Mak Flashcards

1
Q

variant

A

general term for any change regardless of frequency

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2
Q

polymorphism

A

variant allele/DNA sequence that is present in greater than one percent of the allelic population

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3
Q

single gene (or monogenic) inheritance

A

trait/disease phenotype in these cases is dictated by one gene (i.e. cell surface antigens, dystrophin, phenylalanine hydroxylase)

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4
Q

simplest case of inheritance

A

**single gene** having two different alleles in a population

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5
Q

Allelic constitution

A

configuration of alleles at a given locus

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6
Q

heteroallelic

A

two defective alleles are present

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7
Q

Allelic heterogeneity

A

different alleles at the same locus which gives rise to the same or similar disease (i.e. CF, Muscular Dystrophy)

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8
Q

Locus heterogeneity

A

genes at different loci that cause the same or similar disease (i.e. PKU)

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9
Q

polygenetic inheritance

A

number of genes interact to render phenotype

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10
Q

Genetic Background

A

all other genes that influence the action of the gene in question

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11
Q

multifactorial inheritance

A

***most human traits/disorders*** Environmental and genetic factors combine to produce a phenotype

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12
Q

Fragile X syndrome

A

purely allelic heterogeneity, no multifactorial CGG repeat on FMR1 most common hereditary form of MR

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13
Q

Penetrance

A

***either/or*** the probability of manifesting a trait given the presence of an allele or set of alleles

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14
Q

what determines the outcome of penetrance?

A

modifier gene

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15
Q

incomplete penetrance

A

only possible in Dominant inheritance ***polydactyly, Fragile X***

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16
Q

complete penetrance examples

A

homozygous CF, Huntingtons disease

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17
Q

%penetrance

A

cases with pheno / # cases with geno

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18
Q

retinitis pigmentosa

A

true polygenic inheritance peripherin and ROM1

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19
Q

fragile X in men

A

moderately retarded, have large testes (macroorchidism), large heads, large protruding ears, prominent jaw and stubby hands. Speech development is delayed

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20
Q

fragile X in women

A

tend to be shy and show some learning disorders

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21
Q

****fragile X phenotypic variation in women due to***

A

***extreme lionization***

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22
Q

what inheritance is Fragile X

A

X-dominant with incomplete penetrance

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23
Q

Sherman paradox

A

seen in FragX position in the pedigree in part determines the risk of developing the syndrome (sister less chance than granddaughter)

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24
Q

premutation alleles

A

of repeats in genotypically affected individual that allows them to be phenotypically normal ( btwn 50-200 in Fragile X)

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25
Q

highest range of repeats correlates well with

A

absence of the FMR1 mRNA and the presence of clinical disease.

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26
Q

****there is a correlation between****

A

increased repeats in permutation alleles and frequency of expansion to full mutation

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27
Q

nonpenetrant transmitting male (NTM)

A

pheno normal man who passes disease on

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28
Q

where is FMR1 abundant

A

brain and testes

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29
Q

anticipation

A

apparent worsening of the diseases over several generations (huntingtons, myotonic dystrophy)

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30
Q

variable expressivity

A

the ***range*** of phenotypic manifestations of the same genetic disorder (or of the same genotype)

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31
Q

expressivity versus penetrance

A

expressivity refers to the ***type or degree of manifestation*** of a gene that is a penetrant

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32
Q

variable expressivity example

A

neurofibromatosis (polygenic inheritance) ***variable phenotype even in those with same mutation***

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33
Q

uniparental disomy

A

resulting zygote will have a euploid chromosome number but (at least) two chromosomes (e.g. two maternal chromosome 15s) were ***inherited from the same parent***

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34
Q

genomic imprinting

A

genes activated or inactivated in a sex-specific manner (prader willi, angelman sx)

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35
Q

genomic imprinting can cause

A

uniparental disomy leading to a gene being present in either 2 active or inactive doses which can lead to functional imbalance

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36
Q

prader-willi sx

A

obesity, hypogonadism, **maternal 15q**

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37
Q

angelman sx

A

severe MR, spasticity, ***paternal 15q***

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38
Q

multifactorial traits (complex traits)

A

have both a genetic and an environmental basis

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39
Q

quantitative traits

A

continuous spectrum of phenotypes that are measured by numerical biometry methods.

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40
Q

normal human traits affected by number of genes and environ factors

A

skin and hair color, height, weight, blood pressure, intelligence

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41
Q

threshold traits

A

only occur when a threshold is reached, doesn’t appear to follow bell curve pyloric stenosis, neural tube defects, CVD, cleft lip, a1-antitrypsin deficiency rltd lung disease

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42
Q

key features of multifactorial disease #1 (MFD)

A

family studies suggest inheritance, but no mendelian relation

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43
Q

lambda(r)

A

disease prevalence in relatives / disease prevalence in gen pop

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44
Q

key features of multifactorial disease #2

A

risk to 1* family member is square root of gen pop frequency

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45
Q

key features of multifactorial disease #3

A

risk declines rapidly for more remote relatives (versus AD where it only declines by half)

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46
Q

key features of multifactorial disease #4

A

for traits with sex-dependent liabilities, the recurrence risk is higher when the ***less commonly affected sibling*** is the ***proband*** (bc has higher level of genetic liability)

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47
Q

MFD examples

A

alzheimers

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48
Q

Alzheimers path

A

***locus heterogeneity*** mutations in presenilins and APP lead to overprod. of AB peptide and the early onset forms of the disease

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49
Q

phenotypic variance equation

A

Vp = Vg + Ve (g= genotype; e= environment)

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50
Q

heritability

A

proportion of the observed variance due to genes Hb= Vg/Vp

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51
Q

concordance form of heritability (dichotomous traits)

A

(percentMZ - perDZ) / (100- perDZ)

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52
Q

population genetics

A

study of the distribution of alleles in populations and the factors that maintain or alter allele frequencies.

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53
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equation

A

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 p = BB q= bb

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54
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equation use

A

freq. of given genotype from the freq. of alleles at given locus

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55
Q

allele freq. equation

A

num of specific allele / total number of all diff. alleles

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56
Q

Hardy-Weinberg law

A

genotypes will be distributed in a population based on the allele frequencies and the genotype frequencies will remain constant from generation to generation

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57
Q

Hardy-Weinberg requirements

A

random mating, large population, neglible mutation rate/amnt of migration/slection

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58
Q

Consanguineous matings

A

nonrandom mating resulting in increased homozygous genotypes

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59
Q

stratified population

A

one having subgroups that do not intermarry. (Basis can be culture, economic status, race, religion etc)

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60
Q

assortative mating

A

choice of mate based on phenotype (intelligence, stature, skin color, musical talent etc); inc homozygous

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61
Q

random matings versus nonrandom frequencies

A

random: AA = p2 = 0.25, Aa = 2pq = 0.50, aa q2 = 0.25 nonrandom: AA = 0.50, Aa = 0, aa = 0.50

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62
Q

why does it need to be a large population

A

dec. chance of only one allele being passed down (genetic drift)

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63
Q

genetic fitness

A

probability of transmitting one’s genes to the next generation

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64
Q

spontaneous mutation rate

A

m= (s)(q)

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65
Q

genetic drift

A

est. of new alleles or frequencies that can cause formation of subpop in gen pop

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66
Q

selective disadvantage (s)

A

1-f f= fitness

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67
Q

founder effect

A

group of colonists do not have the same allele frequencies as their original population or the population they move into

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68
Q

principle of toxicology

A

dose dictates toxicity

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69
Q

Which LD50 is more toxic? 0.5 or 50?

A

0.5

lower the LD, more toxic

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70
Q

carbon monoxide sources

A

car exhauts, fires, cigarettes, biotransformation of paint removers (methylene chloride)

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71
Q

CO method of tox

A

CO binds Fe2+ to form carboxyhemoglobin

cherry red color in mucus membranes

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72
Q

target organ of CO poisoning?

A

globus pallidus in cerebellum

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73
Q

cyanide exposure

A

all physical forms

occupational, bitter almonds, fruit pits, fires

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74
Q

cyanide mechanism of toxicity

A

mitochondrial toxin, inhibiting ETC

binds ferric (Fe3+) iron of mito cytochrome oxidase

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75
Q

CN sx

A

very rapid, convulstions, etc

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76
Q

CN tx STEP 1

A

administor nitrite to create additional Fe3+ (methemoglobin)

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77
Q

CN tx step 2

A

administor thiosulfate to create SCN, which is easily excreted

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78
Q

methemglobinemia tx

A

methylene blue

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79
Q

organophosphate insecticides

A

diazinon, malathion

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80
Q

organophosphate mech of tox

A

inhibit acetyhlcholine esterase

Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defectation

Miosis, wheezing

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81
Q

organophosphate nicotinic sx

A

muscle twitching, elevated HR/BP

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82
Q

organophosphate tx vs. carbamate tx

A

Atropine for both

PAM-2 only for organophosphates

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83
Q

carbamate (carbaryl) toxicity

A

inhibits acetylcholine esterase but clears faster in water than organophosphates

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84
Q

paraquat toxicity

A

free radicals and lipid peroxidation

causing chronic pulmonary fibrosis

death is multi-organ failure

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85
Q

paraquat dx

A

qualitative test of sodium dithionite in 2N NaOH turns blue

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86
Q

benzene toxicity

A

cns depression and cancer

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87
Q

why is toluene preferred

A

methyl group prevents future cancer risk

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88
Q

which type of PKU requires both dietary restriction and neurotransmitter precursor replacement

A

Type II (DHPR deficiency) and III (biopterin deficiency)

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89
Q

which diseases are treated at the protein level?

A

hemophilia and AAT

90
Q

modification of somatic genome through bone marrow transplantion diseases

A

gaucher, hunter, hurler’s syndromes

91
Q

autoimmune hepatitis definition

A

chronic, progressive idiopathic hepatitis that if untreated can lead to cirrhosis

responds well to immunosupression

92
Q

autoimmune hepatitis lab results

A

elevated ALT, AST

serum autoantibodies

necroinflammatory activity on liver biopsy

93
Q

who does autoimmune hepatitis affect?

A

white northern european females

94
Q

Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

middle aged, most common US

ANA, ASMA

95
Q

Type II automimmune hepatitis

A

kids, S. Europe

Anti-LKM-1

96
Q

PBC

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

97
Q

PSC

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

98
Q

Overlap syndrome

A

clinical and histologic features of both AIH and (PBC or PSC)

99
Q

AIH sx

A

acute hepatitis, concurrent autoimmune conditions (i.e. thyroid, arthritis), fulminant with encephalopathy

100
Q

What should you see on histology of AIH?

A

rosette formation, plasma cells, bridging necrosis

101
Q

AIH tx

A

immunosuppression (80% remission)

liver transplant (75%)

102
Q

cholestatic xenobiotic

A

contraceptive

103
Q

hepatocellular necrosis xenobiotic

A

acetaminophen

104
Q

fatty liver disease xenobiotic

A

ethanol, methotrexate

105
Q

steatohepatitis with mallory denk bodies

106
Q

fibrosis and cirrhosis xenobiotics

A

alcohol and methotrexate

107
Q

hepatocellular adenoma xenobiotic

A

oral contraceptives

108
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma

109
Q

acetaminophen

A

predictable hepatotoxin

most common of acute liver failure needing transplantation

coagulative necrosis and ballooning degeneration

110
Q

oral contraceptives

A

feathery degeneration

111
Q

leading cause of liver disease?

A

alcoholic liver disease

112
Q

alchoholic hepatic steatosis

A

enlarged, greasy liver with macro- and micro-vesicular fat changes

increased synthesis of lipids and peripheral fat catabolism; abnormal LPLs

113
Q

mallory denk bodies

A

alcoholic hepatitis

thick, ropy perinuclear eosinophilic inclusions (cytokerating IFs)

114
Q

alcoholic hepatitis neutrophilic rxn

A

infiltrate in areas of hepatic necrosis

produce free radicals

115
Q

alcoholic hepatocellular steatosis

A

shunting of normal substrates towards lipid synthesis instead of catabolism

W/ increased PERPH catabolism of FAT

116
Q

NAFLD (non alcoholic fatty liver)

A

most common chronic liver disease

dx by liver biopsy

117
Q

explain the relationship btwn hepatic steatosis, hepatitis, and cirrhosis

118
Q

alcoholic cirrhosis gross/histo

A

gross: shruken, diffusely nodular, firm
micro: nodules of hepatocytes surrounded by fibrous bands

119
Q

alcoholic labs (chronic)

A

elevated bilirubin, ALP and neutrophilia

AST/ALT 2:1 or more

120
Q

alcoholic steatofibrosis

A

most important consequence of injury

“chicken wire” fibrosis (perisinusoidal, pericellular fibrosis)

121
Q

grade vs. stage of NAFLD

A

grade: deg. of inflammation, necrosis, steatosis
stage: degree of fibrosis

122
Q

NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis)

A

see in NAFLD

most common cause of elevated liver enzymes today

most rapidly progressing version

123
Q

NAFLD steatosis

A

greater than 5% fat cells

elevated liver enzymes

no inflammation, cell death, or fibrosis

124
Q

NAFLD histo

A

ballooned hepatocytes, macrovesicular steatosis

125
Q

NAFLD sx and labs

A

fatigue, URQ pain w/ NO hx of excess alcohol consumption

AST/ALT ratio less than 1

126
Q

NAFLD 2 hit hypo

A

first hit: insulin resistance

hepatic stenosis

second hit: hepatocellular oxidative injury

NAFLD

127
Q

Insulin Resistance changes

A

decreased adiponectin, increased cytokines, fat cell apoptosis

128
Q

pediatric NAFLD

A

more diffuse steatosis, portal fibrosis, mononuclear inflammatory cells

129
Q

cholelithiasis risk factor

A

forty, fertile, female, fat

130
Q

cholesterol stones

A

only in GB

radiolucent if pure cholesterol!!!

native americans

131
Q

pigment stones

A

non-western countries

bacterial infections

inorganic Ca + unconjugated bilirubin

132
Q

biliary colic

A

after meal, stones pushed against outlet of GB

RUQ, epigastric pain radiating to shoulder

133
Q

acute cholecystitis

A

stone obstruction, emergent cholecystectomy

serosa w/ fibrinous exudate

Acalculous cholecystitis (no stones inv.)- may occur in severly ill

134
Q

acute cholecystitis sx

A

RUQ, epigastric pain >6 hours, fever, n/v, tachycardia, diaphoresis,

No jaundice, if +, common bile duct is obstructed = sign. location for stones/obstruction!!

135
Q

chronic cholecystitis

A

subserosal fibrosis, gray-white wall

chronic inflamm w lymphoid follicle formation

Rotinkansky-Aschoff Sinuses!!!

136
Q

porcelain gallbladder!?

A

white/crunchy due to dystrophic calcifications

cancer risk!!

137
Q

von meyenberg complexes

A

hamartomas of ductal structures in hyalinized stroma

assoc. with PCLD

138
Q

caroli’s disease

A

congenital, non obstructive, multifocal segmental dilatation of intrahepatic ducts

cholangiocarcinoma risk

139
Q

caroli’s syndrome

A

disease + congenital hepatic fibrosis

140
Q

Caroli’s disease sx

A

late childhood

chronic recurrent fever, pain, jaundice

incr. ESR, biliary enzymes

141
Q

explanted liver

A

caroli disease

subcapsular dilated bile duct (bottom arrow)

142
Q

cholangitis

A

caroli disease

dilated bile duct, concretion, debris

143
Q

Alagille Syndrome

A

rare AD, JAG1/Notch2 mutations

syndromic paucity of interlobular bile ducts due to deficient bile flow

tx with liver transplant

144
Q

Alagille Syndrome sx and labs

A

cholestasis, pruritus, xanthomas @ 6 mo to 5 yrs

conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

CGT/ALP elevation

HLP

145
Q

Hepatic Artery compromise

A

infarcts of liver

coagulative necrosis + inflamed, hyperemic borders

146
Q

hepatic infarct of zahn

A

atrophy and hemostasis with no necrosis

147
Q

portal HTN

A

cirrhosis w/ assoc. esophageal or periumbilical varices

148
Q

Rt sided cardiac decomp

A

congestion of liver and centrilolobular sinusoids

atrophic liver cell plates

149
Q

lt sided decomp

A

centrilobular necrosis, ischemic coagulative necrosis

150
Q

systemic circulatory decomp

A

like left sided + nutmeg liver

151
Q

nutmeg liver

A

central vein red, parenchyma tan brown

152
Q

peliosis hepatis

A

due to impaired flow w/in liver due to toxins

blood filled cysts, incomplete endothelial lining

153
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

thrombosis of 2 or more major hepatic veins or IVC

due to increased tendency to clot (genetic or pregnancy)

154
Q

sinusoidal obstruction syndrome

A

fibrotic occlusion of small hepatic veins with endothelial injury due to herbal teas

155
Q

focal nodular hyperplasia

A

vascular malformation of AV anastomoses w/ localized overgrowth of liver components

central stellate scar w/ blood vessels

no malignant potential!

156
Q

nodular regenerative hyperplasia

A

transformation of entire liver into mult. nodules without fibrous septa bwn them

due to heterogeneous microcirculation

157
Q

hepatocellular adenoma

A

benign, women on OC

solitary yellow w/ sheets and cords of normal liver cells

158
Q

liver cavernous hemangioma

A

most common benign

discrete subcap red-blue soft nodules

vasc lesion

159
Q

Kasabach merritt syndrome

A

microangiopathic anemia with consumption coagulopathy and liver cavernous hemangioma

160
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma

A

AFP increased

propensity for vascular invasion ► intrahepatic metastasis

161
Q

fibrolamellar HCC

A

better outcome, no underlying disease/cirrhosis

younger people

162
Q

liver cholangiocarcinoma

A

thorotrast RF

located at hilar (Klatskin tumor), cause biliary obstruction sx

163
Q

hepatoblastoma

A

most common in kids

assoc. Beckwith-Wiedemman, FAP

164
Q

what viral infection is worsened in pregnant women?

165
Q

preeclampsia

A

maternal HTN, proteinuria, edema, clotting abnorm

166
Q

eclampsia

A

preeclampsia + hyperreflexia and convulsions

167
Q

H.EL.LP syndrome

A

hemolysis, elev. liver enzymes, low platelets

168
Q

acute fatty liver in pregnancy

A

defect in mito FA b-oxidation

microvesicular steatosis, scant inflammation, necrosis

169
Q

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A

pruritus + marked inc bile salts, darkening urine, lightening stools

centrilobar cholestasis

170
Q

what order are HBV serologic antigens detected?

A
  1. HbsAg
  2. HbeAg (chronic, vertical transmission to baby possible)
  3. anti- HBc (IgM (acute) IgG (chronic))
  4. anti-HBe (window period)
  5. anti-hbS (lifelong, vaccine)
171
Q

teenage girl with depression and brown-ringed corneas

A

Wilson’s disease

Kayser-Fleischer ring is diagnostic

172
Q

What is this?

A

onion skin fibrosis

PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS

173
Q

What is this?

A

apoptotic body

hepatitis

174
Q

what is this?

A

interface hepatitis (spillover of portal inflammatory cells beyond limiting plate, into lobule)

175
Q

what is this?

A

macrovesicular fatty change

alcoholic or nonalcholic steatohepatitis

176
Q

what is this?

A

mallory denk bodies

alcoholic hepatitis

177
Q

most common reason for liver transplanation in kids?

A

biliary atresia (one or more bile ducts are abnormally narrow, blocked, or absent)

178
Q

most common metastases to liver

A

colon

(secondary much more common than primary liver ca)

179
Q

most common cause of hepatitis

A

viral hepatitis

180
Q

young categories

A
  1. neonate: 0-4 weeks
  2. perinatal: 26th week gestation to 1 month postpartum
  3. infant: 5-52 weeks post birth
    1. child: greater than 1 yo
181
Q

neonate/infant subq/IM injections

A

absorption dependent on perfusion, low muscle mass

182
Q

neonate/infant enteral distribution

A

within hrs of birth, significant changes in gastric pH

first 2 days, gastric emptying is delayed

183
Q

altered oral drug absorption in neonate/infant

A

congential HD, RDS, CHF, short bowel syndrome, thyroid disease

184
Q

neonate/infant renal function

A

GFR is much less than in adults. adult levels 6+ months

185
Q

neonate drug metabolism

A

depends on drug tx or environ. exposure of mom

P450 decreased initially

conjugation rxns diminished (glucuronide)

186
Q

neonate/infant plasma protein binding

A

decreased plasma protein binding (affinity for acidic anionic drugs)

displacement of drugs by bilirubin (phenytoin, indamethicin)

187
Q

why is there problems during tx of the elderly?

A

change in pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

188
Q

elderly absorption changes

A

dec gastric acid secretion: dec abs. of ferrous sulfate and ketoconazole

antacids: dec abs of cimetidine, digitalis, tetracycline, phenytoin

189
Q

Vd changes in elderly

A

Vd lipid soluble, half life: increased (amiodarone, diazepam)

Vd water soluble, Vd muscle binding: decreased (ethanol, digoxin)

190
Q

drug clearance in elderly

A

decreased if Phase I dependent

no change if Phase II dependent

191
Q

elderly pharmacodynamic changes

A

changes in receptor binding, receptor number, or altered receptor-initiated translations

192
Q

digoxin

A

lower renal elimination in elderly,

+diuretics worsen

193
Q

diuretics

A

greater risk of electrolyte depletion

194
Q

psychoactive drugs

A

atypical and typical dopamine antagonists black box warning

195
Q

Why are heavy metals dangerous?

A

***accumulation***, extremely long half lives so toxic in small, repeated doses

196
Q

Ca disodium EDTA

A

IV and IM inj.

lead encephalopathy and cadmium

contraindicated in renal disease

197
Q

disodium EDTA

A

used for hypercalcemia

198
Q

succimer (meso-2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid)

A

sulfur groups bind, PO, lead

tastes bad, nausea

199
Q

dimercaprol (BAL)

A

lead, arsenic, inorganic mercury

admin IM w/ peanut oil

contraindicated in liver disease

both urine AND BILE excretion

200
Q

penicillamine

A

PO, dont use in renal

Wilson’s disease tx

ADR: agranulocytosis

201
Q

what do you test for lead poisoning

A

whole blood not plasma!

>75% of lead bound to Hb

202
Q

lead poisoning sx

A

lead colic, lead palsy, lead encephalopathy (cerebral edema)

microcytic anemia, muscle weakness, memory loss

203
Q

what’s the most sensitive indicator of lead toxicity and why?

A

hematologic

lead inhibits heme synthesis ► binds d-aminolevulinate dehydratase in cytsol and ferrochelatase *in mitochondria*

204
Q

how is mercury toxic/

A

binds sulfhydryl groups

205
Q

Minamata disease

A

methylmercury toxicity leading to permanent weakness, visual field constriction, ataxia and numbness

inorganic mercury taken up by algae ►fish

206
Q

what is contraindicated in methyl mercury poisoning

A

dimercapol, increases brain levels

207
Q

arsenic toxicity sx

A

rice water diarrhea (loss of albumin ► gelatinous diarrhea)

208
Q

chronic arsenic toxicity

A

hyperkeratosis, arrythmia, hepatomegaly, garlic odor, mee’s lines on nails (horizontal)

209
Q

cadmium sx

A

emphysema due to inhalation

210
Q

cadmium tx

A

disodium EDTA

BAL contraindicated, increases renal toxicity

211
Q

cadmium monitoring

A

monitor urinary B2-microglobulin due to occupational exposure

212
Q

itai itai disease

A

accidental ingestion of cadmium

213
Q

wilson’s disease

A

high copper levels due to ATP7B defect

penicillamine

214
Q

absorption

A

drug/drug or drug/food can cause altered pH, transport, chelation, or metabolism

consider staggering dose

215
Q

antacid absorption interactions

A

prevents tetracycline absorption

216
Q

cholestyramine interactions

A

digoxin, warfarin

217
Q

gastric transit time

A

changes rate, but not extent

shift in peak NOT in bioavailabilty

218
Q

h2 antagonists

A

decrease ketoconazole and intraconazole absorption

219
Q

PPI

A

dec. atazanavir, and -conazole absorptions

220
Q

PGP

A

ATP dep. mol. transport, “gatekeeper of metabolism”

inhibited by ketoconozaole, emycin, grapefruit, cmycin