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Specialties Past Paper Questions > Make a Medic Mocks > Flashcards

Make a Medic Mocks Flashcards

1
Q

What is uterine inversion?

A

Complication of 3rd stage of labour

Manifests:
- Maternal shock (blood loss)
- Lump (uterine fundus) protruding from vaginal introitus

Mx:
- Uterus should be manually reduced
- If this fails, surgery

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2
Q

What is uterine involution?

A

Shrinking of the uterus back to pre-pregnancy size once the baby and placenta has been delivered

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3
Q

What is ground A of the abortion act?

A

That the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated.

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4
Q

What is ground B of the abortion act?

A

That the termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman.

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5
Q

What is ground C of the abortion act?

A

That the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman.

(Majority of abortions carried out under this act)

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6
Q

What is ground D of the abortion act?

A

That the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of any existing children of the family of the pregnant woman.

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7
Q

Ground E of the abortion act

A

That there is substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped

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8
Q

Ground F of the abortion act

A

To save the life of the pregnant woman.

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9
Q

Ground G of the abortion act

A

To prevent grave permanent injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman.

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10
Q

How are perineal tears classified?

A
  • 1st: Perineal skin and/or vaginal mucosa
  • 2nd: Perineal muscles, no involvement of anal sphincter
  • 3rd (A): <50% of external anal sphincter
  • 3rd (B): >50% of external anal sphincter
  • 3rd (C): External and internal anal sphincter
  • 4th: Involvement of anal sphincter and anorectal mucosa

3rd and 4th associated with increased risk of faecal incontinence

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11
Q

Once identified, what is the next step in assessing perineal tears?

A

DRE to assess extent of involvement of anal canal

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12
Q

How are 1st/2nd perineal tears managed?

A

Repaired by midwives in delivery room

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13
Q

How are 3rd/4th perineal tears managed?

A

Repaired in theatre by obstetricians

Vaginal pack can be inserted to control excessive bleeding

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14
Q

What is the presentation of neonatal herpes infection?

A

Vesicles and pustules often involving the face and mouth

Three forms:

  • SEM: Localised to skin, eyes and mouth
  • CNS: Encephalitis
  • Disseminated infection
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15
Q

How can neonatal varicella be differentiated from neonatal herpes?

A

Varicella tends to be disseminated lesions all over the body (beginning on the face) at various stages of healing

Herpes lesions tend to be clustered, mainly occurring on the face

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16
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary PPH?

A

Infection

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17
Q

What is the management of PPH?

A
  1. A-E
    - 14g peripheral cannulae (x2)
    - Lie woman flat
    - Bloods (G+S, X-match)
    - Crystalloid infusion
  2. Mechanical
    - Palpate and rub uterine fundus
    - Catheterisation (prevent bladder distention)
  3. Medical
    - IV oxytocin injection then infusion
    - IV/ IM ergometrine
    - IM carboprost
    - Sublingual misoprostol
  4. Surgical
    - Intrauterine balloon tamponade
    - Other options: B-lynch suture, ligation or uterine arteries/ internal iliac arteries
    - Hypsterectomy (life saving)
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18
Q

When is carboprost contraindicated?

A

Asthma

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19
Q

When is ergometrine contraindicated?

A

Hypertension

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20
Q

When is clomiphene most effective?

A

Between days 2-6 of cycle

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21
Q

What is given in oligomenorrheic patients before giving clomiphene?

A

Progestogen for 10 days to induce a withdrawal bleed and then clomiphene started on day 2 of the period, continued for 5 days

Check serum progesterone on day 21 to check for ovulation

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22
Q

How long can the cycle of clomiphene be repeated?

A

Max 6 times before the risk of ovarian cancer is too high

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23
Q

What does staining with acetic acid in colposcopy suggest?

A

Presence of abnormal nuclear: protein ratio within cells

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24
Q

What does iodine bind to when used in colposcopy?

A

Glycogen, present in normal cells

Abnormal cells lack glycogen so reamin yellow

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25
Q

Which viral strains cause roseola?

A

HHV6 and HHV7

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26
Q

Where does the rash begin in roseloa?

A

Chest and abdomen and spreads to the limbs over days

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27
Q

Which x-ray views should be ordered for Perthe’s disease?

A

Anteroposterior and frog leg lateral views

(shows increased density of the femoral head)

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28
Q

When would an MRI be indicated for Perthe’s disease?

A

When the x-ray is normal but there is high clinical suspicion

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29
Q

What is talipes equinovarus?

A

Club foot

(One or both feet are inverted and supinated)

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30
Q

What is positional talipes?

A

More mild form of club foot caused by compression in utero and corrected by passive manipulation

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31
Q

What is the management for talipes equinovarus?

A

Manipulation, casting and bracing with the Ponseti method

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32
Q

What is the management of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?

A

Mechanical ventilation and urgent exchange transfusion

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33
Q

What is the first step in managing a sickle cell crisis?

A

Adequate analgesia

(then adequate oxygenation and hydration)

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34
Q

Which sickle cell crises will need exchange transfusion?

A
  • Acute chest syndrome
  • Priaprism
  • Stroke
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35
Q

What is polyethylene glycol?

A

Movicol

(Once prescribed, GP should arrange 2 week follow up)

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36
Q

How long should children stay off school with mumps?

A

5 days following the onset of parotitis

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37
Q

What are the red flag symptoms of mumps?

A

Meningism and epididymo-orchitis

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38
Q

Is Turner’s syndrome associated with intellectual impairment?

A

No

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39
Q

What is the management of meconium aspiration?

A
  • Examine oral cavity for meconium and remove using large-bore suction catheter
  • IV gentamicin and ampicillin
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40
Q

What is the definitive treatment for biliary atresia?

A

Kasai procedure

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41
Q

Which organisms most commonly cause otitis externa?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Psuedomonas aeruginosa
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42
Q

What is the presentation of vestibular neuronitis?

A

Inner ear infection

  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Dizziness
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43
Q

What is the first line treatment of dementia with lewy bodies?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors eg. rivastigmine

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44
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

Presence of schizophrenia symptoms for >=1 month + mood disorder (mania or depression)

Mood disorder must be present for the majority of the illness, but should be at least 2 weeks of psychosis without mood symptoms (distinguish from psychotic depression or mania with psychosis)

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45
Q

What is a brief psychotic disorder?

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia lasting <1 month

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46
Q

What is schizophreniform disorder?

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia lasting 1-6 months (mood symptoms less prominent than in schizoaffective disorder)

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47
Q

What is the management of schizoaffective disorder?

A
  • Antipsychotic (atypical)
  • Mood stabiliser (lithium)
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48
Q

When is the onset of baby blues?

A

Within the first 2 weeks PP

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49
Q

When does post natal depression present?

A

6-8 weeks post partum

But any depression within 1 year post partum is considered PPD

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50
Q

What are the requirements for a gestational hypertension diagnosis?

A

blood pressure (BP) ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions (at least 4 hours apart) during pregnancy after 20 weeks’ gestation in a previously normotensive patient, without the presence of proteinuria or other clinical features suggestive of pre-eclampsia

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51
Q

What is a commonly used first line tocolytic?

A

Nifedipine

If contraindicated, atosiban can be used

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52
Q

What is the first step in managing preterm labour with in-tact membranes?

A

Pre-term labour can be diagnosed if cervix is <15mm on TVUSS

  • Tocolytics (nifedipine, atosiban)
  • Corticosteroids (22-33+6 weeks), don’t give more than 2 courses
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53
Q

What are the risks of contractions with cervical cerclage in place?

A

Cervical tear

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54
Q

What are the symptoms of lichen planus?

A

Polyglonal (many sharp angles), violaceous (violet colour) macular rash on vulva and perianal region

Wikham striae on oral mucosa (cob-web like markings)

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55
Q

How does the surgical treatment of endometriosis differ when fertility is a priority?

A

Fertility:

  • Laproscopic excision or ablation with adhesiolysis

Not prioritising fertility:

  • Laparoscopic excision followed by hormonal treatment, as hormonal treatment can prolong the effects of surgery
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56
Q

Where is inflammation in Crohn’s most common?

A

Terminal ileum

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57
Q

Which extra intestinal symptoms are more present in Crohn’s over UC?

A
  • Apthous ulcers
  • Uveitis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
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58
Q

Which extra intestinal features are more seen in UC over crohn’s?

A
  • PSC
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • Enteric arthritis
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59
Q

What is a complication of tinea capitis?

A

Scarring alopecia

Oral antifungals or topical ketoconazole shampoo

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60
Q

What organisms cause tinea capitis?

A
  • Trichophyton tonsurans
  • Microsporum canis
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61
Q

What is alopecia areata?

A

Localised, autoimmune loss of hair which typically grows back within a year (non-scarring)

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62
Q

What is telogen effluvium?

A

Loss of hair as a result of stress (more common in adults)

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63
Q

What is traction alopecia?

A

Hair loss (usually on the side of the head) due to pulling hair back tightly

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64
Q

When in pregnancy would cleft lip occur?

A

Failure of fusion between weeks 4-7

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65
Q

When in pregnancy would cleft palate occur?

A

Failure of fusion in weeks 6-9 of pregnancy

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66
Q

What are the complications of cephalohaematoma?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Defective blood clotting
  • Intracranial bleeding

Takes months to resolve

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67
Q

What are the poor prognostic factors of ALL?

A
  • T cell markers
  • Being <2yrs or >10yrs
  • Male
  • WCC >20x109
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68
Q

When are topical steroids used for eczema?

A

If the patient has a flare, they should be applied 30mins after emolients

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69
Q

What are the organic causes of Fregloi delusion?

A
  • Treatment with levodopa
  • Injury to the fusiform gyrus
  • Damage to the temporo-parietal area
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70
Q

What is flumenazil?

A

A benzodiazepine receptor antagonist sometimes used to treat benzodiazepine overdose

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71
Q

What are the first investigations to order when intestinal malrotation is suspected?

A
  • Upper GI contrast studies USS (any history of bilious vomiting)
  • CT abdo (with contrast) (if the concern for malrotation is low)
  • Abdo x-ray (ED, not as helpful as above)
  • FBC (WBC should be normal in MR without volvulus, may be abnormal with prolonged volvulus)
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72
Q

What is the management for endometrial hyperplasia without atypia?

A

Continous progestogens using IUS

  • Continue for 6 months
  • Review with TVUSS and endometrial biopsy every 6 months
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73
Q

What is the management for endometrial hyperplasia with atypia?

A

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salingo-oophorectomy

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74
Q

What is the management for pre-menopausal woman with endometrial hyperplasia and atypia who wanted to preserve fertility?

A

Continuous progestogens and 3 monthly reviews

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75
Q

When is endometrial ablation used?

A

HMB for patients who don’t want to preserve fertility

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76
Q

Management of PMS?

A
  1. Symptom diary for 2 cycles

(If no no impact on the patient’s personal, social or professional life)
2. Lifestyle advice

(Otherwise)
2. COCP

  1. CBT
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77
Q

Which antimuscarinics are offered for urge incontinence?

A
  • Tolterodine
  • Oxybutynin
  • Darifenacin

AVOID in elderly women with risks of falls, give:
- Mirabegron (beta-3 agonist)

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78
Q

What happens to the tidal volume during pregnancy?

A

Increases by 30-35% due to increased metabolic CO2 levels and progesterones which increase respiratory drive

Increased minute ventilation by 40%

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79
Q

How much does GFR increase in pregnancy?

A

30-60%

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80
Q

How long is the antibiotic regimen for UTI in pregnancy?

A

7 days

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81
Q

What should be considered if a pregnant patient has had no improvement in their UTI symptoms after 48 hours on nitrofurantoin?

A

Amoxicillin or cephalexin

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82
Q

Why is trimethoprim avoided in the first trimester?

A

Increases the risk of neural tube defects

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83
Q

How is diagnosis of genital herpes confirmed?

A

Viral cultures and PCR

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84
Q

What is a primary genital herpes infection?

A

4-7 days after sexual contact (can last up to 3 weeks)

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85
Q

What is a secondary genital herpes infection?

A

An infection in an individual with previously existing immunity

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86
Q

What is the management of primary genital herpes in pregnancy?

A

Presenting in 1st/2nd trimester:
- 5 days of oral acyclovir (400mg TD)
- Suppressive oral acyclovir from 36 weeks until delivery, with vaginal delivery anticipated

Presenting in the 3rd trimester:
- Oral acyclovir immediately until delivery (400mg TD), C-section recommended

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87
Q

When should invasive procedures be avoided with herpes in pregnancy?

A

When there are genital lesions eg. instrumental delivery

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88
Q

What is the management for recurrent herpes in pregnancy?

A

Oral acyclovir from 36 weeks, no C-section delivery indicated

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89
Q

What is the management of mastitis with prolonged symptoms?

A

Flucloxacillin

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90
Q

Why can hydrocele occur in neonates?

A

Failure of obliteration of the processus vaginalis

<2 years tend to resolve spontaneously as the processus vaginalis closes

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91
Q

What are the referral criteria for bronchiolitis?

A
  • Looking seriously unwell
  • Apnoeic
  • Centrally cyanosed
  • O2 sats <92%
  • Severe respiratory distress
  • Resp rate >70
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92
Q

What is the management for bronchiolitis?

A

Supportive

May require:
- O2
- Feeding via NG tube
- Suction for significant secretions

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93
Q

What are the extra-pulmonary/ extra-pancreatic features of CF?

A
  • Meconium ileus
  • Short stature
  • Infertility in males
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94
Q

How often is chest physiotherapy done for CF?

A

Twice daily

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95
Q

What are most causes of infant torticollis caused by?

A

Sternocleidomastoid tumour, congenital muscular torticollis

Reduced ROM and struggling to turn the head in one direction (can manifest subtly, only managing to feed from one breast)

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96
Q

What vaccine is given to children at 3 months old?

A

1st dose
- Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

2nd dose
- 6-in-1 vaccine
- Oral rotavirus vaccine

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97
Q

What is included in the 6-in-1 vaccine?

A
  • Whooping cough
  • Hepatitis B
  • Tetanus
  • Diptheria
  • Haemophilus influenzae type B
  • Polio
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98
Q

When is the time limit for febrile status epilepticus?

A

30 minutes

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99
Q

How long is the observation period after a first episode of febrile convulsion?

A

4-6 hours

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100
Q

What is the infectious period for chicken pox?

A

1-2 days before the appearance of the rash until the lesions have crusted over

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101
Q

What are the four developmental domains?

A
  • Social, emotional and behavioural
  • Gross motor
  • Vision and fine motor
  • Hearing, speech and language
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102
Q

What are the milestones by 18 months across all domains?

A

Social, emotional and behavioural
- Feed themselves with a spoon
- Drink from a cup
- Play alone
- Help with dressing
Gross motor
- Take off shoes
Vision and fine motor
- Pincer grip
- Build a tower of three
- Look at and palm hit books
- Draw a scribble
Hearing, speech and language
- 6-10 words
- Follow simple instructions
- Point to 2-4 body parts

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103
Q

When can children use a fork?

A

By 3 years

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104
Q

When can children put on shoes?

A

By 2 years

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105
Q

When do children play with other children?

A

By 4 years

(Play near other children at 2)

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106
Q

When do children combine words?

A

2 years

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107
Q

When should mood be screened for post partum?

A

At 6 weeks and 4 months

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108
Q

Which SSRIs are recommended for breastfeeding?

A

Sertraline and paroxetine

(+ low dose amitryptiline)

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109
Q

What is the cut off score for Edinburgh scale postnatal depression?

A

> =10

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110
Q

What is the management for mild PND?

A
  • Indirect counselling via midwife/ health visitor
  • Support groups etc
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111
Q

What is the managment of moderate PND?

A
  • Psychological intervention and antidepressants
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112
Q

How long does a 136 last?

A

24 hours

But can be extended 12 hours

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113
Q

What investigation can be performed if the diagnosis of Parkinson’s is in doubt?

A

Dopamine transporter scan

Visualise depletion of the dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra

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114
Q

Which complications of the varicella zoster virus are pregnant women more at risk of?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Hepatitis
  • Encephalitis
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115
Q

If birth occurs within 7 days of the onset of VZV rash, how long is the neonate observed for?

A

28 days

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116
Q

When is the last dose of LMWH given before C section?

A

24 hours before and restart 6-12 hours after birth

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117
Q

When do foetal movements tend to plateau?

A

By 32 weeks

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118
Q

What is the longest range between foetal movements?

A

50-75 minutes

(Afternoon/ evening periods are the periods of peak activity)

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119
Q

How long are foetal sleep cycles?

A

20-40 minutes

(rarely exceed 90 minutes)

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120
Q

How should foetal movements be assessed?

A

Subjective maternal perception of foetal movements

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121
Q

What is the advice for women who are unsure about the frequency of foetal movements after 28 weeks?

A

Lie on their side and focus on foetal movements for 2 hours, if 10 or more discrete movement aren’t felt contact their midwife/ maternity unit

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122
Q

What is the definition of recurrent miscarriage?

A

3 or more consecutive miscarriages

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123
Q

What is the threshold for vaginal delivery in an HIV positive mother?

A

<50 copies/mL at 36 weeks

(immediate cord clamping and no breastfeeding)

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124
Q

When is ECV offered for nullip and multip women?

A

Nullip:
36 weeks

Multip:
37 weeks

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125
Q

What are the risks of ECV?

A
  • Premature ROM
  • Placental abruption
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126
Q

What are the urine protein thresholds for PET?

A
  • P:C >30mg/mol
  • 24 urine >300mg
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127
Q

What are the symptoms of dislocation of the knee?

A
  • Severe knee pain
  • Sudden knee swelling
  • Inability to straighten leg/ walk
  • Sudden popping
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128
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Becker’s muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

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129
Q

Which conditions are associated with Talipes equinovarus?

A
  • Neuromuscular (eg. spina bifida)
  • Edward’s
  • Oligohydramnios
  • Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
  • Cerebral palsy
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130
Q

What are the five main signs for testicular torsion?

A
  • Absent cremasteric reflex
  • No relief of scrotal pain on elevation of the testicles (negative prehn’s sign)
  • Deming sign - testicle in an abnormally elevated position
  • Brunzel sign - horizontal testicle lie
  • Ger sign - pitting at the testicle base
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131
Q

What is omphalitis?

A

Rare condition where the umbilicus and surrounding tissues become infected and inflamed

  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus

Umbilicus appears red and warm and discharges pus

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132
Q

What are secondary lesions in acne?

A

Lesions which occur as a result of primary lesions healing

eg. excoriations or macules

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133
Q

What are the primary lesions in acne?

A

Inflammatory lesions
- Papules
- Pustules
- Nodules

Non-inflammatory lesions
- Comedones
- Pseudocysts

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134
Q

What would an ECG of Ebstein’s anomaly show?

A

Right bundle branch block

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135
Q

What are cannon waves on ECG?

A

Contraction of the atria against a closed tricuspid valve

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136
Q

What are rosenthal fibres a histological hallmark of?

A

Pilocytic astrocytomas

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137
Q

Which syndrome are haemangiomas associated with?

A

Von Hippel-Lindau

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138
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Autosomal recessive

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139
Q

How does 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency CAH present?

A

Virilisation of female genitalia, precocious puberty, hypertension and hypokalaemia

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140
Q

What is the congenital defect risked when taking fluoxetine in the first trimester?

A

Congenital heart defects

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141
Q

What are the symptoms of olanzapine exposure to neonates in utero?

A
  • Lethargy
  • Tremor
  • Hypertonia
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142
Q

What is the timeline required for illness anxiety disorder/ hypochondrial disorder?

A

6 months

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143
Q

How often should monochorionic diamniotic twins have growth scans?

A

Every 2 weeks from 16-24 weeks

Scans at 28, 32 and 34 weeks

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144
Q

What is the first line treatment of candidiasis in pregnancy?

A

Intravaginal clotrimazole

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145
Q

When are oral antibiotics indicated in mastitis?

A

When symptoms have persisted over 24 hours, despite adequate milk expression

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146
Q

What is the insulin regimen during labour for patients who have T1/2DM?

A

Variable-rate insulin infusion with the aim of maintaining BM 4-7

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147
Q

When can IM oxytocin be given for active management of 3rd stage of labour?

A
  • After delivery of the anterior shoulder
  • After delivery of the baby and before clamping the cord
148
Q

What is the preferred mode of delivery for IUGR?

A

C-section

149
Q

Which women are not offered IOL?

A
  • Previous C-section
  • Breech presentation
150
Q

What is given for all patients with balanitis?

A
  • Hygiene advice
  • Topical 1% hydrocortisone cream
  • Swabs (only if the aetiology is unclear)
151
Q

What is the presentation and management of bacterial balanitis?

A

Painful, yellow discharge

Flucloxacillin

152
Q

When would circumcision be considered in balanitis?

A

Severe cases with phimosis

153
Q

How long is the watch and wait period for ADHD?

A

10 weeks

154
Q

How long is methylphenidate trailled for ADHD?

A

6 weeks

Important to monitor height, weight and baseline ECG every 6 months

Drug free trial every year to see if the child can stop taking it

155
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

Congenital softening of the supraglottic larynx

Usually grown out of by the time the child is 2

156
Q

How often are height and weight monitored for coeliac disease?

A

Annually

157
Q

Which rash is characteristic of coeliac?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis (vesicular rash)

158
Q

What is the treatment threshold for pneumothorax?

A

> 2cm immediate drainage with needle aspiration

If unsuccessful, chest drain

<2cm and not breathless, safety net and outpatient review in 2-4 weeks (repeat x-ray)

159
Q

What is a secondary pneumothorax and how does management of this differ from primary pneumothorax?

A

Pneumothorax resulting from a chronic lung disease

> 2cm immediate chest drain

<1cm high flow oxygen and observation

160
Q

What are the four types of FGM?

A
  1. Clitoridectomy
  2. Excision
  3. Infibulation
  4. Miscellaneous
161
Q

What are the symptoms of rubella?

A

Maculopapular rash spreading from the face to the trunk, low grade fever, pink eyes, runny nose, headache and lymphadenopahty

162
Q

Which rash causing conditions have an incubation period of 3-6 days?

A
  • Hand foot and mouth disease
  • Scarlet fever
  • Viral meningitis
163
Q

Which medications are indicated in Alzheimers?

A

Mild-moderate (Ach esterase inhibitors)
- Donepezil
- Rivastigmine
- Galantamine

Moderate-severe (NDMA receptor agonist)
- Memantine

164
Q

Which alzheimer’s drugs cause nausea and vomiting?

A

Ach esterase inhibitors

165
Q

What are the features of neonatal opiate withdrawal?

A

CNS
- High-pitched and continuous crying
- Tremors
- Hyperactive reflexes
- Seizures
- Increased tone
- Reduced sleep

GIT
- Feeding difficulties
- Vomiting
- Diarrhea

ANS
- Yawning/sneezing
- Increased resp rate
- Nasal flaring

166
Q

How soon after birth does puerperal psychosis present?

A

10 days

167
Q

How long do symptoms of personality disorders have to persist for a diagnosis?

A

2 years

168
Q

What is the required timeframe for a diagnosis of delusional disorder?

A

3 months

169
Q

What is the management for a GBS infection in pregnancy if a woman has had a previous baby infected with GBS?

A

Intrapartum benzylpenicillin and induction of labour

Likelihood of GBS in a subsequent pregnancy when they’ve been GBS positive in a previous pregnancy is 50%

170
Q

How does vulval cancer tend to arise in young vs older patients?

A

Younger patients –> HPV infection
Older patients –> long standing lichen sclerosis

171
Q

Which auto-antibodies are present in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  • Anti-cardiolipin
  • Anti-lupus anticoagulant
  • Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein I
172
Q

At how many weeks of pregnancy does malrotation occur?

A

10th week

173
Q

How does duodenal atresia present?

A

Polyhydramnios and bilious vomiting after the first feed

174
Q

Which chromosomal defect causes Hirschprung’s disease?

A

Chromosome 10

175
Q

For how many weeks of life is the heel prick test accurate?

A

6 weeks

176
Q

How long does immunisation from the whooping cough vaccine last?

A

4-12 years

Once infected, macrolides are the choice antibiotic

177
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for whooping cough?

A

Nasopharyngeal swab culture or PCR

178
Q

What is the description of the headlice rash (pediculus humanus capitis)?

A

Papular, red rash, finely spread across the base of the neck and into the hairline

Most often treated mechanically with wet combing which can be combined with application of topical malathion

179
Q

What is the management of pityriasis versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole

180
Q

What is the Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever?

A

2 major or 1 major + 2 minor criteria

Major:
- Carditis (may manifest as a new heart murmur)
- Polyarthritis
- Chorea
- Erythema marginatum (non-itchy macular rash)
- Subcutaneous nodules

Minor:
- Fever >38.5
- Arthralgia
- ESR >30 and/or CRP >3
- Prolonged PR interval on ECG

181
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for CMPA?

A

Double-blind placebo food challange and exclusion of causitive food from the diet

182
Q

What is anakastic personality disorder?

A

The same as obsessive compulsive personality disorder

183
Q

Which timeframe does the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale measure?

A

The last 7 days

A score >12 indicates the patient is suffering from PND

184
Q

What is the triad of Meig’s syndrome?

A
  • Benign ovarian tumour (usually fibroma)
  • Ascites
  • Pleural effusion
185
Q

What coinfection is an indication for C-section in HIV?

A

Hepatitis C

Hep C testing is offered to all women HIV positive in pregnancy

186
Q

Are serial growth scans indicated in HIV?

A

No, HIV does not affect the growth of the baby

187
Q

What is the correct way to count the gravidity of a multiple pregnancy?

A

G1 (one pregnancy event)

188
Q

What are the steps of assessing reduced foetal movements?

A
  1. Handheld Doppler to auscultate the heartbeat

If heartbeat is present:
2. CTG

If heartbeat is not present:
2. Ultrasound scan

189
Q

What are the different time points at which an embryo divides and how does this correspond to what type of twins are produced?

A

Divides before day 4 after fertilisation:
- Dichorionic diamniotic

Divides between days 4-8:
- Monochorionic diamniotic

Divides between days 8-12:
- Monochorionic monoamniotic

Divides after day 13:
- Conjoined twins

190
Q

When would variable rate insulin infusion be indicated for GDM?

A

If the mother was already receiving insulin for their treatment, treatment with metformin alone doesn’t indicate insulin infusion

191
Q

What is the mechanism of Kallman syndrome?

A

Failure of development of the GnRH neurones within the hypothalamus

192
Q

What gynaecological cause does fragile X syndrome lead to?

A

Premature ovarian insufficiency

193
Q

What is the most common childhood arrhythmia?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

194
Q

What ECG finding would suggest Wolff-Parkinsons White syndrome?

A

Short PR interval and a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex

195
Q

What is the management for SVT if vagal manoeuvres fail?

A

IV adenosine (blocks conduction through the AV node)

196
Q

What is the management for heart failure that arises secondary to acyanotic conditions like VSD?

A

Diuretics and captopril (ACE inhibitor)

197
Q

Which antivirals can be considered for roseola infection in immunosuppressed children?

A

Ribavirin or cidofovir

198
Q

For which type of UTI is ultrasound always performed in the acute setting?

A

Atypical UTI

199
Q

When is dexamethosone started for bacterial meningitis in children?

A
  • LP reveals frankly prurulent CSF
  • WCC >1000u/L
  • Raised WCC with protein concentration >1g/L
  • Bacteria on gram stain
200
Q

What are the causitive organisms of impetigo?

A

Group A strep or staph aureus

201
Q

How long should children with impetigo be excluded from school?

A

Until the lesions are dry and have scabbed over

202
Q

How long is school exclusion for whooping cough?

A

Until 48 hours after appropriate antibiotics have been initiated

203
Q

How long is school exclusion for measles or rubella?

A

For 4 days after the onset of the rash

204
Q

What is the peak incidence of transient synovitis?

A

2-12 years old

205
Q

What is the PHQ threshold for depression?

A

> 5

206
Q

Which score on the AMTS would suggest cognitive impairment?

A

<8

<6 would indicate delirium or dementia

207
Q

What is the criteria for referal to memory clinic?

A

Significant result on a memory test such as the AMTS

208
Q

What is the criteria for treatment of paracetamol in a staggered overdose?

A

Treatment should be given immediately

Bloods taken to measure the paracetamol concentration, LFTs and coagulation

209
Q

What is the mechanism of activated charcoal?

A

Reduces the absorption of paracetamol

210
Q

What is the definition of persistent grief disorder?

A

When the symptoms persist for over 6 months

211
Q

What is the criteria for persistent complex bereavement disorder?

A

Grief persisting for over 12 months, patients may express a desire to die to be with their loved one

212
Q

What is the definition of oligomenorrhea?

A

Cycles >35 days or <9 cycles per year

213
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans a sign of?

A

Insulin resistance

214
Q

What is the moa of metformin in PCOS?

A

Biguanine

Increases insulin sensitivity and decreases circulating insulin levels which can decrease circulating androgen levels, improving anovulation and fertility

215
Q

What is the mechanism of spironolactone in PCOS?

A

Anti-androgenic effects used in the management of hirsutism

216
Q

Which pain relief is often used during the 1st stage of labour (before admission)?

A
  1. Paracetamol
  2. Co-dydramol
  3. Pethidine
217
Q

Which analgesias are available for the 2nd stage of labour?

A
  • Entonox
  • Remifentanil patient controlled analgesia
  • Epidural anaesthesia
218
Q

What are the indications for instrumental delivery in 2nd stage of labour?

A
  • Poor progress
  • Foetal compromise
  • Maternal exhausion or distress
  • Need to reduce time pushing (eg. maternal cardiac disease)
219
Q

What is a normal AFI?

A

5-25cm

220
Q

How does foetal anaemia cause polyhydramnios?

A

Increases the cardiac output which increases urine production and therefore amniotic fluid level

221
Q

When is insulin started straight away for GDM?

A

If fasting glucose is >7mmol/L

Patient should be reviewed within 1 week

222
Q

What is the management for asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?

A

Immediate antibiotic prescription for 7 days

223
Q

What is the management for women with hypertension at 37/40?

A

Delivery within 24-48 hours

224
Q

How long should additional contraception be used when POP is initiated post partum?

A

2 days

225
Q

How long should folic acid be taken for?

A

Conception to 12+6 weeks

226
Q

Which metrics are the developmental milestones achieved by?

A
  • Time at which 1/2 population achieves a skill (median age)
  • Time at which 95% of the population achieves a skill (limit age)
227
Q

When would an inferior pincer grip indicate developmental delay?

A

At 12 months, the child should have developed a mature pincer grip, if it is still inferior they are delayed (vision and fine motor)

228
Q

What is the limit age for speaking 2 words?

A

18 months

229
Q

What is the treatment of biliary atresia?

A

Hepatoportoenterostomy

230
Q

What is the cause of hirschprung’s disease?

A

Absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses of the rectum

231
Q

What is the management of Hirschprung’s disease?

A

Bowel irrigation, broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage and surgical correction (anorectal pull-through)

232
Q

In which children is labial fusion common?

A

Female children below the age of 7

Usually develops 1-2 years of age and often resolves by puberty

233
Q

What is the management of symptomatic labial fusion?

A

4-6 weeks of topical oestrogen

Surgical separation can be considered if topical oestrogen is ineffective

234
Q

What is the managment of reactive arthritis?

A

Self-resolving and often doesn’t require any active treatment

235
Q

What is the initial investigation for acute appendicitis?

A

Abdominal USS

236
Q

Which age group of children should not receive antivirals for chickenpox?

A

1 month to 12 years

237
Q

What is the management of chickenpox in immunocompromised individuals?

A

IV acyclovir once symptoms have developed

238
Q

Which heart condition is Edward’s associated with?

A

VSDs

239
Q

What is the cause of guttate psoriasis?

A

Streptococcal infections

Tends to develop on the upper trunk and proximal upper limbs

240
Q

What is the first line therapy for mild psoriasis?

A

Topical corticosteroids or vitamin D analogues

241
Q

What is the presentation of hyperkeratotic eczema?

A

Eczema characterised by dry, thickened hyperkeratotic plaques involving the palmar surfaces

242
Q

What is the mainstay in treating vascular dementia?

A

Modifying the cardiovascular risk

243
Q

What do the blood tests of NMS demonstrate?

A

Raised WCC and raised CK

244
Q

Which type of vaginal swab will detect trichomonas vaginalis?

A

High vaginal swab

245
Q

What is Naegele’s rule?

A

LMP+9 months+1 week (+ difference in the cycle)

246
Q

What are the critera for pregnant women being offered OGTT at 28 weeks? (BIG PE)

A

B - BMI >30kg/m2
1 - 1st degree relative with GDM
G - GDM previously

P - Previous pregnancy with birth weight >4.5kg
E - Ethnicity eg. south asian, black or middle eastern

247
Q

What are the threasholds for the PUQE score?

A
  • Mild 3-6 points
  • Moderate 7-12 points
  • Severe >=13 points
248
Q

What is the management for undescended testes?

A

If asymptomatic, review at 6 week check and if still undescended, review at 4-5 months, if still undescended refer to paeds urology and they should be seen before 6 months

249
Q

What is the management for bilateral undescended testes?

A

Urgent referral to paediatrician within 24 hours for genetic and endocrine testing

250
Q

What is the main finding on an xray for inhaled foreign body?

A

Increased volume and translucency of the affected lung

Diagnosis usually confirmed by bronchoscopy which can be used to remove foreign body

251
Q

What is a Blalock-Taussig shunt?

A

Surgical procedure creating an artificial shunt between the subclavian and pulmonary artery used in TOF

Used to stabilise patients ahead of elective intracardiac repair

252
Q

What is the name of the procedure to correct transposition of the great arteries?

A

Arterial switch

253
Q

What is tethered spinal cord syndrome?

A

A complication of spina bifida

  • Lower back pain
  • Gait disturbance
  • Scoliosis
  • High-arched feet
  • Neurological dysfunction (bladder and bowel)
254
Q

What is a myelomeningocele?

A

Severe form of spina bifida

Spinal cord protrudes through an opening in the spinal column

255
Q

Withdrawal of which drug can cause lacrimation?

A

Opiates

256
Q

Increased salivation is a side effect of which antipsychotic?

A

Clozapine

257
Q

What is couvade syndrome?

A

A condition in which the expectant father may experience the same symptoms as their pregnant partner

258
Q

What does active managment of the third stage of labour involve?

A

Administration 10IU oxytocin, delayed cord clamping (depending on maternal choice) and controlled cord traction

For active management of the 3rd stage, the cord should be clamped within 5 minutes to allow for controlled cord traction

259
Q

What is the most common STI in the UK?

A

Chlamydia

100mg doxycycline PO BD for 1 week OR (if worried about compliance)

1-2g azithromycin stat dose

260
Q

In which patients are prostaglandin pessaries usually avoided in?

A

Previous C sections due to the risk of uterine rupture

261
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

Attachment of the placenta to the myometrium, with no invasion into the myometrium

Placenta increta is invasion into the myometrium

262
Q

What is the mechanism of levonorgestrel?

A

Inhibits ovulation, therefore if a patient is day 15-28 it’s likely they have already ovulated

263
Q

What is the mechanism of tranexamic acid?

A

Anti fibrinolytic drug acting to decrease the transformation of plasminogen to plasmin

264
Q

At what glucose level in DKA is 5% dextrose added to the treatment regimen?

A

<14mmol/L

265
Q

At how many weeks in utero does the vitelline duct obliterate?

A

7 weeks

266
Q

What is Peutz-Jegher syndrome?

A

An autosomal dominant condition characterised by development of hamartomas throughout the GI tract, hyperpigmented spots on the lips, hands and genitalia

Associated with increased risk of breast and GI cancer

267
Q

Where is the mutation in familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

APC tumour suppressor

268
Q

What is Gardner syndrome?

A

FAP with osseous and soft tissue tumours

269
Q

Until how many months of age is strabismus common?

A

3 months

Refractive errors are the most common cause

Any child >3 months should be referred to an opthalmologist

270
Q

Why are young children more likely to develop acute otitis media than adults?

A

Their Eustachian tubes are shorter and more horizontal

271
Q

What is a cholesteatoma?

A

A benign growth behind the eardrum that can occur in the context of recurrent ear infections

272
Q

How long can it take for molluscum contagiosum to heal?

A

18 months

273
Q

What is the corneal light reflex test?

A

Light is shone at the eyes from a distance to produce reflections on both corneas simultaneously

274
Q

What is sturge-weber syndrome?

A

A neurocutaneous syndrome characterised by presence of haemangiomatous facial lesions in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, abnormal intracranial blood vessels and eye abnormalities

275
Q

What are the features of neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

Autosomal dominant
- Cafe-au-lait spots
- Neurofibromas
- Auxillary freckling
- Optic glioma
- Lisch nodules
- First degree relative with NF1

276
Q

What are the features of neurofibromatosis type 2?

A

Autosomal dominant (less common than NF1)
- Bilateral acoustic neuromas (deafness)
- Multiple inherited schwannomas, meningiomas and ependymomas

277
Q

How long is the watch and wait period for ADHD?

A

10 weeks

278
Q

What is the regimen for checking lithium levels?

A

Initially checked weekly (12 hours after last dose), then every 3 months, thyroid and renal function checked every 6 months

279
Q

What is the dose of MgSO4 given in pre-eclampsia?

A

4mg loading dose and continuous infusion until 24 hours after the surgery

280
Q

In which urogenital infection are pinkish blue inclusions seen?

A

Chlamydia

281
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for the COCP?

A

SAILBOAT

  • Smoking >15 cigarettes a day and >35
  • Aura
  • Immobility or recent surgery
  • Liver disease
  • Blood pressure >140/90
  • Obesity BMI >30
  • Any oestrogen dependent tumour or unexplained PV bleed
  • Thromboembolism or stroke history, CVD or family history of VTE <45 years
282
Q

When is the most appropriate time to measure serum progesterone to get an idea of ovulation?

A

7 days before the end of the cycle, therefore if their cyle is 28 days - day 21, if 30 days - day 23

283
Q

What can cause the uterus to be in a fixed retroverted position in endometriosis?

A

Adhesion formation

284
Q

How is lichen sclerosis usually managed?

A

Short course of topical steroids with an antimicrobial agent eg. betnovate and fusidic acid

285
Q

What % of molar pregnancies a) become invasive b) procress to choriocarcinoma?

A

a) 10%
b) 2.5%

286
Q

What is the referral pathway if low grade dyskaryosis is detected on cytology?

A

Colposcopy within 6 weeks

(If high grade colposcopy within 2 weeks)

287
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Marfans?

A

Autosomal dominant

288
Q

What are the symptoms of osteochondritis dissicans?

A

Caused by disrupted blood supply to the cartilage

  • Knee pain
  • Swelling
  • Locking following exercise
289
Q

What would an x-ray of necrotising enterocolitis show?

A

Distended loops of bowel

290
Q

What is the first step if whooping cough is diagnosed?

A

The patient should be isolated in the hospital to prevent any further spread and the health protection unit should be alerted

291
Q

Which heart sounds are heard with TGA?

A

No abnormal heart sounds

  1. Prostaglandin infusion
  2. Emergency balloon atrial septostomy
  3. Arterial switch operation
292
Q

What is the difference in heart sounds between ostium secundum and ostium primum?

A

Both have ejection systolic murmur with fixed splitting of the S2 sound, but primum also causes an apical pansystolic murmur due to AV valve regurgitation

293
Q

What is the management for ASDs?

A

Closure in the cath lab at 3-5 years

294
Q

What are the two phases of cocaine withdrawal?

A
  1. Crash phase (several hours after last use)
    - Depression
    - Exhuastion
    - Agitation
    - Irritability
  2. Continual withdrawal phase
    - Increased cravings
    - Irritability
    - Anergia
    - Poor concentration
    - Insomnia
295
Q

What is the difference between early and delayed cord clamping?

A

Early is within 60s and delayed is 1-5 minutes

296
Q

Which dementia has alpha-synuclein involved?

A

Lewy body dementia

297
Q

Steven has been brought to A&E by his family with concerns that he might harm himself. He has a 3 week history of intermittent agitation and distress, stating that he needs to go to find his uncle in Yorkshire because “they’re trying to get me”. This morning, he ran out of the house into the road. He has been medically cleared. The psychiatry trainee thinks that he may need admission to a mental health unit, however, steven attempts to abscond from A&E whilst waiting for the assessors to arrive. What should the psychiatry trainee advise?

A

The A&E team should stop him leaving under the mental capacity act

298
Q

What is the mental capacity act?

A

Gives any adult with capacity the right to make advance decisions and lasting power of attorney

  • Says how to decide if someone has capacity

For any adult without capacity it tells professionals to
- Act in their best interests
- Consult family/friends about decisions
- Appoint IMCA for important decisions
- Apply Deprivation of liberty safeguards (DOLS) to anyone deprived of liberty

299
Q

What are inconsolable cry and fever classic signs of in a child?

A

Meningism

300
Q

When is it common for infants to lose weight?

A

In the first few days of life, weight loss tends to cease between days 4-5

301
Q

Which health care professionals can aspirate a hip joint?

A

This must be done by orthopaedics, because it is an inaccessible joint

302
Q

What are some gonadotrophin-independent cause of precocious puberty?

A
  • McCune Albright syndrome
  • CAH/ Cushings
  • Obesity
303
Q

What are the doses for prednisolone management of nephrotic syndrome?

A

60mg/m2/day for 4 weeks, then reduce to 40mg/m2/day

304
Q

You review a lady in A&E. She is 8 weeks pregnant and very confident of the dates. She attended A&E because she had some PV bleeding at home after intercourse, which has now resolved. She has no pain. Normal observations. On a bedside scan the uterus is empty. What is the diagnosis?

And why can this not be diagnosed as a miscarriage?

A

Pregnancy of unknown location

Because the pregnancy needs to have been previously visualised on USS

305
Q

Which is the competency relating specifically to contraception?

A

Fraser competence

306
Q

You see a 16 year old girl in Paediatric and Adolescent Gynaecology Clinic. She presents with primary amenorrhoea. Upon further history taking you elicit that she experiences lower abdominal pain every 28 days and suffered with recurrent UTIs as a child. The patient consents to examination and you note that she has undergone female genital mutilation. What is your immediate professional obligation under the FGM act 2003?

A

Report to the police regardless of consent

307
Q

A 32 year old woman presents to you at 16wks with elevated BP without proteinuria on urine dip. Which of the following is the most appropriate with regards to her need for aspirin?

A She requires weekly measurement for proteinuria and her management will depend on whether she develops proteinuria
B She requires formal PCR to determine whether there is proteinuria and
C She needs a full history to assess risk factors for pre-eclampsia and if she has enough risk factors she will need aspirin for pre-eclampsia
D She needs aspirin from 12wks regardless of risk factors from her history
E She needs to start an ACE inhibitor

A

She needs aspirin from 12 weeks regardless of the risk factors from her history

308
Q

What is the mechanism of smoking increasing the risk of cervical cancer?

A

Impairs the immun system’s ability to control infection by HPV, resulting in dysplasia and malignant change in the cervical cells

309
Q

How is premature ovarian failure diagnosed?

A

By FSH levels, measured at 2-5 days of cycle

Two FSH levels taken 4-6 weeks apart significantly elevated, a diagnosis of POF is made

310
Q

What is the mechanism of ulipristal acetate?

A

Selective progesterone receptor modulator

311
Q

What is the threshold for Ca125 for TVUSS?

A

35IU/ml or greater

312
Q

How does AVSD present in a newborn?

A

Typically with cyanosis and heart failure, heart murmur will often not be audiable

313
Q

What is the murmur in tricuspid atresia?

A

Pansystolic

314
Q

Which genetic syndromes is interrupted aortic arch associated with?

A

DiGeorge

315
Q

What is the organism causing scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

316
Q

What are the symptoms of primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A
  • Recurrent upper and lower respiratory tract infections
  • Infertility
  • Pancreatic insufficiency
  • Situs intersus (cilia play an important role of the movement of organs into their correct positions)
317
Q

How long does a section 4 last for?

A

72 hours

318
Q

When can whooping cough patients be given antibiotics?

A

If they are diagnosed within 21 days of the onset of symptoms

School exclusion until 48 hours after antibiotics or 21 days after onset of symptoms

319
Q

What are the three main complications of minimal changes disease?

A
  1. Increased risk of thrombosis (loss of antithrombin III)
  2. Increased risk of infection (loss of immunoglobulins)
  3. Hypercholesterolaemia (decreased osmotic pressure)
320
Q

What causes spina bifida occulta?

A

Failure of fusion of the vertebral arch

321
Q

What is tethered spinal cord syndrome?

A

A complication of spina bifida, fixation of the inelastic tissue of the caudal spine causing abnormal movement of the spinal cord as the child grows

322
Q

What are the neurological findings in meningocele?

A

Neurology is normal because the sac dosen’t contain neural tissue, only the meninges

323
Q

What is the most severe form of spina bifida?

A

Myelomeningocele

Spinal cord protrudes through an opening

324
Q

Which head deformity is common in neonates born via instrumental delivery?

A

Cephalohaematoma

Doesn’t cross suture lines

325
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Marfan’s?

A

Autosomal dominant

326
Q

When would an ENT referral for otitis media be made?

A
  • Child hasn’t responded to 2 courses of antibiotics
  • Suspected glue ear
  • Unexplained recurrent AOM
  • Associated with complications or craniofacial abnormalities eg. down syndrome
327
Q

What is the management for DDH?

A
  • <6 months: Pavlik’s harness
  • 18 months - 6 years: Open surgical reduction
  • > 6 years: salvage osteotomy
328
Q

Where is the lesion in dyskinetic cerebral palsy?

A

Basal ganglia

329
Q

Where are the lesions in mixed cerebral palsy?

A

More than one location in the brain

330
Q

What is the prodrome for Guttate psoriasis?

A

Strep throat infection or other URTI

331
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed puberty in males?

A

Hypogonadotrophic constitutional delay

332
Q

What is the presentation of infantile colic?

A

Inconsolable crying/ screaming, accompanied by drawing the knees up and passage of excessive flatus >3 hours/day for >3 days/week for >3 weeks

333
Q

What is the presentation of rotavirus?

A

Fever and vomiting, followed by diarrhea lasting 3-8 days

334
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of fragile x syndrome?

A

X-linked dominant

335
Q

Which catecholamines will be elevated in neuroblastoma?

A

Urinary homovanillic acid (HVA) and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

Biopsy required for definitive diagnosis

336
Q

What is the median age a baby is able to roll over?

A

4 months

337
Q

Which diarrhea causes are notifiable?

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • E.coli 0157h7
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
338
Q

When should topical hydrocortisone be prescribed for nappy rash?

A

If the child is symptomatic eg. the rash is inflamed and causing discomfort

Only give hydrocortisone if children are >1 month

339
Q

What does bilateral testicle enlargement in a child suggest?

A

A gonadotrophin-dependent cause of precocious puberty

340
Q

When would hydroxycarbamide be used for an acute sickle cell crisis?

A
  • Recurrent hospital admissions for painful crises
  • Acute chest syndrome

Takes 6-8 weeks to cause improvement, not appropriate for the acute setting

341
Q

How long after an enuresis alarm should children be followed up?

A

4 weeks

Alarm should be continued a minimum of 14 nights

342
Q

What are the features of eczema herpeticum?

A

Widespread blisters and punched out lesions

If present around the eyes, an opthalmological review is indicated

343
Q

What is the inheriance pattern of CAH?

A

Autosomal recessive

344
Q

How long after delivery does gestational hypertension resolve?

A

6 weeks

345
Q

What is the BMI in which ulipristal acetate is preferred over levonorgestrel?

A

26

346
Q

Which cells produce anti-mullerian hormone?

A

Granulosa cells

347
Q

What is the FSH level in premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

High

348
Q

What is the risk of fibroids during pregnancy?

A

They can undergo red degeneration, foetus using up the blood that supplied the fibroids resulting in ischaemia and necrosis

Presents with significant abdominal pain typically during the mid-second trimester

349
Q

A 34-year-old woman on the labour ward, who is 38 weeks’ pregnant, has
started having regular, painful contractions. She suddenly experiences
a heavy gush of fresh red vaginal bleeding. On questioning, she has
not experienced any pain aside from the contractions. The CTG shows
late decelerations and foetal bradycardia. She had one previous
delivery by emergency caesarean section. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Vasa praevia

Placenta praevia unlikely to cause pathological CTG trace as the bleeding is from the maternal circulation

350
Q

How long should progestogens be continued in endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Minimum 6 months

351
Q

How long before delivery should the last dose of LMWH be taken?

A

24 hours before

352
Q

When is IV unfractionated heparin preferred for PE in pregnancy?

A

In cases of massive PE with cardiovascular compromise

353
Q

What is the most common first step in induction of labour?

A

Prostaglandin E2 pessary

354
Q

How long is emergency contraception recommended for one missed POP?

A

Take the missed pill (one only) and the next pill at the usual time, additional contraception for 48 hours (as the cervical mucous thickens)

355
Q

How long is symptom diary for PMS recommended?

A

2 cycles

356
Q

What is the management for candida nipple infection?

A

Topical miconazole for the mother and oral nystatin for the baby

357
Q

What are Call-Exner bodies pathognomonic for?

A

Granulosa cell tumours

358
Q

What is the mechanism of the progesterone only pill?

A

Thickens the cervical mucous

359
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the implant and depot injection?

A

Inhibits ovulation and thickens the cervical mucous

360
Q

What are the indications for foreceps delivery?

A

FORECEPS

F - fully dilated
O - occipito-anterior position
R - ruptured membranes
C - cephalic position
E - engaged presenting part
P - pain relief
S - sphincter (empty bladder)

361
Q

At what BHCG level are intrauterine pregnancies visible?

A

> 1000 IU/L

362
Q

What is contained in epidural anaesthesia?

A

Local anaesthetic eg. bupivacaine and opioid eg. fentanyl

363
Q

What is the mechanism of epidural induced urinary retention?

A

Blockage of the output to the bladder from the spinal cord, losing the sensation of needing to urinate

364
Q

What is the mechanism of a post-dural headache?

A

Entering into the subarachnoid space leading to leakage of the CSF

365
Q

What is the advice for a mother with high BMI?

A

Healthy, balanced diet with at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity exercise daily

366
Q

At what BMI should women be referred to an obstetric anaesthatist?

A

> =40kg/m2

More likely to need instrumental delivery and may be more difficult to administer epidural anaesthesia

Specialties Past Paper Questions (3 decks)

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