Main Flashcards
1
Q
Examples of USB ports that can be found on mobile devices include: (Select 3 answers)
A
USB-C
Mini-USB
Micro-USB
2
Q
Which of the following are ways of creating a wireless/cellular data network by using a mobile device? (Select 3 answers)
A
Hotspot
Tethering
Bluetooth
3
Q
Which of the following describe IMAP? [2]
A
Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3
Serves the same function as POP3
4
Q
POP3S uses: [3]
A
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
TCP port 995
5
Q
What are the characteristic features of the secure version of IMAP (IMAPS)? [3]
A
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
TCP port 993
6
Q
What are the basic settings required for configuring a POP3 connection?
A
POP3 server name
POP3 username
Password
TCP port 110
7
Q
POP3 is used for:
A
Email retrieval
8
Q
Which of the following can be used to describe the features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)? [3]
A
Relatively high device cost
Lower capacity in comparison to magnetic drives
High performance
9
Q
Which of the following are characteristic features of traditional magnetic drives? [3]
A
Low device cost
High capacity
Low performance
10
Q
Which of the following sizes is the most common magnetic hard disk drive form factor used in laptops?
A
2.5 inch
11
Q
Which of the following are SSD form factors used in laptop computers? [2]
A
- 8 inch
2. 5 inch
12
Q
Which of the following memory module form factors are used in laptop computers? [2]
A
SODIMM
MicroDIMM
13
Q
Which type of expansion card enables communication on 802.11 networks?
A
WLAN
14
Q
A laptop’s Bluetooth module enables communication over:
A
WPAN
15
Q
A type of expansion card that enables communication over a cellular network is called a:
A
WWAN card
16
Q
A type of laptop expansion slot characterized by a much smaller form factor when compared to its desktop counterpart is known as:
A
mini PCIe
17
Q
What type of power jack can be found on a laptop case?
A
DC
18
Q
What are the characteristic features of an OLED display? [3]
A
Works without backlight
Lower light output (brightness) in comparison to LCDs
Better contrast ratio and color representation in comparison to LCDs
19
Q
What are the basic settings required for configuring an IMAP connection? [4]
A
TCP port 143
IMAP server name
IMAP username
Password
20
Q
MIME stands for:
A
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
21
Q
Which of the following can be used as a reference during a mobile device update process?
A
PRI (Product Release Instructions)
22
Q
A database on a mobile device containing bands, sub-bands and service provider IDs allowing the device to establish connection with the right cell phone tower is called:
A
PRL (Preffered Roaming List)
23
Q
A unique number used to identify a mobile network phone user is a:
A
IMSI (International mobile subscriber identity)
24
Q
Which of the following are examples of universal connection types that enable mobile device synchronization?
IEEE 802.11 USB-C Cellular Bluetooth IEEE 802.3
A
All
25
Telnet: [3]
Provides username & password authentication
Transmits data in an unencrypted form
Enables remote login and command execution
26
POP3 and IMAP are used to:
Retrieve mail from a server
27
Which of the following is a Microsoft-proprietary remote-access protocol providing users with a graphical interface that allows them to connect to another computer on a network?
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
28
Which of the following is used when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a Windows-based LAN?
NetBIOS
29
The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks. T/F
True
30
Which of the following are characteristic features of SMB/CIFS? [2]
Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices
| Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems
31
Which of the following protocols permits automated discovery of networked services on Local Area Networks (LANs)?
SLP (Service Location Protocol)
32
Which of the following is a file sharing network protocol?
RDP
SSH
AFP
SLP
AFP (AppleTalk Filing Protocol)
33
LDAP is an example of a:
Directory access protocol
34
A type of protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices is called:
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
35
Which port enables FTP's Data Connection to send file data?
TCP Port 20
36
FTP's Control Connection for administering a session is established through:
TCP Port 21
37
SSH protocol runs on:
TCP Port 22
38
Which TCP port2 does Telnet use?
TCP Port 23
39
TCP port 25 is used by:
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
40
Which UDP port is assigned to DNS?
UDP Port 53
41
TCP port 80 is assigned to:
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
42
POP3 uses what port:
TCP port 110
43
Which TCP port number is assigned to IMAP?
TCP Port 143
44
Which port is used by HTTPS
TCP Port 443
45
A network technician wishes to use an RDP client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?
TCP port 3389
46
Which of the following port numbers are reserved for NetBIOS services? [3]
137
138
139
47
Port 445 is used by: [2]
SMB (Server Message Block)
| CIFS (Common Internet File System)
48
Which port number is used by SLP:
427
49
AFP runs by default on TCP port:
548
50
Describe the differences between TCP and UDP for the following:
- Connection
- Reliability
- ACKs
- Usage
```
TCP
Formal connection
Reliable (Resends)
Yes
Where data needs to be received
```
```
UDP
none
No
No
Live Streaming
```
51
What is a non-ephemeral port
Permanent ports
| 0 - 1,023
52
What is the protocol for SENDING email
SMTP
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
TCP 25
53
What is DSL
Digital subscriber line, transmit digital data over telephone lines
54
What is SSID
Service set identifier, name of the network name
55
What is MAC
Media access control, the physical hardware address
56
A device designed to filter and transfer IP packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called a:
Router
57
Which device improves network performance by dividing a given network segment into separate collision domains?
Switch
58
A network switch with configuration features that can be modified via a user interface is a:
Managed switch
59
An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is known as a
Access Point
60
Network connections implemented with the use of a cable modem take advantage of: [3]
- Cabling that carries TV signals
- Coaxial cabling
- Shared bandwidth
61
Which of the following describe characteristics of DSL modems? [3]
- Dedicated bandwidth
- Twisted-pair copper cabling
- Telephone lines
62
Network bridge decisions are made with:
Software
63
Network switch decisions are made with:
Hardware (ASIC)
64
A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is a:
Patch panel
65
Whatdedicated device is designed to supply power to PoE equipment?
Injector
66
What is the function of FTP?
File exchange
67
An SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port:
161
68
An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications on which UDP port?
162
69
A network switch is sometimes refferred to as a multiport bridge T/F
True
70
Which wireless security protocol has been discouraged in favor of newer standards due to known vulnerabilities resulting from implementation flaws?
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
71
What purpose best describes the disabling of an SSID broadcast?
It makes a WLAN harder to discover
72
Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) simplifies the configuration of new wireless networks by enabling non-technical users to easily set up new networks, configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network. However, due to its known security vulnerabilities, WPS is not recommended and should be disabled. T/F
True
73
Which is the best method to secure a small network lacking an authentication server?
WPA2-PSK
74
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) are encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and is not recommended because of its vulnerabilities. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2 was introduced as the official standard that offers the strongest security of the three. T/F
True
75
What are the characteristic features of a WPA/WPA2 Enterprise mode? [2]
- Suitable for large corporate networks
| - Requires RADIUS authentication server
76
Setting up a wireless network to operate on a non-overlapping channel allows multiple networks to coexist in the same area without causing interference. T/F
True
77
Which IEEE standard provides the basis for implementing most modern WLANs?
IEEE 802.11
78
Describe characteristics of IEEE 802.11a wireless standard [2]
- 5.0 GHz frequency band
| - Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
79
What are the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? [2]
- 2.4 GHz frequency range
| - Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
80
What are the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? [2]
- 2.4 GHz frequency range
| - Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
81
The IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with:
802.11b
82
What are the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard? [4]
- 2.4 GHz frequency range
- 5.0 GHz frequency band
- Maximum data signaling rate of 600 Mbps
- Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)
83
The IEEE 802.11n standard offers backward compatibility with: [3]
- 802.11a
- 802.11b
- 802.11g
84
Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) is a wireless technology that allows for significant increase in data throughput due to the use of multiple antennas and multiple data streams. T/F
True
85
Describe features of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard [3]
- 5.0 GHz frequency band
- Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps
- Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
86
Which frequency bands can be used by IEEE 802.11 networks?
- 2.4 GHz
| - 5.0 GHz
87
What is the channel bandwidth specified in the IEEE 802.11a standard?
20 MHz
88
What is the channel bandwidth used in 802.11b networks?
22 MHz
89
Which of the following channel bandwidths is specified in the IEEE 802.11g standard?
20 MHz
90
The term "Channel bonding" refers to a technique that allows for combining adjacent channels to increase the amount of available bandwidth. T/F
True
91
The IEEE 802.11n standard specifies available channel bandwidth options of: [2]
- 20 MHz
| - 40 MHz
92
The IEEE 802.11ac standard specifies available channel bandwidth options of: [4]
- 20 MHz
- 40 MHz
- 80 MHz
- 160 MHz
93
Which of the following channel options would allow three Wireless Access Points (WAPs) to be set up on non-overlapping channels? [3]
1 , 6, 11
94
Which wireless technology enables identification and tracking of tags attached to objects?
RFID (Radio-Frequency identification)
95
Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a wireless communications standard for mobile devices and wireless hotspots. LTE is much faster than the older generation of 2G and 3G cellular networks. Both LTE and its later upgrade, LTE-Advanced (LTE-A), are often marketed as 4G standards. T/F
True
96
Which wireless network type has a design that uses mesh topology?
WMN (Wireless mesh network)
97
What is WiMAX?
Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access, long-distance line-of-sight Internet service
98
What are characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? [3]
- High signal latency
- Weather inteference
- Relatively high cost compared to terrestrial links
99
Which tool should be used to attach an RJ-45 connector to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?
Crimper
100
Which tool should be used to locate a cable in a cabling bundle, or to trace individual wires in a cable?
Toner and probe kit
101
What is the function of a Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)?
Finding breaks in copper network cables
102
An Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is a type of specialized cable tester that locates faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling. T/F
True
103
Which of the following tools is used to verify that the electrical connections of wires in a cable are correct?
Cable tester
104
When troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), which of the following tools can be used to test connector pins on the NIC's port?
Loopback plug
105
Which of the following tools is used to attach network cables to a patch panel?
Punchdown tool
106
Which of the following is a type of diagnostic tool used for measuring the strength of a wireless signal?
Wi-Fi analyzer
107
The main functions of a Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) are to perform initial hardware checks after a computer is powered on and to start up an Operating System (OS). T/F
True
108
Which of the following are a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by a startup BIOS after a computer is powered on?
POST (Power On Self Test)
109
Which MS Windows utility provides access to basic information about a computer's BIOS?
Msinfo32.exe
110
A computer's BIOS interface can be accessed by pressing
The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing BIOS configuration interface during boot
111
BIOS configuration settings can be set to factory defaults by: [3]
- Using a jumper on the motherboard
- Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard
- Choosing the default configuration option in the BIOS interface
112
Which of the following is a feature of UEFI? (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) [6]
- Mouse Support
- DRM support
- GUI mode
- Secure boot
- Designed as a replacement for BIOS
- Network access
113
After completing initial diagnostic procedures and allocating system resources, a startup BIOS program checks for information about secondary storage devices that might contain the OS. The list of devices and the order in which they should be checked can be found and arranged in the CMOS setup utility. This option is commonly referred to as a:
Boot sequence
114
In modern PCs, BIOS contents are stored in: [2]
- EEPROM
| - Flash memory
115
BIOS updates are performed in order to: [3]
- Repair damaged BIOS
- Provide support for new types of attached hardware
- Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version
116
Aborted BIOS update can damage the motherboard and render the computer unusable. T/F
True
117
What kind of user permission restrictions can be set in BIOS? [2]
- User password required to proceed when the computer is powered on
- Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility (Supervisor password)
118
Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled/disabled in BIOS setup utilities that come equipped with this feature. Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside a computer case, it can be used to check whether the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot. T/F
True
119
A BIOS configuration interface provides a wide range of advanced hardware-related options. In modern PCs, depending on the specific BIOS type and version, these options might typically include:
- Viewing a detailed information related to CPU, RAM, and HDDs
- Enabling/disabling integrated hardware interfaces, such as USB, Audio, NIC, TPM, or integrated graphics controllers
- Configuring the parameters of CPU, RAM, and HDDs
- Enabling/disabling certain functionalities, e.g. virtualization support
120
Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS?
Supervisor
121
A computer that supports LoJack technology must have two main components installed. It needs an Application Agent (residing in the OS), which sends tracking signals that enable location and recovery of a stolen device. The other component is a Persistence Module, which restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive reinstallation of an operating system or reformatting of the hard drive. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be achieved when Persistence Module resides in the:
Computer's BIOS
122
The UEFI functionality designed to prevent loading of malware and/or unauthorized OSs is called:
Secure Boot
123
The CMOS battery located on a computer's motherboard allows for maintaining the correct time and date information stored in CMOS RAM. In older computer systems, the CMOS battery also allowed for maintaining the BIOS configuration settings stored in CMOS RAM. T/F
True
124
What could help when troubleshooting a system that attempts to boot to an incorrect device? [2]
- Disconnecting any USB thumb drives
| - Checking BIOS settings for boot order
125
For best performance, a custom workstation designed for virtualization tasks needs [3]
- Large, fast hard drive
- Maximum RAM
- Maximum CPU cores
126
Which of the following are examples of Hardware-Assisted Virtualization (HAV) technologies? [2]
- VT-x
| - AMD-V
127
The term "VM sprawl" is used to describe a situation in which large number of deployed virtual machines lack proper administrative controls. T/F
True
128
The term "VM escape" refers to the process of breaking out of the boundaries of a guest operating system installation to access the primary hypervisor controlling all the virtual machines on the host machine. T/F
True
129
Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent VM sprawl? [2]
- Usage audit
| - Asset documentation
130
Which of the following can be used as countermeasures against VM escape? [2]
- Sandboxing
| - Patch management
131
In virtualization technology, a software program that manages multiple operating systems (or multiple instances of the same operating system) on a single computer system is called a:
Hypervisor
132
Describe disadvantages of virtualization? [2]
- Performance is degraded by having multiple virtual machines that run on a single host and share hardware resources
- Hardware used for hosting virtual machines becomes a single point of failure
133
Which of the following refers to a cloud computing delivery model in which clients, instead of buying hardware and software, rent computing resources from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software?
IaaS
134
A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on a monthly or annual subscription fee is called:
SaaS
135
Which of the following cloud service types would be the best option for a web developer intending to create an app?
PaaS
136
Name the cloud computing deployment model in which the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public?
Public cloud
137
A hybrid cloud is a type of cloud deployment model consisting of two or more interlinked cloud infrastructure types (private, community, or public.) T/F
True
138
Which of the following is a cloud computing feature that allows computing resources to be automatically allocated in response to demand?
Rapid elasticity
139
Which of the following is a cloud computing feature that allows consumers to control the volume and type of computing resources used?
On-demand self-service
140
In cloud computing, the practice of grouping together computing resources and making them available for shared access for multiple consumers is referred to as:
Resource pooling
141
A remote server hosting a virtualized user OS is an example of:
VDI (Virtual desktop infrastructure)
142
Describe the characteristics of a persistent VDI: [2]
- Each user runs their own copy of virtual desktop
| - At the end of a session, user data and personal settings are saved
143
Describe the characteristics of a non-persistent VDI: [2]
- At the end of a session, a user desktop reverts to its original state
- Virtual desktop is shared among multiple users
144
What is SIEM
Security information and event management
145
What is the default gateway
The router that allows you to communicate outside of your local subnet
146
How many bits in a byte
8
147
How many bits / bytes is an IPv6 address
128bit / 16bytes
148
What is a VLAN
Virtual LAN, logically separated network inside of switch.
| Can only see what is on the vlan even though it is the same switch
149
What is a cable modem (4)
- Provides broadband
- different traffic types
- DOCSIS
- High speed networking
150
What is dialup
Sending data over voice telephone lines
