Management Companies Flashcards

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1
Q

The sponsor of a mutual fund is also known as the:

A. Bank
B. Manager
C. Custodian
D. Underwriter

A

The best answer is D.

The fund underwriter is also known as the fund sponsor. The sponsor is responsible for establishing the fund in compliance with the requirements of the Investment Company Act of 1940.

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2
Q

The primary function of the custodian bank is to:

A. manage the fund
B. set the investment objective for the fund
C. safekeep the assets of the fund
D. prepare the financial statements of the fund

A

The best answer is C.

The primary function of the custodian bank is to safekeep the assets of the fund. The custodian bank can also perform the clerical functions of transfer agent and paying agent. The custodian bank does not manage the fund - this is performed by the investment adviser to the fund. The custodian bank does not set the investment objective of the fund - this is initially set by the sponsor. The financial statements of the fund are prepared by the outside accountants.

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3
Q

The investment adviser of a mutual fund determines all of the following EXCEPT:

A. purchases of securities into the portfolio
B. sales of the securities from the portfolio
C. percentage of cash or equivalents held in the portfolio
D. investment objective of the fund

A

The best answer is D.

The investment objective for a mutual fund is initially set by the sponsor; and can only be changed by majority vote of the fund’s outstanding shares. The investment adviser decides which securities to buy and sell in the portfolio; and decides the timing of these transactions.

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4
Q

An income fund would likely invest in which of the following securities?

A. Common stocks
B. ADRs
C. Debentures and Preferred stocks
D. Income bonds

A

The best answer is C.

Income funds invest primarily in bonds and preferred stocks for a high level of current income. Common stocks are not typically a choice for investment because the dividend yields are comparatively low. (ADRs are simply a means for U.S. investors to indirectly purchase foreign common shares.) Income bonds would not be chosen as an investment because they only pay interest if the corporation has enough income; otherwise no payment is made.

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5
Q

A growth fund would likely invest in which of the following securities?

A. Non-convertible corporate bonds
B. Government bonds
C. Convertible bonds
D. Preferred stocks

A

The best answer is C.

Growth funds would likely invest in common stocks for capital gains; they could also invest in convertible bonds, since they are an “equivalent” to the common stock; and if the common stock price rises substantially, their price will rise as well (because the market will force them to trade at parity with each other).

Preferred stocks and non-convertible bonds give a higher rate of current income; but little in the way of capital gains potential (unless interest rates fall by a large amount). In this case, the fund manager is not attempting to profit from market interest rate moves - he or she is simply attempting to select stocks that have excellent growth potential.

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6
Q

A growth fund would likely invest in which of the following securities?

A. Hi-Yield debt due to its above-market yield
B. Preferred stocks
C. Common stocks and Convertible bonds
D. Non-convertible bonds

A

The best answer is C.

Growth funds would likely invest in common stocks for capital gains; they could also invest in convertible bonds, since they are an “equivalent” to the common stock; and if the common stock price rises substantially, their price will rise as well (because the market will force them to trade at parity with each other).

Preferred stocks and non-convertible bonds give a higher rate of current income; but little in the way of capital gains potential (unless interest rates fall by a large amount). In this case, the fund manager is not attempting to profit from market interest rate moves - he or she is simply attempting to select stocks that have excellent growth potential.

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7
Q

An investor wishes to buy mutual fund shares that provide him with income and capital gains potential. Based on this information, the appropriate recommendation is a:

A. balanced fund
B. hedge fund
C. sector fund
D. dual purpose fund

A

The best answer is A.

A balanced fund is a type of fund that allocates assets among different types of securities - maintaining a “balance” of equities and fixed income securities. It provides both income and capital gains potential. A dual purpose fund issues 2 classes of shares - either income shares or capital shares. After choosing the class of share to invest in, the customer either has an income fund or a growth fund, but not a balance of both.

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8
Q

An investor wishes to buy mutual fund shares that have investments in computer and high technology companies. Based on this information, the appropriate recommendation is a:

A. balanced fund
B. hedge fund
C. sector fund
D. dual purpose fund

A

The best answer is C.

A sector fund invests in a specific industry or geographic area. Because of the lack of diversification, there is greater gain potential, as well as higher risk.

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9
Q

A mutual fund that invests primarily in Treasury Bills and other short term debt obligations is a(n):

A. income fund
B. government securities fund
C. money market fund
D. growth fund

A

The best answer is C.

Money market funds invest in short term money market instruments, such as Treasury Bills, commercial paper and banker’s acceptances. An income fund invests in longer maturity bonds and preferred stocks which give higher yields than money market debt. A government securities fund invests in government securities only - T-Bills, T-Notes and T-Bonds.

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10
Q

An investor in a “Ginnie Mae” mutual fund assumes all of the following risks EXCEPT:

A. Prepayment Risk
B. Fluctuation of Net Asset Value
C. Credit Risk
D. Reinvestment Risk

A

The best answer is C.

Since Ginnie Maes are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government, there is no credit risk (as is the case with direct Government obligations).

Since Ginnie Mae only issues mortgage backed pass-through certificates, in periods of declining interest rates, prepayment risk exists. Homeowners tend to pre-pay their “old” high rate mortgages when rates have declined by refinancing at the new lower rates. When these pre-payments are reinvested by the fund, the monies earn lower current rates, so reinvestment risk is also present.

As with any mutual fund (other than a money fund which has a constant $1 per share NAV), there is the risk that NAV can decline - which would occur if interest rates rise, forcing Ginnie Mae certificate values down.

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11
Q

A Special Situations Fund invests in:

A. U.S. Government and Agency securities
B. corporate bonds and preferred stock rated below investment grade
C. a single industry or geographic area
D. companies undergoing a takeover or bankruptcy

A

The best answer is D.

A Special Situations Fund invests in companies in “special situations” such as bankruptcies or takeovers, to reap capital gains if the company recovers. Do not confuse a special situations fund with a specialty fund. A specialty fund is one that invests in one industry or geographic area.

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12
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding a Standard and Poor’s 500 Index fund?

A. The fund must weight its investments in the same manner as the Standard and Poor’s 500 index is weighted
B. The portfolio manager must change the composition of the fund if the stocks included in the index are changed
C. The portfolio manager can overweight a position in any stock as long as it is included in the Standard and Poor’s 500 Index
D. The management fee for such a fund is typically lower than for an actively managed fund

A

The best answer is C.

Index funds attempt to “shadow” the performance of a designated index, such as the Standard and Poor’s 500 index; or the Value Line Index. Such funds match their composition and weighting periodically to match the designated index. Because no research is done to select stocks for the fund, the management fees are lower than for actively managed funds. It is false that the portfolio manager can overweight any stock in the Standard and Poor’s 500 index, since the fund must match the composition of the index as a whole.

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13
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding a Standard and Poor’s 500 Index fund?

A. The fund must weight its investments in the same manner as the Standard and Poor’s 500 index is weighted
B. The portfolio manager must periodically re-balance the composition of the fund if the stocks included in the index are changed
C. The fund tends to have a higher portfolio turnover ratio than actively-traded funds due to the constant need to re-balance
D. The management fee for such a fund is typically lower than for an actively managed fund

A

The best answer is C.

Index funds attempt to “shadow” the performance of a designated index, such as the Standard and Poor’s 500 index; or the Value Line Index. Index funds tend to have less portfolio turnover than actively managed funds. Also, because no research is done to select stocks for the fund, the management fees are lower than for actively managed funds. It is false that the portfolio manager can overweight any stock in the Standard and Poor’s 500 index, since the fund must match the composition of the index as a whole.

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14
Q

A mutual fund sponsor has three different income funds, holding AAA rated debt securities with similar maturities. Assuming that the expense ratios for the funds are identical, which fund would tend to provide the highest yield from investment income?

A. Government Bond Fund
B. Municipal Bond Fund
C. Corporate Bond Fund
D. Government Money Market Fund

A

The best answer is C.

If the securities held in each of the bond funds have similar maturities and the funds have similar expense ratios, the remaining differences affecting yields are credit rating and tax status. Corporates are considered more risky than both governments and municipals, and are fully taxable, so their yield is the highest. Governments are less risky than municipals, but are taxable by the Federal government, so government yields are higher than municipal yields. The order from highest to lowest yield is: Corporates, Governments, Municipals.

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15
Q

The majority of open-end investment companies impose:

A. front-end load sales charges
B. no sales load
C. contingent deferred sales charges
D. negotiated sales charges

A

The best answer is A.

The majority of mutual funds impose a front-end sales load, though competition in the industry has forced most funds to lower the fee below the 8 1/2% maximum allowed by FINRA.

Some funds impose a “contingent deferred sales charge,” that is imposed when a customer redeems the fund. However, the fee is lowered as the fund is held longer, encouraging investors to keep monies in the fund over the long term.

Some funds are no-load. These are money market funds, and funds sold by direct marketers such as Vanguard Corporation.

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16
Q

Money market funds are usually:

A. no load funds
B. load funds
C. closed end funds
D. growth funds

A

The best answer is A.

Money market funds are usually no load. Firms count these funds as short term holding vehicles for customer monies before a longer term investment is made, and attempt to attract these funds by not imposing a sales charge.

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17
Q

Under FINRA rules, the maximum sales charge that may be imposed on a mutual fund purchase is:

A. 6% of the amount invested
B. 7% of the amount invested
C. 8 1/2% of the amount invested
D. 9% of the amount invested

A

The best answer is C.

Under FINRA rules, the maximum sales charge that may be imposed by a mutual fund is 8 1/2% of the Public Offering Price. Note that in the real world, competition among funds has forced sales charges well below this maximum permitted level. Note that the maximum is a percentage of all dollars invested; it is not a percentage of Net Asset Value.

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18
Q

MUTUAL FUNDS
Fund Net Asset Value Offering Price Change
Capital $9.01 $9.59 -.02
Common $6.37 $6.64 -.04
Corporate $7.72 $8.44 +.03

A customer who placed an order to buy 100 shares of Corporate Fund this day will pay:

A. $772
B. $844
C. $772 plus commission
D. $844 plus commission

A

The best answer is B.

Open end mutual funds are purchased at the offering price, which is inclusive of any sales charges. This is a new issue prospectus offering, so no commissions are involved. The customer pays the offering price of $8.44 per share x 100 shares = $844.

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19
Q

MUTUAL FUNDS
Fund Net Asset Value Offering Price Change
Capital $9.01 $9.59 -.02
Common $6.37 $6.64 -.04
Corporate $7.72 $8.44 +.03

The sales charge percentage on Corporate Fund is:

A. 6%
B. 7.75%
C. 8.25%
D. 8.50%

A

The best answer is D.

The formula to find the sales charge percentage is:

                                         Ask - Bid                                  Mutual Fnd Sls Chrg % = --------------------
                                              Ask

A-B $8.44-$7.72 $.72
——– = —————— = ——– = 8 1/2%
A $8.44 $8.44

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20
Q

A mutual fund has a net asset value per share of $12.00. The maximum offering price per share is:

A. $13.11
B. $13.85
C. $14.30
D. $14.56

A

The best answer is A.

The maximum sales charge on a mutual fund is 8.5% under FINRA rules. The formula to find the offering price is:

                       Bid(NAV) Ask Price= -----------------------------
               100%-Sales Chrg %

Net Asset Value $12.00 $12.00
———————— = ————- = ———— = $13.11
100%-Sls Chrg % 100-8.5 .915

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21
Q

To impose the maximum sales charge, under FINRA rules, mutual funds must offer investors all of the following benefits EXCEPT:

A. Breakpoints
B. Plan Completion Insurance
C. Rights of Accumulation
D. Letter of Intent

A

The best answer is B.

To impose the maximum sales charge of 8 1/2%, FINRA requires funds to give investors specified breakpoints (lowered sales charges for large dollar purchases), a letter of intent option (once the letter is signed, the investor has 13 months to complete a breakpoint), and rights of accumulation (the investor’s accumulated position counts towards completion of a breakpoint).

There is no requirement for the sponsor to offer plan completion insurance, which is often included in variable annuity contracts; and which funds the annuity for a beneficiary if the contract holder dies prematurely.

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22
Q

A customer has $50,000 to invest in a mutual fund with a Net Asset Value per share of $9.42 and a Public Offering Price of $10.30. In the prospectus is the following breakpoint schedule:

Purchase Amount Sales Charge
$0-$10,000 8 1/2%
$10,001-$25,000 7 1/4%
$25,001-over 6 1/2%

How many shares of the fund can the customer purchase?

A. 4,854
B. 4,897
C. 4,921
D. 4,963

A

The best answer is D.

The customer is purchasing enough ($50,000) to qualify for a 6 1/2% sales charge. To compute the new lowered offering price, the formula is:

                      Bid(NAV) Ask Price= -----------------------------
               100%-Sales Chrg %

Net Asset Value $9.42 $9.42
———————— = ————- = ———— = $10.075
100%-Sls Chrg % 100-6.5 .935

The customer will pay $10.075 per share. A $50,000 investment will buy $50,000 / $10.075 = 4,963 shares.

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23
Q

A customer has $20,000 to invest in a mutual fund with a Net Asset Value per share of $9.42 and a Public Offering Price of $10.30. In the prospectus is the following breakpoint schedule:

Purchase Amount Sales Charge
$0-$10,000 8 1/2%
$10,001-$25,000 7 3/4%
$25,001-over 6 1/2%

How many shares of the fund can the customer purchase?

A. 1,942
B. 1,959
C. 2,123
D. 2,159

A

The best answer is B.

The customer is purchasing enough ($20,000) to qualify for a 7 3/4% sales charge. To compute the new lowered offering price, the formula is:

                      Bid(NAV) Ask Price= -----------------------------
               100%-Sales Chrg %

Net Asset Value $9.42 $9.42
———————— = ————- = ———— = $10.21
100%-Sls Chrg % 100-7.75 .9225

The customer will pay $10.21 per share. A $20,000 investment will buy $20,000 / $10.21 = 1,959 shares.

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24
Q

Crane Mutual Funds offers investors the opportunity to receive breakpoints on all purchases within their family of funds. The following lists the breakpoint schedule:

Purchase Amount		Sales Charge
$0-$10,000	 	 	8 ½%
>$10,000-$20,000	7 ½%
>$20,000-$45,000	6 ½%
>$45,000-$65,000	5 ½%
>$65,000			   5 %

An investor owns $15,000 worth of the Crane Government Fund and wishes to buy $4,000 worth of the Crane Income Fund. What will be the sales charge for this purchase?

A. 5 ½%
B. 6 ½%
C. 7 ½%
D. 8 ½%

A

The best answer is C.

Many families apply breakpoints to all purchases within the family, as is the case for the Crane Family of Funds. In this case, the fund has a breakpoint at $10,000, and the customer has $15,000 of one fund in the family. The customer wants to buy another $4,000 of another fund in the family. The customer will get the 7 ½% breakpoint on this purchase, since a total of $19,000 has been invested in the “family.” This places the customer in the $10,000 - $20,000 tier that qualifies for a lower 7 ½% sales charge.

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25
Q

A customer has purchased $5,000 of a mutual fund. Over the past 5 years, the fund has appreciated to $22,000. At this point, the customer wants to buy another $5,000 of the fund. In the prospectus, the breakpoint schedule is:

Purchase Amount		Sales Charge
$0-$10,000	 	 	      8 ½%
>$10,000-$20,000	      7 ½%
>$20,000-$45,000	      6 ½%
>$45,000-$65,000	      5 ½%
>$65,000			         5 %

On the $5,000 purchase, the customer will pay a sales charge of:

A. 8 ½%
B. 7 ½%
C. 6 ½%
D. 5 ½%

A

The best answer is C.

Since this fund starts with the maximum sales charge of 8 ½%, it must offer rights of accumulation. Funds charging the maximum sales charge are required to do so under FINRA’s Conduct Rules.

To determine the breakpoint for the customer, the new purchase amount is added to the current value of the customer’s holdings in the fund. $22,000 current value plus $5,000 purchase = $27,000 total holding after the new purchase. This places the customer between the 3rd tier ($20K - $45K), so the sales charge imposed on the $5,000 purchase is 6 ½%.

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26
Q

A customer has purchased $5,000 of a mutual fund. Over the past 5 years, the fund has appreciated to $14,000. At this point, the customer wants to buy another $5,000 of the fund. In the prospectus, the breakpoint schedule is:

Purchase Amount		Sales Charge
$0-$10,000	 	 	      8 ½%
>$10,000-$20,000	      7 ½%
>$20,000-$45,000	      6 ½%
>$45,000-$65,000	      5 ½%
>$65,000			 	 5 %

On the $5,000 purchase, the customer will pay a sales charge of:

A. 8½%
B. 7½%
C. 6½%
D. 5½%

A

The best answer is B.

Since this fund starts with the maximum sales charge of 8 ½%, it must offer rights of accumulation. Funds charging the maximum sales charge are required to do so under FINRA’s Conduct Rules.

To determine the breakpoint for the customer, the new purchase amount is added to the current value of the customer’s holdings in the fund. $14,000 current value plus $5,000 purchase = $19,000 total holding after the new purchase. This places the customer between the 2nd tier ($10K - $20K), so the sales charge imposed on the $5,000 additional purchase is 7 ½%.

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27
Q

A investor has signed a letter of intent and backdated the document 2 months. Which statement is TRUE regarding the mutual fund purchase?

A. The letter of intent may only be backdated 30 days, so any purchases in the first month won’t count toward the total invested
B. The letter of intent must be completed within the next 11 months in order to obtain the breakpoint
C. The letter of intent must be completed within the next 12 months in order to obtain the breakpoint
D. The letter of intent must be completed within the next 13 months in order to obtain the breakpoint

A

The best answer is B.

The letter of intent to receive a breakpoint can be backdated 90 days. The letter can extend for a maximum time period of 13 months, inclusive of the 90-day backdating. Since the client has already “used up” 2 months, he or she has 11 more months to buy the additional shares

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28
Q

A customer sells stock out of his account receiving net proceeds of $28,000. The customer wishes to use the proceeds to buy ACME mutual fund shares. The fund has breakpoints at $5,000 intervals. The customer has no additional funds available for investment. You should recommend that the customer:

A. reinvest $25,000 ACME fund, and use the remaining $3,000 to buy common stocks
B. sign a Letter of Intent to buy $30,000 of ACME fund
C. invest an additional $2,000 in ACME fund in addition to the proceeds from the stock sale
D. refrain from investing in ACME fund until $30,000 has been accumulated

A

The best answer is B.

Since the customer needs to invest $30,000 to achieve the next breakpoint, and has $28,000 now, an additional $2,000 is required. The customer may not have this money at this time. If the customer signs a Letter of Intent to complete the $30,000 breakpoint, he or she has 13 months to make payment of the additional $2,000, and will still receive the lower sales charge

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29
Q

A customer has the following holdings in the ACME Fund Family:

ACME Growth Fund: $225,000
ACME Balanced Fund: $120,000
ACME International Fund: $15,000
ACME Funds has the following breakpoint schedule:

$0-$50,000 5%
$50,001-$100,000 4%
$100,001 -$250,000 3%
$250,001-$1,000,000 2%

The customer wishes to buy another $60,000 of ACME Growth Fund. The sales charge that will be imposed is:

A. 4%
B. 3%
C. 2%
D. 0%

A

The best answer is C.

Mutual fund breakpoints are applied to the entire “family” of funds offered by a sponsor. This customer has a total $360,000 investment in the ACME fund family. Another $60,000 purchase brings the customer’s position up to $420,000; and the applicable breakpoint on the $60,000 purchase is 2% from the breakpoint schedule shown.

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30
Q

A customer has signed a Letter of Intent (LOI) to buy $25,000 of XYZ mutual fund to qualify for a breakpoint that reduces the sales charge from 7% to 6%. The customer deposits $15,000 into the fund over the next 13 months. At the end of 13 months, the NAV is $20,000. How much does the customer have to deposit to complete the LOI?

A. 0
B. $5,000
C. $10,000
D. $15,000

A

The best answer is C.

The Letter Of Intent (LOI) provision operates separately from Rights of Accumulation and takes precedence over Rights of Accumulation. Because of this, the customer must deposit new money in the dollar amount required by the LOI to get the lowered sales charge. Since the customer has deposited $15,000 of the $25,000 required by the LOI already, the remaining $10,000 must be deposited to retain the reduced sales charge.

After the LOI is completed, the additional NAV from the asset appreciation is added to the account balance, and establishes a new higher base level ($25,000 deposited plus $5,000 asset appreciation = $30,000) from which the sales charge will be calculated on any future purchases.

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31
Q

A client sells $28,000 of various stocks and wishes to use the proceeds to buy a mutual fund that has breakpoints at $5,000 intervals. What must the registered representative do?

A. Inform the client the he or she must sign a letter of intent to reach the $30,000 breakpoint
B. Invest the $28,000 in different mutual funds within the same family for diversification
C. Explain to the client that investing an additional $2,000 will provide the benefit of a breakpoint
D. Invest the $28,000 in the mutual fund specified by the client without making any additional disclosures to the client

A

The best answer is C.

If a customer is “close” to a breakpoint, it is a violation to not make the customer aware that putting in the additional funds to reach that level will result in a lower sales charge. If the disclosure is not made, the registered representative has committed a violation known as a “breakpoint sale.”

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32
Q

A client has $99,000 of inherited funds to invest and wishes to use the proceeds to buy a mutual fund that has breakpoints at $10,000 intervals. The registered representative accepts the customer purchase order without making any additional disclosures. Which statement is TRUE?

A. The representative has acted properly - no additional disclosures are required to be made to the customer
B. The representative was required to tell the customer about the family of funds feature
C. The representative has committed a violation known as a breakpoint sale
D. The representative has committed a violation known as backing away

A

The best answer is C.

If a customer is “close” to a breakpoint, it is a violation to not make the customer aware that putting in the additional funds to reach that level will result in a lower sales charge. If the disclosure is not made, the registered representative has committed a violation known as a “breakpoint sale.” A “backing away” violation is where a firm quote is given to a customer and then not honored - the representative has “backed away” from that quote.

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33
Q

Which statement is TRUE under FINRA rules?

A. The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .25%
B. The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .75%
C. The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is 7.25%
D. The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is 8.50%

A

The best answer is B.

12b-1 fees are permitted under SEC Rule 12b-1. If a fund adopts a 12b-1 plan it may charge its existing shareholders for the cost of soliciting new investment to the fund. For example, if you see a television or web advertisement for a mutual fund, it is being paid for by 12b-1 fees. The “cost” of soliciting new investment also includes compensation to registered representatives selling the fund shares. The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .75% of net assets per year under FINRA rules.

If a fund imposes a 12b-1 fee, FINRA limits to maximum up-front sales charge to 7.25% instead of 8.50%.

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34
Q

Which statement is TRUE under FINRA rules?

A. The maximum 12b-1 fee is limited to .25% if the fund charges the maximum 8.5% up-front sales charge
B. The maximum combined 12b-1 fee and up-front sales charge is 9.25%
C. If a fund imposes a 12b-1 fee, FINRA limits to maximum up-front sales charge to 8.50%.
D. If a fund imposes a 12b-1 fee, FINRA limits to maximum up-front sales charge to 7.25%

A

The best answer is D.

12b-1 fees are permitted under SEC Rule 12b-1. If a fund adopts a 12b-1 plan it may charge its existing shareholders for the cost of soliciting new investment to the fund. For example, if you see a television or web advertisement for a mutual fund, it is being paid for by 12b-1 fees. The “cost” of soliciting new investment also includes compensation to registered representatives selling the fund shares.

The maximum annual 12b-1 fee is .75% of net assets per year under FINRA rules. If a fund imposes a 12b-1 fee, FINRA limits to maximum up-front sales charge to 7.25% instead of 8.50%.

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35
Q

Under FINRA rules, a “no load” mutual fund:

A. cannot charge a 12b-1 fee
B. can charge a maximum annual 12b-1 fee of .25%
C. can charge a maximum annual 12b-1 fee of .50%
D. can charge a maximum annual 12b-1 fee of .75%

A

The best answer is B.

FINRA allows a mutual fund to call itself “no load” (as in no sales charge) as long as the maximum annual 12b-1 fee does not exceed .25%.

Note, in contrast, that if a fund wishes to advertise itself as a “pure no-load fund” then it cannot charge any 12b-1 fees.

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36
Q

A customer is considering the purchase of $40,000 of ABC Income Fund and intends to use the money within 1 year to make the down payment needed to buy his first house. The fund offers the following share classes:

Class A shares:
5% initial sales charge
No 12b-1 fees

Breakpoint Schedule:
$0 - $10,000 5% sales charge
$10,001 - $30,000 3% sales charge
$30,001 - $50,000 2% sales charge
$50,001 - $100,000 1% sales charge

Class B shares:
No initial sales charge
.40% annual 12b-1 fee
CDSC if the customer redeems within the following time periods:
Redeem within Year 1:	5% redemption fee
Redeem within Year 2:	4% redemption fee
Redeem within Year 3:	3% redemption fee
Redeem within Year 4:	2% redemption fee
Redeem within Year 5:	1% redemption fee
Redeem after Year 5:	0% redemption fee

Class C shares:
No initial sales charge
.75% annual 12b-1 fee
No CDSC

The best recommendation for this customer is:

A. purchase Class A shares
B. purchase Class B shares
C. purchase Class C shares
D. divide the purchase equally into $20,000 each for Class A and Class B shares

A

The best answer is C.

If this customer invested $40,000 in Class A shares, he pays a 2% sales charge and no annual 12b-1 fees for the 1 year investment time horizon. If the customer invested $40,000 in Class B shares, there is no up-front sales charge; but because the customer will redeem after year 1, he will be hit with a 4% redemption fee on these shares. In addition, the customer must pay .40% in annual 12b-1 fees for 1 year. If the customer invested the $40,000 in Class C shares, then the customer must pay .75% annually in 12b-1 fees for just 1 year. The lowest fee purchase is, therefore, Class C shares.

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37
Q

A customer redeems 1,000 shares of XYZ Fund. The computed Net Asset Value per share is $13 and the Public Offering Price is $13.68. The fund has a 1/2% redemption fee. The customer will receive:

A. $12,905
B. $12,915
C. $12,925
D. $12,935

A

The best answer is D.

Redemption is at Net Asset Value or 1,000 shares x $13 NAV = $13,000. Since there is a redemption charge of 1/2% x $13,000 = $65 redemption fee that is subtracted from the $13,000, the customer will receive $12,935 at redemption.

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38
Q

The bid price of a mutual fund is $14.30 and the ask price is $15.50. The fund has the following breakpoint schedule:

Purchase Amount Sales Charge
$0 - $10,000 7.75 %
$10,001 - $25,000 7.25 %
$25,001 - over 6.50 %

The fund charges a redemption fee of 1/2%. A customer who redeems 200 shares this day will receive:

A. $2,846
B. $2,846 less a commission
C. $2,860
D. $2,860 less a commission

A

The best answer is A.

Mutual funds are redeemed at NAV less a redemption fee (if any). No commissions are charged on purchases or redemptions. The redemption fee of 1/2% must be deducted to get the net proceeds.

$14.30 NAV x .995 x 200 shares = $2,846

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39
Q

The net asset value of a mutual fund is $15.00 and the ask price is $15.96. The fund has the following breakpoint schedule:

Purchase Amount Sales Charge
$0 - $10,000 8 %
$10,001 - $25,000 7%
$25,001 - over 6 1/4 %

The fund charges a redemption fee of 1/2%. A customer who redeems 200 shares this day will receive:

A. $2,975
B. $2,985
C. $3,000
D. $3,015

A

The best answer is B.

Mutual funds are redeemed at NAV less a redemption fee (if any). The redemption fee of 1/2% must be deducted to get the net proceeds.
$15.00 NAV x .995 x 200 shares = $2,985

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40
Q

An investor purchases 1,000 mutual fund shares with a Net Asset Value of $10 each, where the fund imposes a 5% contingent deferred sales charge if the shares are redeemed within the first year. The sales charge decreases by 1% for each year the investor remains invested in the fund. If the investor were to redeem his shares during the second year of holding the fund, based upon the NAV of $10, he or she will receive:

A. $10,000
B. $9,600
C. $9,500
D. $9,400

A

The best answer is B.

Deferred sales charges are imposed only if a customer redeems, with the amount of the sales charge typically being reduced the longer the investor remains in the fund. This investor is redeeming his $10,000 investment after holding it for 1 full year; therefore the fund is being redeemed during the 2nd year. This means the Contingent Deferred Sales Charge is 4% (it is 5% if redeemed in year 1; 4% in year 2; 3% in year 3; 2% in year 4; 1% in year 5; 0 thereafter). If the investor redeems during year 2, he or she must pay the 4% deferred sales charge, and the investor will receive $10,000 x .96 = $9,600 upon redemption.

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41
Q

A client places an order to redeem DEFF Mutual Fund at 5:45 PM on a Friday. The redemption price that the customer will receive is the:

A. NAV calculated as of the 4:00 PM close that occurred that Friday

B. POP calculated as of the 4:00 PM close that occurred that Friday

C. NAV calculated as of the 4:00 PM close that will occur the following Monday

D. POP calculated as of the 4:00 PM close that will occur the following Monday

A

The best answer is C.

Mutual fund shares do not trade. Orders to buy are filled by the fund at the next computed POP; and orders to sell are filled at the next computed NAV. Because this customer placed the order to redeem (sell) after the Friday 4:00 PM close, the customer redemption request will be filled at the next closing NAV, which will happen the following Monday.

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42
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding mutual funds?

A. That day’s opening price is the basis for fund purchase price and redemption computations
B. The next day’s opening price is the basis for fund purchase price and redemption computations
C. That day’s closing price is the basis for fund purchase price and redemption computations
D. The next day’s closing price is the basis for fund purchase price and redemption computations

A

The best answer is C.

An order placed to buy or redeem mutual fund shares is “filled” at that day’s closing Net Asset Value adjusted by any sales charges or redemption fees. If the fund is no load, there’s no sales charge.

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43
Q

Mutual funds that have an automatic reinvestment provision will reinvest:

A. only dividends at Net Asset Value
B. only capital gains at Net Asset Value
C. dividends at Net Asset Value and capital gains at the Public Offering Price
D. dividends at Net Asset Value and capital gains at the Net Asset Value

A

The best answer is D.

If a fund offers an automatic reinvestment provision, both dividend distributions and capital gains distributions are reinvested at Net Asset Value.

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44
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding money market funds?

A. Net Asset Value per share is constant at $1
B. Net Asset Value per share is constant at $10
C. Net Asset Value per share varies with the performance of the portfolio
D. Net Asset Value per share cannot be determined in a money market fund

A

The best answer is A.

Money market funds are unusual in that the Net Asset Value per share is constant at $1.00. As the fund has earnings, and Total Assets increase, the shareholder receives more shares worth $1.00 each.

For example, if an investor has 1,000 shares @ $1 ($1,000 total) in the fund, and the assets appreciate by 10%, then the customer will have 1,100 shares at $1 ($1,100 total).

45
Q

Which of the following customers is allowed a breakpoint on mutual fund purchases?

A. A corporate treasurer buying for investment
B. An investment club account buying for the club participants
C. A partnership account where the partnership is formed to buy mutual funds
D. An investment adviser omnibus account

A

The best answer is A.

An individual or corporation making a purchase is considered to be “one” purchaser and qualifies for the breakpoint. People cannot “join together” to obtain a breakpoint on a mutual fund purchase. Therefore, investment clubs cannot group purchases for a breakpoint; nor can investment advisers group their customers’ purchases; nor can a partnership be formed to buy mutual funds at a breakpoint.

An investment adviser (IA) omnibus account is a single account held at a broker-dealer for all of the investment adviser’s clients. The investment adviser cannot get a breakpoint based on aggregated purchases for these clients - each IA client is considered to be a separate purchaser.

46
Q

Which of the following customers is allowed a breakpoint on mutual fund purchases?

A. Participants in a corporate 401(k) plan
B. Investment clubs
C. Related individual purchasers only
D. Investment adviser omnibus accounts

A

The best answer is A.

People cannot “join together” to obtain a breakpoint on a mutual fund purchase. Therefore, investment clubs cannot group purchases for a breakpoint, nor can investment advisers group their customers’ purchases. Individuals whether acting alone, or in a family unit, or as part of a corporation’s retirement plan are considered to be “one” purchaser and qualify for the breakpoint.

An investment adviser (IA) omnibus account is a single account held at a broker-dealer for all of the investment adviser’s clients. The investment adviser cannot get a breakpoint based on aggregated purchases for these clients - each IA client is considered to be a separate purchaser.

47
Q

Which of the following customers is NOT allowed a breakpoint on mutual fund purchases?

A. Investment club
B. 401(k) plan participants
C. Corporate purchaser
D. Individual purchaser

A

The best answer is A.

Investment clubs cannot group purchases for a breakpoint, nor can investment advisers group their customers’ purchases. An individual or corporation making a purchase is considered to be “one” purchaser and qualifies for the breakpoint. Related family members such as spouses or parents and minor children are also counted as one purchaser and would qualify for a breakpoint.

48
Q

A new customer wishes to open an account at your firm by purchasing $5,000 of DEF mutual fund shares. He informs you that he has previously invested $30,000 in the fund at another broker-dealer. As the registered representative handling the account, you should tell the customer that:

A. to qualify for the breakpoint, he must buy the shares from the other broker-dealer
B. he must transfer the account from the other broker-C. he qualifies for a breakpoint sales charge reduction on the $5,000 purchase
D. cannot qualify for a breakpoint sales charge reduction on the $5,000 purchase

A

The best answer is C.

Mutual fund breakpoints are calculated based on amounts invested with a given fund sponsor - it makes no difference which broker-dealers were used to make the fund share purchases. The breakpoints are not calculated based on how much of a fund is purchased through a given broker-dealer but how much the client invests in a given “fund family.”

49
Q

Who can join together when making mutual fund purchases to get the benefit of a breakpoint?

A. A father who has an account at a mutual fund company and who also is the custodian in a UTMA account for his minor son at the same mutual fund company
B. Two brothers living in different states who have accounts with the same mutual fund company
C. Two business partners who each have accounts with the same mutual fund company
D. All of the above

A

The best answer is A.

Unrelated investors cannot “join together” to aggregate their purchases and get the benefit of a breakpoint. However, mutual fund companies will aggregate purchases of immediate family members in the same household and give them the benefit of the breakpoint. The two brothers are not in the same household, so this does not count!

50
Q

Which statement is TRUE about aggregation rules to qualify for a breakpoint under a mutual fund Letter of Intent provision?

A. To qualify for the lower sales charge, all purchases must be made in the same fund family and at the same broker-dealer
B. To qualify for the lower sales charge, all purchases must be made in the same fund family, but can be made through different broker-dealers
C. To qualify for the lower sales charge, purchases can be made in different fund families, but must all be made at the same broker-dealer
D. To qualify for the lower sales charge, purchases can be made in different fund families and can be made at different broker-dealers

A

The best answer is B.

Aggregation occurs at the mutual fund level, not at the broker-dealer level. Thus, all mutual purchases within the same family are aggregated to count towards a breakpoint - it makes no difference from which broker-dealer the shares were purchased.

51
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding mutual fund offerings?

A. Selling group members are allowed to discount mutual fund shares on their own
B. Selling group members are allowed to create their own breakpoint tables
C. Selling group members are allowed to sell mutual fund shares for more than the Public Offering Price
D. Selling group members cannot sell mutual fund shares for more than the Public Offering Price

A

The best answer is D.

Mutual fund shares are offered under a prospectus. The price to be charged in a prospectus offering is the POP as stated in the prospectus - which is stated as the “Next Computed Net Asset Value + the Sales Charge.” The prospectus will also detail breakpoints where sales charges are reduced. Breakpoint tables are created by the fund, not the selling broker dealer. Discounts to customers that are not stated in the prospectus are prohibited. Selling the fund for more than the Public Offering Price as stated in the prospectus is similarly prohibited.

52
Q

A customer places an order to buy mutual fund shares directly from the fund wholesaler, and therefore does not use a broker-dealer included in the fund’s selling group. Under FINRA rules, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. the wholesaler must be a registered FINRA member
B. the customer must pay the Public Offering Price as described in the prospectus
C. the wholesaler can offer the customer a lower sales charge since no concession will be paid to a selling group member
D. pricing of the fund shares must conform to the requirements of the Investment Company Act of 1940

A

The best answer is C.

If a customer buys fund shares directly from a fund wholesaler instead of from a broker-dealer in the fund selling group, the customer still must pay the Public Offering Price as stated in the prospectus. The customer does not get any extra discount by going directly to the wholesaler. Fund wholesalers must be FINRA members. All fund shares must be priced in accordance with the rules written under the Investment Company Act of 1940 - for example, mutual fund shares must be “forward priced” under these rules.

53
Q

A “breakpoint sale” is:

A. advising a customer to buy enough of a mutual fund to qualify for lowered sales charge shown in a breakpoint schedule
B. advising a customer to buy an amount of a mutual fund that is just above the minimum threshold needed to qualify for a lowered sales charge shown in a breakpoint schedule
C. encouraged under FINRA rules since the client pays a lower price
D. a violation of FINRA rules

A

The best answer is D.

A “breakpoint sale” might sound like a good thing, but it is not! It is selling a mutual fund to a customer in an amount that does not give the customer the benefit of the breakpoint (Just BELOW the minimum threshold). This unsavory practice is a violation of FINRA rules.

54
Q

A mutual fund has the following breakpoint schedule:

Purchase Amount Sales Charge
$0-$10,000 6%
$10,001-$25,000 5%
$25,001-$50,000 4%

Which single purchase amount is a “breakpoint sale”?

A. $1001
B. $11,001
C. $24,001
D. $26,001

A

The best answer is C.

A “breakpoint sale” might sound like a good thing, but it is not! It is selling a mutual fund to a customer in an amount that does not give the customer the benefit of the breakpoint. If a customer wishes to invest $24,001 in this fund, he or she should be told that another $1,000 invested will result in a lowering of the sales charge. If the customer does not have the extra $1,000 right now, then a letter of intent should be signed for the additional $1,000 purchase, which gives the customer another 13 months to get the benefit of the breakpoint.

55
Q

A customer has signed a Letter of Intent to complete a breakpoint for a $60,000 purchase of mutual fund shares. The customer has purchased $50,000, and the NAV of the position is currently $60,000. In order to complete the breakpoint, you should tell the customer to:

A. do nothing - the breakpoint is completed
B. sell $10,000 of the fund shares and use the proceeds to buy another $10,000 of the fund
C. deposit another $10,000 to buy shares to complete the breakpoint
D. donate $10,000 of the fund shares to a charity of the fund’s choice to complete the breakpoint

A

The best answer is C.

Asset appreciation does not count towards completing a breakpoint, so Choice A is a false and misleading statement. The client contractually agreed to buy $60,000 of fund shares (within 13 months) under a Letter of Intent to get a lower sales charge. If the customer does not deposit the full $60,000, then the sales charge is recomputed to a higher percentage, based on how much the customer actually purchased. So the customer must deposit another $10,000 to complete the breakpoint.

If the customer were to take the capital gains distribution as cash and use that money to buy additional shares to complete the breakpoint, then the customer would have to pay a sales charge (which would be lower because the breakpoint is being completed). But the customer must understand that if the capital gains distribution were simply reinvested, that would occur at NAV and there would be no sales charge. Not completing the breakpoint and the resulting fractional bump-up in sales charge would be less costly to the customer than the sales charge that would be imposed on the additional purchase (usually – there can be exceptions here). Thus, Choice B is an inappropriate recommendation.

Choice C is the right thing to do. The customer must deposit the remaining $10,000 to complete the breakpoint.

Choice D is basically garbage.

56
Q

A customer who places an order to buy an open-end investment company:

A. will buy at the market price at the moment the order was placed

B. must be delivered a prospectus at, or prior to, confirmation

C. must receive oral disclosure of any sales charge on the purchase

D. will receive a fill at the prior day’s closing NAV

A

The best answer is B.

The basic rule on prospectus delivery is that the prospectus must be delivered “at, or prior to, confirmation.” When a customer buys a security that requires a prospectus delivery (a new issue), in the “good old days,” a confirmation was generated detailing the purchased security and amount due, a prospectus was included in the envelope, and this was mailed by “snail mail” to the customer. When the customer opened the envelope, the prospectus was included with the confirmation, meeting the rule’s requirements.

The SEC has modernized the prospectus delivery rule for stock and bond offerings, allowing an electronic prospectus to be sent to the customer’s e-mail address. However, the mutual fund rule still requires a paper “profile prospectus” sent to the customer with the confirmation, with the full paper prospectus being available electronically if requested.

Open-end fund shares are purchased at the next computed NAV, not the prior’s days closing NAV. They do not trade in the market, so a purchase at the market price at the moment the order is placed is not possible. Finally, any sales charge is disclosed in the prospectus.

57
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding closed end investment companies?

A. Shares are issued in a one-time offering and then trade on an exchange or over-the-counter
B. Shares are issued in a one-time offering and then are redeemable with the issuer
C. Shares are continually issued and then trade on an exchange or over-the-counter
D. Shares are continually issued and then are redeemable with the issuer

A

The best answer is A.

The initial offering of closed-end investment company shares is made under a prospectus. Then the shares are listed on an exchange and trade like any other stock. The shares are not redeemable; they are negotiable. Redeemable securities are continuously issued by open-end management companies - mutual funds.

58
Q

CLOSED END BOND FUNDS

Fund NAV Stock NAV Change
Acco $8.32 8.13 -.08
Acme $9.90 10.25 +.10
Adap $7.45 7.50 -.01

A customer who places an order to buy 100 shares of Adap Fund will pay approximately:

A. $745
B. $750
C. $745 plus commission
D. $750 plus commission

A

The best answer is D.

Closed-end funds are listed on an exchange and trade like any other stock. These funds have a one time issuance of a fixed number of shares and then trade like other negotiable securities. A customer who buys will pay the current market price plus a commission. The last price for Adap Fund is $7.50, so 100 shares will cost $750 plus a commission.

59
Q

CLOSED END BOND FUNDS

Fund NAV Stock Close NAV Change
Acco $8.32 8.25 -.08
Acme $9.90 10.25 +.10
Adap $7.45 7.50 -.01

A customer who places an order to buy 100 shares of Acco Fund will pay approximately:

A. $825
B. $832
C. $825 plus commission
D. $832 plus commission

A

The best answer is C.

Closed-end funds are listed on an exchange and trade like any other stock. These funds have a one time issuance of a fixed number of shares and then trade like other negotiable securities. A customer who buys will pay the current market price plus a commission. The last price for Acco Fund is $8.25, so 100 shares will cost $825 plus a commission.

60
Q

CLOSED END BOND FUNDS

Funds NAV Stock Close NAV Change
Acco $8.32 8.13 -.08
Acme $9.90 10.25 +.10
Adap $7.45 7.50 -.01

A customer who places an order to sell 100 shares of Adap Fund will receive:

A. $745
B. $745 less a commission
C. $750
D. $750 less a commission

A

The best answer is D.

If closed-end fund shares are sold, the investor gets the current market price less a commission paid for executing the trade. The last price for Adap Fund is $7.50. An investor selling 100 shares receives $750 less a commission.

61
Q

CLOSED END BOND FUNDS

Fund NAV Stock Close NAV Change
Acco $8.32 8.13 -.08
Acme $9.90 10.25 +.10
Adap $7.45 7.50 -.01

A customer who places an order to sell 100 shares of Acme Fund will receive:

A. $990
B. $990 less a commission
C. $1,025
D. $1,025 less a commission

A

The best answer is D.

If closed-end fund shares are sold, the investor gets the current market price less a commission paid for executing the trade. The last price for Acme Fund is $10.25. An investor selling 100 shares receives $1,025 less a commission.

62
Q

Which of the following funds MUST be closed end?

A. NAV - $20.00 /Purchase Price - $20.00
B. NAV - $20.00 /Purchase Price - $20.50
C. NAV - $20.00 /Purchase Price - $19.50
D. NAV - $20.00 /Purchase Price - $20.25

A

The best answer is C.

The minimum purchase price for an open-end (mutual) fund is net asset value. The fund cannot be sold for less than this amount. It may be sold for more with a sales charge not exceeding 8 1/2% of the offering price. Closed-end funds trade in the market. The market may value the fund at NAV, at a discount to NAV or at a premium to NAV. Therefore, the only fund that can sell at a discount to NAV is a closed-end fund.

63
Q

SPDR (“Spiders”), QQQ (“Qubes”) and DIA (“DIAmonds”) are acronyms for:

A. American Depositary Receipts
B. Exchange Traded Funds
C. Mutual Funds
D. Collateralized Mortgage Obligations

A

The best answer is B.

SPDRs (“Spiders”), QQQs (“Qubes”), and DIAs (“DIAmonds”) are exchange traded funds (ETFs), listed on the exchanges. The “Spider” is the Standard and Poor’s 500 Index ETF; the “Qube” is the NASDAQ 100 Index ETF; and the DIA is the Dow Jones Industrial Index ETF.

64
Q

A “SPDR” is a(n):

A. ETF
B. ADR
C. ARS
D. VRDO

A

The best answer is A.

The “SPDR” is the Standard and Poor’s Depositary Receipt, one of the first index-ETFs. It is based on the composition of the Standard and Poor’s 500 Index. An ADR is an American Depositary Receipt. This is the vehicle for trading foreign stocks in the U.S. An ARS is an Auction Rate Security and a VRDO is a Variable Rate Demand Obligation.

65
Q

“DIAmonds” are a(n):

A. mutual fund based on the Dow Jones Industrial Average Index
B. mutual fund based on the Dow Jones Composite Index
C. exchange traded fund based on the Dow Jones Industrial Average Index
D. exchange traded fund based on the Dow Jones Composite Index

A

The best answer is C.

DIA is the acronym for the “DIAMOND” - the Dow Jones Industrial Average (30 stocks) Depository Receipt. This is an Exchange Traded Fund traded on the exchanges.

66
Q

At the market opening, a customer purchases 200 shares of an S&P 500 2X ETF at $50 per share. At the end of that day, the S&P 500 Index increases by 10%. The next day, the index declines by 5%. What will be the market value of the 200 share position?

A. $10,000
B. $10,450
C. $10,500
D. $10,800

A

The best answer is D.

Since this ETF is “2x,” it is an ETF that moves in the same direction as the market, but it moves twice as fast The customer starts with 200 shares at $50, or a $10,000 position. At the end of the first day, because the index rises by 10%, this position will rise by 20% to $12,000 value ($10,000 x 1.2). At the end of the second day, because the index goes down by 5%, the ETF value will decline by 10%. $12,000 x .90 = $10,800.

67
Q

A 200% Leveraged Dow Jones Industrial Average Index ETF would be expected to move:

A. up 5% in price when the DJIA moves up 10%
B. up 10% in price when the DJIA moves up 15%
C. down 5% in price when the DJIA moves down 10%
D. down 10% in price when the DJIA moves down 5%

A

The best answer is D.

A leveraged ETF uses borrowing (margin) and options to magnify price movement as compared to the reference index. A 200% leveraged ETF can be expected to move 2 times as fast as the reference index, either up or down. A 300% leveraged ETF can be expected to move 3 times as fast as the reference index, either up or down

68
Q

During a period of rising interest rates, which investment would be profitable?

A. 2X (Leveraged) S&P 500 Index ETF
B. Inverse (Short) S&P 500 Index ETF
C. 2X (Leveraged) 20+ Year Treasury ETF
D. Inverse (Short) 20+ Year Treasury ETF

A

The best answer is D.

If market interest rates rise, both stock and bond prices are negatively impacted. However, fixed income security prices fall more than stock prices. Furthermore, the longer maturity and lower coupon issues fall the fastest as market interest rates rise.

An inverse ETF, also called a short ETF, profits when prices drop. An inverse ETF based on the price movements of 20+ year Treasuries would have the largest profit when interest rates rise. This type of ETF has shorted 20+ year Treasuries in the hopes that prices will drop and the positions can be covered (bought back) for a profit. If market interest rates rise, this is exactly what should happen.

69
Q

At the market opening, a customer purchases 200 shares of an S&P 500 Inverse ETF (-1x) at $50 per share. At the end of that day, the S&P 500 Index declines by 10%. The next day, the index partially recovers and closes up 5%. What will be the market value of the 200 share position?

A. $9,450
B. $9,500
C. $10,450
D. $10,500

A

The best answer is C.

Since this ETF is “-1x,” it is an inverse ETF that moves at the same rate (1x), but in the opposite direction (-), to the market. The customer starts with 200 shares at $50, or a $10,000 position. At the end of the first day, because the index falls by 10%, this position will rise by 10% to $11,000 value ($10,000 x 1.1). At the end of the second day, because the index goes up by 5%, the ETF value will decline by 5%. $11,000 x .95 = $10,450.

70
Q

Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are:

A. registered as annuities under the Investment Advisors Act of 1940
B. registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940
C. closed-end management companies
D. likely to trade at a steep discount to NAV

A

The best answer is B.

ETFs are almost a “hybrid” type of investment company structure because they allow for the creation of additional shares, like an “open-end” fund; but they are listed and trade like a “closed-end” fund.

Technically, most ETFs are structured as open-end investment companies, since they allow for the creation of additional shares in minimum “creation units” of $50,000 - $100,000. If the shares are trading in the market at a discount to NAV, institutional investors can buy new creation units and short the equivalent shares that compose the units, in an arbitrage trade. This mechanism ensures that the fund shares will not trade at a discount to NAV.

Because new shares can be created, these are registered as open-end funds under the Investment Company Act of 1940.

71
Q

ETFs are:

A. non-negotiable
B. redeemable
C. traded on exchanges
D. traded over-the-counter

A

The best answer is C.

Exchange Traded Funds, as the name says, trade on stock exchanges. Most are AMEX (now renamed the NYSE American) listed, but there are ETFs on the NYSE and NASDAQ as well.

72
Q

Exchange traded funds can NOT be:

A. bought on margin
B. sold short
C. traded anytime during exchange hours
D. redeemed with the sponsor

A

The best answer is D.

ETFs (Exchange Traded Funds) such as SPDRs are negotiable - they trade as would any regular stock. They are marginable and they can be sold short since ETFs are available for many different indexes and sectors. ETFs are not redeemable - it is mutual fund shares that are redeemable.

73
Q

Which term BEST describes an ETF?

A. Stock
B. Mutual Fund
C. Derivative
D. Bond

A

The best answer is A.

ETF stands for Exchange Traded Funds. These are fund shares that trade like any other stock. They are not mutual fund shares because they cannot be redeemed at any time with the sponsor. Rather, they are negotiable securities.

74
Q

An ETF that attempts to emulate the Standard and Poor’s 500 Index employs what investment strategy?

A. Passive asset management
B. Active asset management
C. Fundamental analysis
D. Technical analysis

A

The best answer is A.

Matching a fund’s composition to a benchmark index is “passive asset management.” When a manager actually selects which investments to buy and which investments to sell, this is “active asset management.” Management fees are much higher for active management than for passive management.

75
Q

Index ETFs are:

A. passively managed and negotiable
B. actively managed and negotiable
C. passively managed and redeemable
D. actively managed and redeemable

A

The best answer is A.

Almost all ETFs are based on a benchmark index. They mirror the composition of the index, so they are “passively” managed and have low management fees. An actively managed fund is one where the investment adviser chooses which securities to buy and sell. Active management comes with higher management fees. There are only a very few actively managed ETFs - almost all are passively managed. They trade like any other stock and are not redeemable.

76
Q

Exchange traded index funds:

A. have comparable or lower expense ratios than index mutual funds
B. can be purchased at the next calculated POP plus a nominal sales charge
C. can be redeemed at net asset value computed at the close of the market
D. can be traded at no commission cost to the customer

A

The best answer is A.

Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) can be traded anytime during the day, whereas mutual funds are purchased or redeemed at that day’s closing net asset value. The expense ratios for ETFs are similar to, or lower than, those for comparable index mutual funds. The purchase or sale of an ETF incurs a commission cost; and ETFs can be purchased or sold short on margin.

77
Q

When comparing an Exchange Traded Fund to a Unit Investment Trust, the customer should be made aware that:

A. expense ratios tend to be higher for ETFs than for UITs
B. the secondary market for UITs is limited while ETFs are actively traded
C. UIT portfolios are actively managed while ETF portfolios are passively managed
D. cash dividends received from UITs do not qualify for the lower 15% tax rate, while cash dividends received from ETFs do qualify for the lower rate

A

The best answer is B.

ETFs (Exchange Traded Funds) are actively traded on stock markets like any other stock. UITs (Unit Investment Trusts) are created by a sponsor and sold with a prospectus. The secondary market for these is usually thin, though the sponsor does make a market in trust units. Both ETFs and UITs have low expense ratios; both are typically passively managed (that is, the portfolio is basically fixed); and cash dividends received from both qualify for the lower 15% tax rate if the portfolio holds equity securities.

78
Q

Which statement is TRUE about ETNs?

A. ETNs are backed by a portfolio of securities that track a recognized stock index
B. ETNs are registered investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940
C. ETNs have both credit risk and market risk
D. ETNs are principal protected and government guaranteed

A

The best answer is C.

An ETN is an Exchange Traded Note. It is a structured product created by an investment bank. These are “bond-like” investments that have a typical 7-year life. They give an annual return that is tied to the performance of a benchmark stock index, subject to a cap and a floor. They are not ETFs – there are no physical securities backing the product and they are not an investment company type. They are simply backed by the credit of the issuing bank – if the bank fails, so does the ETN. ETNs are listed and trade, though trading is generally thin. This minimizes marketability risk, but note that ETNs still have market risk - their price can fall in the market.

79
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding ETFs (Exchange Traded Funds)?

A. ETFs are available on international stock indexes
B. ETFs are available on narrow-based stock indexes
C. ETFs are available on bond indexes
D. ETFs are available on individualized stock portfolios

A

The best answer is D.

ETFs have been increasing in popularity as compared to traditional mutual funds because of their low cost (low expense ratios); ease of buying and selling like any other stock; and tax efficiency (no mandatory annual long term capital gain distributions). ETFs are available based on sector indexes; narrow-based stock indexes; broad based stock indexes; bond indexes and international stock indexes.

Note that there is no such thing as an ETF based on an individualized stock portfolio. The whole point of an ETF is to create a negotiable security that benchmarks a recognized index.

80
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding ETFs (Exchange Traded Funds)?

A. The purchaser of an ETF is not required to receive a disclosure document because the shares are purchased in the secondary market
B. The purchaser of an ETF is required to receive either a prospectus or a Product Description summarizing key information about the ETF
C. The purchaser of an ETF is required to receive an Offering Memorandum because a public offering of securities is being made
D. The purchaser of an ETF is required to receive an Official Statement, at, or prior to, settlement of the transaction

A

The best answer is B.

Regarding Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), the shares trade in the secondary market like any other stock. However, any purchaser is required to be delivered either a prospectus (similar to that for a mutual fund) or a Product Document summarizing key information about the ETF and the details of where a prospectus can be obtained.

The basic idea here is that the customer is buying the equivalent of an exchange traded index-mutual fund; and even though technically each purchase is not a “new issue” like the purchase of a mutual fund, the customer must still receive a disclosure document.

An Offering Memorandum is the disclosure document used for a Regulation D private placement.

An Official Statement is the disclosure document used for a new municipal bond issue.

81
Q

Fund Operating Expenses / Total Net Assets is the formula for a mutual fund’s:

A. Current Ratio
B. Profitability Ratio
C. Expense Ratio
D. Portfolio Turnover Ratio

A

The best answer is C.

The expense ratio of a mutual fund measures the proportion of investment return on assets that is consumed by expenses. The lower the ratio, the more “efficient” the fund is. The expense ratio is:

                          Fund Operating Expenses Expense Ratio =  ----------------------------------------
                                Total Net Assets
82
Q

Which statement about management fees is TRUE?

A. A no-load fund is one that does not have a management fee
B. Management fees cannot be more than 8 1/2% of the Public Offering Price
C. Management fees cannot be based on fund performance
D. Maximum management fees are set under the Investment Company Act of 1940

A

The best answer is C.

A no-load fund is one that does not have a sales charge.

All mutual funds charge management fees, whether they are load or no-load funds. The maximum sales charge on a load fund is set at 8 1/2% by FINRA. FINRA does not set maximum management fees.

The Investment Company Act of 1940 does not set maximum management fees either - it requires that shareholders vote on the management contract, which will tend to limit compensation; and that compensation cannot be based on fund gains and losses. The permitted management fee structure is either a flat fee; or a fee based on percentage of assets under management.

83
Q

Typically, the largest expense associated with running a mutual fund is (are) the:

A. management fee
B. custodial fees
C. brokerage fees
D. legal fees

A

The best answer is A.

The largest expense of running a mutual fund is the annual management fee. It is typically 1/2 - 1% of assets annually.

84
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding mutual fund expense ratios?

A. The expense ratio will rise if the fund raises its management fee
B. The expense ratio will rise if the fund incurs higher administrative costs
C. The expense ratio will rise if the fund experiences large investment inflows
D. The expense ratio will rise if the fund experiences large redemptions

A

The best answer is C.
The formula for the expense ratio is:

                          Fund Operating Expenses Expense Ratio = -----------------------------------------
                            Total Net Assets

If expenses rise (such as a higher management fee or administrative costs), or assets fall (caused by increased redemptions), the ratio will rise. Large investment inflows would increase total net assets, causing a decline in the ratio.

85
Q

A mutual fund’s expense ratio has been increasing over the last 4 years. Which of the following may have caused the increase?

A. Higher redemptions
B. Higher sales charges
C. Higher dividend distributions
D. Higher capital gains distributions

A

The best answer is A.

The formula for the expense ratio is:

                          Fund Operating Expenses Expense Ratio = -----------------------------------------
                            Total Net Assets

If expenses rise (such as a higher fees), or assets fall (caused by increased redemptions), the ratio will rise. Distributions made by the fund have no bearing on the ratio. The sales charge is not part of the expense ratio.

86
Q

A fund that distributes at least 90% of its Net Investment Income to shareholders is termed a(n):

A. income fund
B. registered fund
C. regulated fund
D. tax exempt fund

A

The best answer is C.

A fund that distributes at least 90% of Net Investment Income to shareholders is “regulated” under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code and pays no tax on the distributed amount.

87
Q

In order to be regulated under Subchapter M of the IRS Code, at least how much of the Net Investment Income must be distributed to the mutual fund shareholders?

A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 100%

A

The best answer is C.

A fund that distributes at least 90% of Net Investment Income to shareholders is “regulated” under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code and pays no tax on the distributed amount.

88
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the federal tax treatment of income and capital gains from “regulated” mutual funds that invest in municipal debt?

A. Investors have no federal tax liability on either dividend distributions or capital gains distributions
B. Investors have federal tax liability on both dividend distributions and capital gains distributions
C. Investors have no federal tax liability on dividend distributions, but have tax liability on capital gains distributions
D. Investors have federal tax liability on dividend distributions, but have no tax liability on capital gains distributions

A

The best answer is C.

If a mutual fund invests solely in municipal securities, there is no federal tax liability on the interest income received (remember, the interest income from municipal securities is exempt from federal income tax).

However, capital gains on all securities are taxable.

89
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the federal tax treatment of a “regulated” mutual fund investing solely in municipal securities?

A. Investors have federal tax liability on the interest income received from the fund since the distribution is coming from a fund which is a corporate entity
B. Investors have federal tax liability on the interest income received from the fund unless the dividends are deemed qualified
C. Any capital gains distributions are tax-free to investors as long as the fund distributes at least 90% of Net Investment Income
D. Neither the investment company nor investors have federal tax liability on income but capital gains distributions will be taxable.

A

The best answer is D.

Since this mutual fund invests solely in municipal securities, there is no federal tax liability on the interest income received (remember, the interest income from municipal securities is exempt from Federal income tax). Under the “conduit” theory, any payment distributed by the fund to shareholders retains the same character and is free from Federal income tax. Similarly, undistributed income retained by the fund would not be taxed, since it consists solely of tax-free municipal interest income.

Capital gains on municipal bonds are taxable - it is only the interest income which is free of federal income tax. Therefore, any capital gains distributions made a fund investing solely in municipal securities are taxable.

90
Q

An investor buys $10,000 of a “regulated” mutual fund investing solely in municipal securities. Which statement is TRUE regarding the federal tax treatment of the interest income?

A. The investor must pay federal income tax on all interest received, since payments come from the investment company
B. The investor must pay tax on any distributions received from the investment company, while the company has no tax obligation
C. The investor has no tax liability on any distributions received, while the investment company must pay tax on any retained income
D. The investor has no tax liability on distributions received, and the investment company has no tax liability on retained income

A

The best answer is D.

Since this mutual fund invests solely in municipal securities, there is no federal tax liability on the interest income received (remember, the interest income from municipal securities is exempt from federal income tax).

Under the “conduit” theory, any payment distributed by the fund to shareholders retains the same character and is free from federal income tax. Similarly, undistributed income retained by the fund would not be taxed, since it consists solely of tax free municipal interest income.

91
Q

A customer wants to switch between 2 different mutual funds within the same “family.” You should tell the customer that:

A. there will be no tax liability
B. there will be no tax liability if the switch is made within 60 days
C. there will be no tax liability if all funds are reinvested
D. taxes will be due if the fund shares that are sold have appreciated

A

The best answer is D.

When a switch is made between two funds, the IRS considers this to be the sale of one fund and the purchase of another fund. If the fund shares that are sold have appreciated, there is capital gains tax liability.

92
Q

A customer switches from a growth fund to an income fund within the same “family of funds.” Which statement is TRUE?

A. No tax liability is incurred because this is treated as a “wash sale”
B. No tax liability is incurred because this is treated as a “like kind exchange” of assets
C. Tax must be paid on any amount by which the NAV of the new fund exceeds the old fund’s NAV
D. The sale results in a “taxable event” on which tax on any gain is due, and the purchase establishes a new cost basis

A

The best answer is D.

When the shares of one fund are sold, unless the monies are reinvested in the same fund, (resulting in a non-taxable “like-kind” exchange), capital gains tax is due on the sale proceeds versus the cost basis in the shares. The purchase of the new (different) shares results in a new cost basis.

93
Q

The ex dividend date for mutual funds is set by:

A. FINRA
B. the Fund Board of Directors
C. the shareholders of the Fund
D. the SEC

A

The best answer is B.

Since mutual funds do not trade, the Board of Directors sets the ex (reduction) date for fund distributions.

94
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding mutual funds and the ex dates for mutual fund distributions?

A. The ex-date for a mutual fund is fixed at the business day prior to record date
B. The ex-date for a mutual fund is set by the exchange upon which the fund trades
C. The ex-date for a mutual fund is set by FINRA
D. The ex-date for a mutual fund is set by the fund’s Board of Directors

A

The best answer is D.

Since mutual funds do not trade, the Board of Directors sets the ex-date (reduction date) for fund distributions. The ex-date is set at the morning of the business day following the record date. This is the date that the distribution is made to shareholders, or reinvested in additional share purchases.

95
Q

If a fund distributes a capital gain to shareholders, which statement is TRUE?

A. The capital gain is taxable if it is taken as a check
B. The capital gain is not taxable if it is taken as a check
C. The capital gain is taxable only if it is automatically reinvested in the fund
D. The capital gain is not taxable if it is automatically reinvested in the fund

A

The best answer is A.

Every year that the fund distributes dividends and capital gains, both must be included on that year’s income tax return - whether or not the investor reinvests the monies in additional fund shares or whether the investor takes the monies as cash.

96
Q

A portfolio manager realizes a substantial capital loss when selling a large security position that was acquired 2 years ago. Because of this action, the NAV of the fund:

A. will increase
B. will decease
C. is unaffected
D. is unstable

A

The best answer is C.

Surprisingly, whenever a fund sells a position at a significant loss, there is no reduction in NAV. Why? The position has already been marked to market and the loss is reflected in the fund’s NAV each day.

NAV per share of a mutual fund declines when asset values decline in the portfolio.

When a fund pays either a dividend distribution or capital gains distribution, the NAV per share is reduced on the ex date to reflect the lower per share value. Of course, any person who elects to reinvest the distributions in more shares will have now hold more shares, each one worth less than before. But in aggregate, the investment value would not have changed.

97
Q

Which of the following would NOT reduce the Net Asset Value per share of a mutual fund?

A. Asset depreciation
B. Dividend distribution
C. Capital gains distribution
D. The fund sells a portfolio position to realize a large loss

A

The best answer is D.

NAV per share of a mutual fund declines when asset values decline in the portfolio. When a fund pays either a dividend distribution or capital gains distribution, the NAV per share is reduced on the ex date to reflect the lower per share value. Of course, any person who elects to reinvest the distributions in more shares will have now hold more shares, each one worth less than before. But in aggregate, the investment value would not have changed.

Surprisingly, whenever a fund sells a position at a significant loss, there is no reduction in NAV. Why? The position has already been marked to market and the loss is reflected in the fund’s NAV each day.

98
Q

Which of the following would NOT result in a decrease in the Net Asset Value of mutual fund?

A. The securities in the portfolio have paid dividends
B. The securities in the portfolio have depreciated in value
C. A fund pays out its annual capital gains distribution
D. The fund has made dividend distributions to shareholders

A

The best answer is A.

If a fund distributes a dividend or capital gains to shareholders, the fund shares are reduced by the value of the distribution. If the securities in the fund portfolio pay dividends, these are received by the fund. The receipt of these monies into the fund increases NAV per share. However, because the shares were reduced by the exchange for the dividend where they were traded on the ex date, the net effect of the dividend receipt to the fund is “0” (tricky, huh!). Depreciating securities in the fund portfolio will also decrease NAV per share.

99
Q

Net Asset Value per share for a mutual fund can be expected to decrease if the:

A. securities in the portfolio have appreciated in value
B. securities in the portfolio have made dividend distributions
C. fund has made dividend distributions to shareholders
D. fund has experienced net redemptions of shares

A

The best answer is C.

This is a tricky question. If a fund distributes a dividend to shareholders, an ex-date is set by the Board of Directors of the fund. On this date, the Fund’s shares are reduced by the value of the distribution. If the securities in the fund portfolio pay dividends, these are received by the fund. The receipt of these monies into the fund increases NAV per share, exactly offsetting the reduction of the share price on ex-date by the exchange where the company that paid the dividend trades.

Thus, when securities in the portfolio pay a dividend, there is no effect on NAV. Appreciating securities in the fund portfolio will also increase NAV per share. Redemption of shares should have no effect on NAV per share.

100
Q

All of the following would reduce the Net Asset Value per share of a mutual fund EXCEPT:

A. asset depreciation
B. asset appreciation
C. capital gains distribution
D. dividend distribution

A

The best answer is B.

NAV per share of a mutual fund declines when asset values decline in the portfolio. When a fund pays either a dividend distribution or capital gains distribution, the NAV per share is reduced on the ex date to reflect the lower per share value. Of course, any person who elects to reinvest the distributions in more shares will have now hold more shares, each one worth less than before. But in aggregate, the investment value would not have changed.

101
Q

Which statement is TRUE about the Net Asset Value per share for a mutual fund?

A. The distribution of capital gains does not affect the Net Asset Value per share
B. The redemption of mutual fund shares does not affect the Net Asset Value per share
C. NAV is calculated every calendar day
D. The distribution of dividends to mutual fund shareholders does not affect the Net Asset Value per share

A

The best answer is B.

If a fund distributes a dividend or capital gain to shareholders, the fund shares are reduced by the value of the distribution on the ex date.

Redemption of shares has no effect on Net Asset Value per share, because the redemption of each share occurs at the current Net Asset Value that day. The reduction in total net assets is exactly matched by a proportionate reduction in shares outstanding, so Net Asset Value per share is unchanged by the redemption. NAV is calculated each business day, not every calendar day.

102
Q

Which statement is TRUE about the Investment Company Act of 1940’s requirements for management companies?

A. At least 40% of the Board of Directors must be “non-interested” persons
B. At least 50% of the Board of Directors must be non-interested
C. At least 60% of the Board of Directors must be non-interested
D. At least 75% of the Board of Directors must be non-interested

A

The best answer is A.

The Investment Company Act of 1940 requires that at least 40% of the Board of Directors be “non-interested parties” - that is, they are not affiliated with the sponsor, custodian, transfer agent, or firms in the selling group.

103
Q

Under the Investment Company Act of 1940, at least 40% of the members of the Board of Directors of a management company must be independent. This requirement helps ensure that:

A. the fund is operated in the best interests of the fund shareholders
B. a minimum 60% of the Board understands the business of the fund
C. all shareholders are not denied their right to vote
D. the fund meets the definition of a “Regulated Fund”

A

The best answer is A.

The best answer is a. The Investment Company Act of 1940 requires that a minimum of 40% of the Board of Directors of a fund be independent. This means that these individuals cannot be employed by the fund, nor can they be providing services to the fund for compensation. Thus, their decisions overseeing fund management are truly “independent” and ensure that these decisions are being made to benefit the fund shareholders (as opposed to benefitting individuals on the Board.

Note that a “regulated” fund is not a definition under the Investment Company Act of 1940. It is an IRS definition, where if a fund distributes at least 90% of Net Investment Income to shareholders, then the fund pays no tax on the distributed income. The income” flows through” to the shareholders and is only taxed at the fund level

104
Q

A mutual fund that wishes to change its investment objective:

A. is not permitted to do so under the provisions of the Investment Company Act of 1940
B. can do so only with majority vote of the Board of Directors of the fund
C. can do so only with majority vote the independent members of the Board of Directors of the fund
D. can do so only with majority vote of the shareholders of the fund

A

The best answer is D.

If a fund wishes to change its investment objective, this action requires majority vote the shareholders of the fund.

105
Q

Mutual funds must send their financial statements to shareholders:

A. once a year
B. two times per year
C. three times per year
D. four times per year

A

The best answer is B.

Mutual funds must send their financial statements to shareholders semi-annually (twice a year).

106
Q

Which of the following terms are synonymous when talking about open-end funds?

A. Investment Adviser / Portfolio Manager
B. Underwriter / Dealer
C. load / 12b-1 fee
D. Net Asset Value/ acquisition price

A

The best answer is A.

When talking about mutual funds, the Fund Sponsor is the Fund Underwriter and the Investment Adviser is the fund portfolio manager. Broker-dealers may join in a selling group to sell these funds, acting as agent only. Public Offering Price of a fund is the same as the fund’s ask price. Net asset Value is the fund’s redemption price. The “load” is the fund’s sales charge.

107
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding money market funds?

A. Money market funds are typically sold with a nominal sales charge
B. Money market funds typically do not impose management fees
C. Fund dividends are taxable even if reinvested
D. Typical maturities of securities held in the portfolio are 270 days or less

A

The best answer is C.

Money market funds usually do not impose sales charges but all funds impose management fees. Fund dividends are taxable, whether or not they are automatically reinvested in additional fund shares. The reason why these funds are called “money” funds is that the securities held in the portfolios have very short maturities (less than 30 days) and turn over into cash quickly.

108
Q

Which statement is TRUE about money market funds?

A. Money market funds usually have high beta coefficients
B. All distributions are fully taxable as investment income
C. The objective of such funds is long term capital growth
D. Money market funds usually have sales charges

A

The best answer is B.

Money market funds invest in very short term (usually 30 day maximum maturity) money market instruments with an investment objective of high current income. All distributions are fully taxable as investment income. The beta coefficient (volatility of a security relative to the market) of these funds is very low - the securities are not volatile because the maturities are so short. Money market funds typically do not have sales charges.

109
Q

Which statement is TRUE about mutual fund “Class A” shares?

A. Class A shares impose no, or a very low, 12b-1 fee
B. Class A shares impose a contingent deferred sales charge
C. Class A shares may not offer breakpoints
D. Class A shares are referred to as “level loads”

A

The best answer is A.

Mutual funds offer various share classes to investors. The investor can choose to buy the same fund either as a Class A, B, C, or D share.

Class A shares typically charge an up-front sales charge, but have no, or very low, annual 12b-1 fees.

Class B shares have no up-front sales charge; instead, they have a contingent deferred sales charge, and impose higher annual 12b-1 fees than A shares.

Class C shares have a lower contingent deferred sales charge than B shares, but impose the highest 12b-1 fees.

Class D shares are typically sold by investment advisers. There is no sales charge, but they impose annual 12b-1 fees and service fees.

Unlike Class B or C shares, Class A shares offer breakpoints. Class C shares are sometimes referred to as “level loads.”