portability
  7. Right to object
  8. Right to automated decision making and profiling
32
Q

What is a VPN?

What are the benefits of using it?

A
  • A service that creates a secure and private connection between your device and the internet
  • Hides IP address, protecting personal information
  • Encrypts data, securing remote Wi-Fi usage
33
Q

What is BIM and why is it used

A

A digital process that integrates multi-disciplinary data to provide a comprehensive representation of the physical and functional characteristics of a project.

BIM data can be used throughout the lifecycle of a building, from design and construction to operation and maintenance, ensuring efficient management of the asset

34
Q

What is the Equality Act (2010)
and what are the 9 protected characteristics?

A

The Equality Act 2010 makes it illegal to discriminate against people based on certain characteristics

  1. Age
  2. Disability
  3. Gender Reassignment
  4. Marriage and Civil Partnership
  5. Pregnancy
  6. Race
  7. Religion
  8. Sex
  9. Sexual Orientation

Aism to ensure that everyone has equal access to opportunities and protection, both in workplace and in wider society

35
Q

why is a team made of individuals from different backgrounds more likely to be an effective team

A

Diversity of perspectives and problem-solving tehcniques.
Think outside the box
Challenge each other’s ideas

36
Q

What is unconscious bias?

A

A prejudice or stereotype individuals hold about certain groups of people that they aren’t consciously aware of having.

37
Q

What is approved Part M?

A

Part ‘M’ of buildinsets out minimum standards for building design to ensure tha tbuildings are accessible to all individuals

  • Ease of access to, and use of buildings (ramps, lifts, clear signage..)
38
Q

What are lifetime homes?

A

Design standards for homes that are intended to be flexible and adaptable, so they can meet the changing needs of individuals throughout their lives

^Aging population, ^indepenendence, ^cost effective

E.g Level access, staircases with landings, easy access to storage

39
Q

What are the key principles of sustainainability

A

Environmental
- Renewable Energy/Low-Impact Materials
- Ecosystem Preservation

Social
- Community Engagement
- Health & Wellbeing

Economic
- Inclusive Growth (i.e local labour)
- Job Creation

40
Q

What is Brutland’s definition of sustainable development

A

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs

41
Q

What is an EPC?

A

Energy Performance Certificate tells you how energy efficient your building is

42
Q

When is an EPC required and how long is it valid for?

A

An EPC is legally required when a property is built, sold, or rented

10 years, unless altered

43
Q

What does an EPC tell you?

A
  • information about a property’s energy use and typical energy costs
  • steps to improve a property’s energy efficiency and save money
44
Q

What are Minimum Energy Efficiency Standards 2015 (MEES)?

A

Regulations designed to ensure that properties meet a minimum level of energy efficiency

45
Q

What are the MEES for private and non-domestic?

A

As of April 1, 2020, residential rental properties must have an E rating or higher to be legally rented out

April 1, 2018, non-domestic must have an E rating or higher to be legally rented out

The government’s goal is to have all non-domestic rented buildings achieve an EPC rating of “B” by 2030

46
Q

What is BREEAM (Building Research Establishment Environmental Assessment Method)

A

Used to measure environmental performance of buildings, helping to ensure that they are
- sustainable,
- energy-efficient,
- and have minimal negative impact on the environment

47
Q

What are the levels, and key categories of BREEAM?

A
  1. Outstanding
  2. Excellent
  3. Very good
  4. Pass
  5. Unclassified
  • Energy
  • Water
  • Materials
  • Waste
  • Health & Wellbeing
  • Management
  • Innovation
48
Q

Benefits of using BREEAM?

A

Not legal requiement, but can demonstrate ‘green premium’ value associated with a sustainable building (attract investors)

49
Q

Can you list some MEP strategies

A

Heating:
- ASHP
- GSHP
- DHN

Cooling:
- Mechanical ventilation (Air conditioning)
- Manual venitlation (windows)

Renewables:
- PV and EV Charging

MVHR - system used to improve indoor air quality while minimising energy loss in buildings. Continuous fresh air while recovering heat from the outgoing stale air, making them an essential component for energy-efficient homes (particularly in highly insulated or airtight buildings). - GOOD FOR BREEAM!

Optimizing systems like heating, ventilation, air conditioning (HVAC), lighting, and insulation, MEP engineers can reduce energy demand, leading to a higher EPC rating

50
Q

What is the Mayor’s energy hierarchy?

A

Be Lean - use less energy
Be Clean - supply energy efficiently
Be Green - use renewable energy
Be Seen - monitor data

51
Q

What is Approved Document O

what is the GLA guidance on Overheating & Cooling?

A

Covers overheating mitigation requirements

Major development proposals should reduce potential overheating and reliance on air conditioning systems and demonstrate this in accordance with the following cooling hierarchy:

  1. minimise internal heat generation through energy efficient design
  2. reduce the amount of heat entering a building in summer through orientation, shading, albedo, fenestration, insulation and green roofs and walls
  3. manage the heat within the building through exposed internal thermal mass and high ceilings
  4. passive ventilation
  5. mechanical ventilation
  6. active cooling systems (ensuring they are the lowest carbon options). Ed
52
Q

What is Approved Document L?

A

Conservation on fuel and power

53
Q

Once qualified, what are the requirements for CPD?

A

Undertake a minimum of 20 hours CPD per calendar year.
At least 10 hours must be formal CPD.
All members must maintain a relevant and current understanding of the RICS Rules of Conduct during a rolling 3 year basis.
Members must record CPD using the RICS CPD Management System available online by 31st January each year.

54
Q

Once qualified, what are the requirements for CPD?

A

Undertake a minimum of 20 hours CPD per calendar year.
At least 10 hours must be formal CPD.
All members must maintain a relevant and current understanding of the RICS Rules of Conduct during a rolling 3 year basis.
Members must record CPD using the RICS CPD Management System available online by 31st January each year.

55
Q

Ballymore code of conduct?

A
  • Wholeheatedly act in interests of the company
  • Confidentiality
  • Visitor policy
56
Q

How do you ensure a fair and equal tender process?

A
  1. Equal opportunities for all bidders - Ensure accessibility, and non-disciminatory criteria (RELEVANT & OBJECTIVE TO SCOPE)
  2. Impartial evaluation - E.g involve a diverse evaluation team for larger instructions - avoid bias
  3. Document the process and be transparent in awarding role
57
Q

What is Ballymore’s Gifts policy?

A

Gift register for any gift above £50, and line manager approval.

Any entertainment or gifts received over the total annual value of over £250 must be approved by director.

58
Q

What is a Compulsory purchase Order?

A

A legal process that allows certain bodies to acquire land or property without consent of the owner.

59
Q

What are your responsibiltiies to:
External clients?
Senior Directors?
Prospective Customers

A

Be professional (on time), provide a good quality and diligent service - ensuring I am competent with neccessary expertise

Act wholeheartedly in the comapny’s interest, increase profits, due diligence in reports

Provide a good quality product, on time

60
Q

In CDM, what are the key roles of the client?

A

Management
- Provide Pre-Construction info
- Appoint PD and PC (if <1 contractor)
- Notification of project (if neccessary)
- Making sure PC undertakes the Construction Phase Plan
- Making sure PD undertakes H&S file
- Making sure both of the above perform

61
Q

What is a Construction Phase Plan?

A

Prepared by PC Pre-Construction -
- Details the health and safety risks associated with the construction phase of the project and the control measures that will be implemented to minimise risks or, where possible, eliminate them.

62
Q

What is a H&S file?

A

Prepared by PD Pre-Construction&delivery -

  • Contains information necessary for future construction, maintenance, refurbishment or demolition to be carried out safely
  • Includes Project Description, Hazards, Structural information, Ongoing Cleaning, Maintenance Requirements
63
Q

What scale are:
Location Plans
Site Plans
Drawings (floor plans)

A

Location Plan - 1:1250/1:2500
Site Plan - 1:500 or 1:200
Drawings: - 1:50 or 1:100