management practices Flashcards

1
Q

To provide an understanding of all the different
elements that make up an organization and how
those elements interrelate, enabling the
organization to effectively achieve its current and
future objectives. It provides the principles,
standards, and tools that enable an organization to
manage complex change in a structured and agile
way.

A

Architecture Management

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2
Q

To align the organization’s practices and services
with changing business needs through the ongoing
identification and improvement of services, service
components, practices, or any element involved in
the efficient and effective management of products
and services

A

Continual Improvement

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3
Q

To protect the information needed by the
organization to conduct its business. This includes
understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of
information, as well as other aspects of information
security such as authentication and non-repudiation

A

Information Security
Management

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4
Q

To maintain and improve the effective, efficient, and
convenient use of information and knowledge
across the organization.

A

Knowledge Management

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5
Q

To support good decision-making and continual
improvement by decreasing the levels of
uncertainty. This is achieved through the collection
of relevant data on various managed objects and
the valid assessment of this data in an appropriate
context.

A

Measurement & Reporting

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6
Q

To ensure that changes in an organization are
smoothly and successfully implemented, and that
lasting benefits are achieved by managing the
human aspects of the changes.

A

Organizational Change
Management

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7
Q

To ensure that the organization has the right mix of
programs, projects, products, and services to
execute the organization’s strategy within its
funding and resource constraints.

A

Portfolio Management

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8
Q

To ensure that all projects in the organization are
successfully delivered. This is achieved by planning,
delegating, monitoring, and maintaining control of
all aspects of a project, and keeping the motivation
of the people involved

A

Project Management

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9
Q

To establish and nurture the links between the
organization and its stakeholders at strategic and
tactical levels. It includes the identification, analysis,
monitoring, and continual improvement of
relationships with and between stakeholders.

A

Relationship Management

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10
Q

To ensure that the organization understands and
effectively handles risks. Managing risk is essential
to ensuring the ongoing sustainability of an
organization and creating value for its customers.

A

Risk management

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11
Q

To support the organization’s strategies and plans
for service management by ensuring that the
organization’s financial resources and investments
are being used effectively.

A

Service Financial
Management

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12
Q

To formulate the goals of the organization and
adopt the courses of action and allocation of
resources necessary for achieving those goals.
it establishes the organization’s
direction, focuses effort, defines or clarifies the
organization’s priorities, and provides consistency or
guidance in response to the environment.

A

Strategy Management

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13
Q

To ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their
performances are managed appropriately to
support the seamless provision of quality products
and services. This includes creating closer, more
collaborative relationships with key suppliers to
uncover and realize new value and reduce the risk
of failure.

A

Supplier Management

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14
Q

To ensure that the organization has the right people
with the appropriate skills and knowledge and in the
correct roles to support its business objectives
through planning, recruitment, onboarding, learning
and development, performance measurement, and
succession planning activities.

A

Workforce & Talent
management

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15
Q

To ensure that services deliver agreed levels of
availability to meet the needs of customers and
users.

A

Availability Management

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16
Q

To analyze a business or some element of it, define
its associated needs, and recommend solutions to
address these needs and/or solve a business
problem, which must facilitate value creation for
stakeholders.

A

Business Analysis

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17
Q

To ensure that services achieve agreed and
expected performance, satisfying current and future
demand in a cost effective way.

A

Capacity & Performance
Management

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18
Q

To maximize the number of successful IT changes
by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed,
authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the
change schedule.

A

Change control/Enablement

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19
Q

To minimize the negative impact of incidents by
restoring normal service operation as quickly as
possible

A

Incident Management

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20
Q

To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets,
to help the organization maximize value; control
costs; manage risks; support decision-making about
purchase; re-use, and retirement of assets; and
meet regulatory and contractual requirements

A

IT Asset Management

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21
Q

To systematically observe services and service
components, and record and report selected
changes of state identified as events, through
identifying and prioritizing infrastructure, services,
business processes, and information security
events, and establishing the appropriate response
to those events, including responding to conditions
that could lead to potential faults or incidents.

A

Monitoring & Event
Management

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22
Q

To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by
identifying actual and potential causes of incidents,
and managing workarounds and known errors.

A

Problem Management

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23
Q

To make new and changed services and features
available for use.

A

Release Management

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24
Q

To provide a single source of consistent information
on all services and service offerings, and to ensure
that it is available to the relevant audience.

A

Service Catalogue
Management

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25
Q

To ensure that accurate and reliable information
about the configuration of services, and the
configuration items (CIs) that support them, is
available when and where it is needed. This
includes information on how CIs are configured and
the relationships between them.

A

Service Configuration
Management

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26
Q

To ensure that the availability and performance of a
service is maintained at a sufficient level in the
event of a disaster. The practice provides a
framework for building organizational resilience,
with the capability of producing an effective
response that safeguards the interests of key
stakeholders and the organization’s reputation,
brand, and value-creating activities.

A

Service Continuity
Management

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27
Q

To design products and services that are fit for
purpose, fit for use, and that can be delivered by the
organization and its ecosystem. This includes
planning and organizing people, partners and
suppliers, information, communication, technology,
and practices for new or changed products and
services, and the interaction between the
organization and its customers.

A

Service Design

28
Q

To capture demand for incident resolution and
service requests. It should also be the entry point
and single point of contact for the service provider
with all of its users.

A

Service Desk

29
Q

To set clear business-based targets for service
performance, so that the delivery of a service can
be properly assessed, monitored, and managed
against these targets.

A

Service Level
Management

30
Q

To support the agreed quality of a service by
handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service
requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.

A

Service Request
Management

31
Q

To ensure that new or changed products and
services meet defined requirements. The definition
of service value is based on input from customers,
business objectives, and regulatory requirements,
and is documented as part of the value chain
activity of design and transition. These inputs are
used to establish measurable quality and
performance indicators that support the definition of
assurance criteria and testing requirements.

A

Service Validation &
Testing

32
Q

To move new or changed hardware, software,
documentation, processes, or any other component
to live environments. It may also be involved in
deploying components to other environments for
testing or staging.

A

Deployment Management

33
Q

To oversee the infrastructure and platforms used by
an organization. When carried out properly, this
practice enables the monitoring of technology
solutions available to the organization, including the
technology of external service providers.

A

Infrastructure & Platform
Management

34
Q

To ensure that applications meet internal and
external stakeholder needs, in terms of functionality,
reliability, maintainability, compliance, and
auditability.

A

Software Development &
Management

35
Q

the capacity to do work or to cause change

A

energy

36
Q

energy objects have because they are moving

A

kinetic energy

37
Q

energy that is stored by an object

A

potential energy

38
Q

energy that is stored in stretched springs, rubber bands, and similar objects

A

elastic potential energy

39
Q

energy that is stored in the chemical bonds in a substance

A

chemical potential energy

40
Q

energy that an object has due to its height above the ground

A

gravitational potential energy

41
Q

sometimes called light energy, this is energy that is carried by electromagnetic waves

A

electromagnetic energy

42
Q

energy produced by the motions of atoms and molecules resulting in an increase in temperature

A

thermal energy

43
Q

the law explaining that energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be transferred or converted from one form to another

A

law of conservation of energy:

44
Q

waves that can travel only through matter and require a medium to transport their energy

A

mechanical waves

45
Q

a position or state to which an oscillating object eventually returns after a disturbance is gone

A

equilibrium

46
Q

a repetitive motion that usually occurs about a center point

A

oscillation

47
Q

a wave where the oscillation is parallel to the direction the wave is traveling

A

longitudinal wave (straight wave)

48
Q

a wave where the oscillation is perpendicular to the direction the wave is traveling

A

transverse wave (wiggle wave)

49
Q

the lowest point of a transverse wave

A

trough

50
Q

the number of oscillations the wave makes in a given amount of time, typically a second

A

frequency

51
Q

an interval in time after which the motion of a particle on the medium starts to repeat

A

period

52
Q

the horizontal distance after which the wave repeats itself in space

A

wavelength:

53
Q

vertical distance from the equilibrium to the crest or the equilibrium to the trough of a transverse wave

A

amplitude

54
Q

the highest point of a transverse wave

A

crest

55
Q

the center point of a wave where no movement is occurring

A

equilibrium

56
Q

a very small portion of the EM spectrum including all of the wavelengths of light that the average unaided human eye can detect

A

visible light

57
Q

waves with the longest wavelength, the lowest frequencies, and lowest energies of all types of EM radiation

A
58
Q

waves with higher frequencies and energies than radio waves but lower than those of infrared radiation

A

microwaves

59
Q

waves with higher frequencies than those of microwaves but lower than those of visible light

A

infrared (IR)

60
Q

emitted by any object hot enough to glow.

A

visible light

61
Q

waves with wavelengths that are just shorter than those of visible violet light but longer than those of X-rays; UV wavelengths are comparable to the size of molecules

A

ultraviolet (UV)

62
Q

waves with wavelengths that are shorter than UV rays but longer than gamma rays; have higher frequencies and higher energies than ultraviolet radiation

A

X-rays

63
Q

waves with the shortest wavelengths and the highest frequencies and energies of all EM radiation

A

gamma rays

64
Q

when particles of matter are pulled away from each other

A

expansion

65
Q

when particles of matter are pushed closer together

A

compression

66
Q

the energy of a sound wave; the greater the energy of the wave, the greater its amplitude and, therefore, the louder the sound

A

loudness

67
Q

how high or low a sound is; the pitch of a sound depends on the frequency of the sound waves

A

pitch