Malfunctions and Emergencies Ops Limits Flashcards

1
Q

An engine being motored by the APU should reach _____ core RPM; below may indicate impending APU failure or insufficient engine-starting air.

A

24%-28%

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2
Q

Minimum aerodynamic single-engine ground control speed is _____.

A

70 KIAS

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3
Q

With left engine failure on takeoff, residual hydraulic pressure should retract landing gear if handle is raised within _____.

A

5 seconds

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4
Q

The emergency jettison button will release all stores within _____.

A

1 second

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5
Q

If an engine fails after takeoff, increase minimum climb speed _____ above best SERC with gear up, and another _____ after flaps retract.

A

10 KIAS; 10 KIAS

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6
Q

If an engine fails after takeoff, delay flap retraction until _____.

A

150 KIAS

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7
Q

With a loss of one hydraulic system, rudder pedal pressure will increase and SAS authority for yaw trim and turn coordination is reduced by _____.

A

50%

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8
Q

After a total engine oil system failure, that engine will seize in _____.

A

1-3 minutes

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9
Q

Rudder inputs needed to maintain coordinated flight are noticeably higher after failure of the _____ engine and may require up to _____.

A

Right; 100 pounds

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10
Q

If one hydraulic system fails, engage only the operable _____ SAS.

A

Yaw

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11
Q

If one hydraulic system fails, ensure both _____ SAS switches are off.

A

Pitch

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12
Q

If an aileron or elevator is jammed, the appropriate jam light will illuminate for _____ after a force of _____ is applied to the control stick.

A

3-5 seconds; 50-65 pounds

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13
Q

An engine oil pump driveshaft failure is indicated by simultaneous loss of oil pressure and engine _____.

A

Core speed (RPM)

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14
Q

After a double-engine failure, the time required to restart the left engine may result in altitude loss of _____ prior to attaining usable power.

A

3700’

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15
Q

Best glide speed in the A-10C is _____ plus 2 times each 1,000 pounds above basic aircraft weight (i.e. no-flap approach airspeed).

A

140 KIAS

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16
Q

An erect spin is confirmed with the turn needle fully deflected, airspeed at or below _____ and AOA consistently above _____ units.

A

120 KIAS; 25

17
Q

Post-stall gyrations may require less than _____ to as much as _____ of altitude for recovery.

A

1000’; 8000’

18
Q

Spin recoveries require _____ to _____ of altitude for incipient half-turn spins, and _____ of altitude for 3-turn developed spins.

A

4000’; 6000’; 10,000’

19
Q

Do not delay controlled ejection below _____ AGL; during uncontrolled flight conditions, minimum ejection altitude is _____ AGL.

A

2000’; 4000’

20
Q

If a go around is required from a single-engine approach, best climb speed is _____ below approach speed; add _____ after gear is retracted.

A

10 KIAS; 10 KIAS

21
Q

Engine post-shutdown overtemp or fire is indicated by engine ITT above _____ as the core RPM drops below _____.

A

540°C; 5%

22
Q

If OBOGS stops producing oxygen-enriched air (e.g. loss of bleed air) and with the regulator in 100%, OBOGS will provide _____ of reserve.

A

2-3 minutes

23
Q

The REOS bottle on the ejection seat provides approximately _____ of regulated oxygen after activation.

A

12-15 minutes