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MAF MSPC > MAF MSPC > Flashcards

MAF MSPC Flashcards

1
Q

Responsible for making changes in GO81 for approved SCR actions.

A

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

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2
Q

This organization is responsible for determining the appropriate deviation code after coordination with applicable agencies.

A

Command Post

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3
Q

Scanners and wing walkers are required within how many feet of an obstruction?

A

25

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4
Q

These units serve roles in both federal and state.

A

Air National Guard (ANG)

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5
Q

Owning MXG/CC, MXG/CD, or designated individual is this type of release authority?

A

Impoundment

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6
Q

90 days is the blank number of days of supervision for civilians prior to an appraisal.

A

Minimum

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7
Q

The aircraft subsystem required for a specific mission are identified in this column of the MESL. Lists a unit’s specifically assigned wartime, training, and test mission and the systems and subsystems that must work for a unit to accomplish those missions.

A

Basic System List (BSL)

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8
Q

Tool used to help aircrews determine aircraft worthiness.

A

Minimum Equipment Listing (MEL)

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9
Q

Pro Super and this organization are CANN authorities.

A

Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)

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10
Q

Two up and one down is the allowed substitution for _____ personnel deploying.

One up and one down is the allowed substitution for _____ personnel deploying.

A
  • Enlisted

- Officer

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11
Q

Coordinates aircraft maintenance schedules between maintenance and operations.

A

Plans Scheduling and Documentation

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12
Q

Number of days maintenance has to turn in a MICAP DIFM assets to supply.

A

4

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13
Q

Air Force blank manual covers how to read a grid map and cordon overlay.

A

Airman’s

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14
Q

Acronym used to help you develop a comprehensive ETIC.

A

WARCAP

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15
Q

Five character alpha-numeric code that uniquely identifies a capability of each type of unit in the Air Force.

A

Unit Type Code (UTC)

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16
Q

Documented whenever a maintenance action is stopped prior to completion or a change of maintenance technician occurs.

A

Work Stoppage

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17
Q

Primary work/rest authority for these individuals rests with the Aircraft Commander.

A

Flying Crew Chief (FCC)

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18
Q

The AF Form 2407 is used to make what to the flying schedule?

A

Changes

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19
Q

Why safety nets are not 100% reliable. Humans are what?

A

Fallible

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20
Q

This person moves people, resources, and ensures maintenance is accomplished.

A

Expediter

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21
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with natural disasters.

A

Annex B

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22
Q

Training class designed to improve safety by reducing all types of maintenance induced human errors.

A

Logistics Resource Management (LRM)

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23
Q

Tool used to determine what missions an aircraft is capable of performing. (Does not determine airworthiness, safety of flight, and should not gauge go/no-go decisions).

A

Minimum Essential Subsystems List (MESL)

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24
Q

This maintenance discipline breakdown indicator can occur due to task familiarity.

A

Complacency

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25
Q

Codes assigned to track aircraft departure delays.

A

Deviations

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26
Q

Component of the UTC identifying the equipment required.

A

LOGDET

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27
Q

The 200 deviation code is used for what kind of delays?

A

Aircrew

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28
Q

Estimated 80% of all aviation accidents are caused by this type of error.

A

Human

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29
Q

Responsible for the on-scene recovery actions in support of an off station NMC aircraft.

A

Maintenance Recovery Team (MRT) Chief

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30
Q

DOD civilian organization that develops special test equipment and helps until resolve complex or unusual technical aircraft problems.

A

Air Force Engineering and Technical Services (AFETS)

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31
Q

Single source for information about the manpower a unit requires to perform its mission.

A

Unit Manning Document (UMD)

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32
Q

Their primary role is to train traditional reservists.

A

Active Reserve Technicians (ART)

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33
Q

Useful AMC A4 Website used for checking the status or your aircraft.

A

Global Reach

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34
Q

The symbol * on the UPMR means there is a what?

A

Mismatch

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35
Q

This person manages the maintenance production efforts by assigning priorities to meet the flying and maintenance schedules.

A

Pro Super

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36
Q

Leads monthly DIT meetings.

A

Analysis

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37
Q

A newly assigned individual would be most likely to notice these safety issues.

A

Norms

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38
Q

This NCOIC is responsible for developing work-center training requirements.

A

Section

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39
Q

What is the AFSO21 methodology and standardized method and mindset to reduce waste in processes used in unit?

A

LEAN

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40
Q

Publication that establishes base specific guidance for emergency response actions.

A

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP)

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41
Q

MXG/CD normally chairs this meeting.

A

Production

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42
Q

What are the three components of a UTC?

A

MISCAP (Mission Capability)
LOGDET (Logistics Detail)
MANFOR (Manpower Force)

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43
Q

SNCO’s and Officers who have less than 12 months experience on their assigned aircraft should take this training.

A

Command Aircraft System Training (CAST)

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44
Q

First Emergency Management objective is to what?

A

Save Lives

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45
Q

The 900 deviation code is used for what kind of delay?

A

Maintenance

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46
Q

This Commander is responsible to ensure their unit is capable to respond to Wing taskings.

A

Squadron

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47
Q

Max number of hours you are allowed by regulation to schedule personnel for.

A

12 Hours

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48
Q

The Pro Super is ultimately responsible for setting what?

A

The Estimated Time In Commission (ETIC)

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49
Q

MESL column that identifies all system and subsystems needed for full mission performance.

A

Full System List (FSL)

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50
Q

When developing the blank, identify all task requirements within your duty section to ensure 100% task covers.

A

Master Task List (MTL)

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51
Q

Type of evaluation that QA must observe a technician accomplish maintenance every 18 months.

A

Personnel Evaluation (PE)

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52
Q

What are T-0, T-1, T-2 and T-3?

A

Waiver Authorities

  • T-0 (HAF)
  • T-1 (MAJCOM/CC - Delegable no lower than appropriate MAJCOM director)
  • T-2 (MAJCOM/CC - Delegable no lower than the first GO in the Chain of Command)
  • T-3 (Wg/CC or equivalent - Delegable no lower than the Sq/CC or equivalent)
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53
Q

Who approves the SCR?

A

Maintenance Operations Officer / Maintenance Superintendent

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54
Q

Who selects personnel for the SCR?

A

AMU OIC, Superintendent, Flight Commander, or Flight Chief

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55
Q

Who recommends individuals for addition to the SCR?

A

Section NCOIC / Section Chief

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56
Q

When Expediter and Pro Super duties be combined?

A

If there are 8 or fewer assigned aircraft

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57
Q

What responsibility does the Production Superintendent have in regards to the CDDAR program?

A

Monitor

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58
Q

How often should the Quick Response Checklist be reviewed by the MXG/CC?

A

Annually

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59
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with major accidents.

A

Annex A

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60
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with an enemy CBRN attack.

A

Annex C

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61
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan dealing with Terrorist use of CBRN.

A

Annex D

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62
Q

A large spill is consider a spill larger than ____ gallons where as a small spill is ____ gallons or less.

A

55

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63
Q

How often should Pilot Units review UTC’s?

A

Every 2 years

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64
Q

Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) should be updated every ____ days or ____ hours of a status change.

A

30 days / 24 hours

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65
Q

What are Force Modules?

A

A group of Unit Line Number (ULNs) for TPFDD analysis and force tracking

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66
Q

When must a deviation be input?

A

When a mission departs a station 15 minutes or more past the scheduled departure

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67
Q

Deviation message reports must be submitted ASAP, but NLT ____ hours after an aircraft launch.

A

2

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68
Q

What are the purpose of deviation codes?

A

The purpose of recording controllable deviations is to take steps to improve processes in future operations

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69
Q

What kind of indicators show problem first, as they directly reflect maintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

A

Leading

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70
Q

What kind of indicators show firmly established trends?

A

Lagging

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71
Q

What type of indicators do we have more control over?

A

Leading Indicators

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72
Q

What deviation is used for an unresolved deviation? (Place-holder)

A

555

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73
Q

After 48 hours if there is still no reason provided for a deviation of 555, the deviation changes to ____.

A

255

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74
Q

How often is Supply supposed to conduct visits to the maintenance work-centers for maintaining bench stock, shop stock, and operating stock?

A

Quarterly

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75
Q

Who’s responsibility is supply discipline?

A

Everyones

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76
Q
  • 1A is used for ___ conditions.
  • JA is used for ___ conditions.
  • BQ is used for ___ conditions.
A
  • NMC
  • PMC
  • FMC
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77
Q

Can PMC conditions be ordered 1A?

A

Yes, when it is Mission Essential.

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78
Q

What are the rank requirements to be a CANN Authority?

A

SNCOs, Officers, or Civilian Equivalents. (MSgt or higher)

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79
Q

CANN Authority should coordinate with whom prior to a home-station CANN?

A

Plans Scheduling and Documentation (PS and D)

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80
Q

CANN Authority for aircraft away from home?

A

XOCL

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81
Q

Why are Deficiency Reports used?

A

To identify bad actors

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82
Q

What is the Evaluation and Inspection Plan?

A

A contract with units on what to inspect over the next quarter

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83
Q

What is the rank requirements to be a FOD Monitor?

A

TSgt or higher

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84
Q

What is the purpose of the MSEP?

A

Provide units with a method of evaluating technical compliance and measure how well they comply with established standards

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85
Q

What makes something a Category I write-up?

A

Required step / inspection carded item missed or improperly completed

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86
Q

What makes something a Category II write-up?

A

Readily detectable but not a specified item

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87
Q

What makes something a Major Finding?

A

Endangers personnel or affects safety

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88
Q

What makes something a Minor Finding?

A

Unsatisfactory condition

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89
Q

Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within ____ feet of obstructions without wing-walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction.

A

25

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90
Q

Do not taxi aircraft closer than ____ feet to any obstruction.

A

10

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91
Q

Large aircraft will not be turned while within ____ feet of any obstacle.

A

25

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92
Q

What is Wing and Tail Growth?

A

It occurs when turning a swept wing aircraft as the outside wing and tail will grow anywhere from 3-24 feet

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93
Q

What is the minimum signature for Maintenance and Aircrew?

A

Maintenance: First Name Initial. Last Name & Employee Number

Aircrew: First Name Initial. Last Name, Crew Position & Unit Designator

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94
Q

How must warning notes be written in the 781 Forms?

A

Written or Underlined in Red

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95
Q

How must Aircrew Operating Restrictions be written in the 781 Forms?

A

Written or Underlined in Red

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96
Q

How do you update a discrepancy in the 781 Forms in the 781A section?

A

Line through the discovered by and employee number and print your minimum signature and employee number directly above.

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97
Q

How do you downgrade a Red X in the 781 Forms in the 781A section?

A

Entered in the corrective action, “Symbol downgraded from a Red X to a Red / IAW 00-20-1 para XXXX. See page XX item XX.

In the next open 781A discrepancy block enter, “Updated discrepancy followed by Symbol downgraded from a Red X to a Red / on 2019XXXX by XXXX.

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98
Q

If an operational check or leak check cannot be completed concurrently or immediately following a maintenance action, what must the technician do?

A

Write up the operational or leak check with the appropriate T.O reference in the next open discrepancy block.

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99
Q

Where must a technician look to verify/confirm if the status of the day is correct?

A

The 781A and 781K. (Highest Symbol)

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100
Q

How do you signify that no known discrepancies or conditions exists on the 781H?

A

Enter a Black Letter Initial in the Status Today Block

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101
Q

What is an Exceptional Release (ER)?

A

An ER serves as a certification that the authorized individual who enters their minimum signature has reviewed the active forms to ensure that the aerospace vehicle is safe for flight

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102
Q

Who is authorized to sign an Exceptional Release (ER)?

A

Individuals approved by the MXG/CC

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103
Q

What is the rank requirements to sign an Exceptional Release (ER)?

A

Maintenance Officers, SNCOs, or Civilian Equivalents

104
Q

If after a thorough review, the MXG/CC has determined that local conditions require the assignment of other than Maintenance Officers, SNCOs, or their Civilian Equivalents to sign the Exceptional Release (ER), the MXG/CC must forward a waiver request to whom for approval?

A

Major Command (MAJCOM)

105
Q

When designated personnel are not available to sign an Exceptional Release (ER), whom may do so?

A

The Aircraft Commander (A/C)

106
Q

When an Exceptional Release (ER) is signed by the pilot, it will only be affective for which flights?

A

Flights in which the releasing pilot participates

107
Q

How will an Exceptional Release (ER) be signed off in the 781 Forms?

A

A Red Line must be drawn under the last entry on the 781A with the person’s initials at the left margin beside the Red Line. Afterwards, the releaser will enter their minimum signature in Block 6 (Status Today) located on the 781H

108
Q

What must occur if new red symbol entries are recorded on the 781A?

A

A new line will be drawn under the last item.

If the status does not change the ER/CR, nothing is required on the 781H. (Only the Red Line will be updated on the 781A)

109
Q

If a new entry is recorded on the 781A which does not change the status but the individual signing off the Exceptional Release (ER) / Conditional Release (CR) changes, what must be done?

A

The new individual must enter their minimum signature on the 781H. (Initials on the 781H and 781A must match)

110
Q

What allows an aircraft to fly although a discrepancy exists which restricts capabilities?

A

Conditional Release (CR)

111
Q

How is a Conditional Release (CR) entered on the 781H?

A

When a Conditional Release (CR) is granted, the conditions of the release will be described by an appropriate entry in the 781A. Additionally, in the next open line after the Exceptional Release signature, enter “Conditional See 781A pg___ item ___

112
Q

Who has the ability to approve a discrepancy to be downgraded for a one-time flight? (Owning)

A

MXG/CC

113
Q

What GO81 screen will be used to document all mission limiting discrepancies that cannot be worked?

A

Screen 9146

114
Q

What document does Aircrew utilize that lists the minimum equipment/systems to operate the aircraft?

A

Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

115
Q

If a discrepancy was discovered during flight, when does maintenance status start?

A

At the time the aircraft returns to parking spot/engine shutdown

116
Q

If a discrepancy was discovered during ground operations, when does maintenance status start?

A

At the time the discrepancy was discovered

117
Q

If In Flight Operation Checks (IFOCs) are required, when will maintenance status stop?

A

At the time everything leading up to the operations check is completed

118
Q

During a Functional Check Flight (FCF), when will maintenance status stop?

A

At the time the Functional Check Flight (FCF) is complete (Aircraft lands)

119
Q

When does Supply time start? (When a lack of a part is determined and when…

A

A demand is placed on the Supply System

120
Q

When does Supply time stop?

A

When Maintenance receives the requested part

121
Q

What is QRC an acronym for?

A

Quick-Response Checklist (QRC)

122
Q

How often must a Quick Response Checklist (QRC) be reviewed by the MXG/CC?

A

Annually

123
Q

What is ETIC an acronym for?

A

Estimated Time In Commission (ETIC)

124
Q

If in Transient status and the aircrew desires omission of an inspection even though the required resources are available, what must happen?

A

The aircrew will make an entry on the AFTO Form 781A stating the reason for their decision. The aircrew will sign the exceptional release. A duplicate of the AFTO Forms 781A and 781H will be made, and will be retained by the Transient Alert (TA) supervisor for not less than 90 days and disposed of in accordance with AFMAN 33-363.

125
Q

How do you clear a discrepancy that was Previously Complied With (PCW)?

A

Print “PCW, see forms dated FROM___, TO___ (from the old forms), Page ___, Item ___,” in the CORRECTIVE ACTION block of the new set of forms. The individual will then enter their minimum signature in the CORRECTED BY block and initial over the symbol in the SYM block. A Red X PCW discrepancy does not require a Red X qualified individual since there is no maintenance action

126
Q

When a Red symbol ( / or -) is entered in error, the individual discovering the incorrect entry will enter what statement in the CORRECTIVE ACTION block?

A

“Symbol entered in error, discrepancy and correct symbol reentered on page ____, item ____” or “Symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exists,” and enter their minimum signature requirements in the CORRECTED BY or INSPECTED BY blocks as applicable and initial over the symbol.

127
Q

What is TPFDD an acronym for?

A

Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD)

128
Q

What is CETS an acronym for?

A

Contract Engineering Technical Support (CETS)

129
Q

What is LCOM an acronym for?

A

Logistics Composite Model (LCOM)

130
Q

What are the three components of the LCOM?

A
  • Maintenance
  • Supply
  • Operations
131
Q

What is PAA an acronym for?

A

Primary Assigned Aircraft (PAA)

132
Q

What are MPA (Man-Days)?

A

Places ANG or AFRC members on temporary duty

133
Q

What is the minimum rest period for personnel?

A

Opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep in a 24 hour period

134
Q

What is the maximum length personnel can be TDY for?

A

180 days (consecutive) to any one location in a 12 month period

135
Q

How much compensation time is authorized for TDY’s 45 days or longer and 90 days or longer?

A

45 days - 7 days (3 special and 4 unscheduled)

90 days - 14 days (4 special and 10 unscheduled)

136
Q

Who is responsible for managing leave?

A

The member

137
Q

Aircraft Generation:
AF 2408 _____
AF 2409 _____

A
  • Big Picture

- Actions required for a specific line mission

138
Q

Due to the inherit danger to life, limb, and property associated with maintenance operations, personnel are empowered to terminate an operation or situation which they perceive is unsafe or too dangerous.

What is this referred to in maintenance?

A

Knock It Off

139
Q

Mishap Reporting:

  • Class A _____
  • Class B _____
  • Class C _____
  • Class D _____
  • Class E _____
A
  • $2M +
  • $500K - $2M
  • $50K - $500K
  • $20K - $50K
  • Does not meet reportable mishap classification criteria
140
Q

When maintenance places an MC aerospace vehicle into scheduled maintenance on the printed flying schedule/maintenance plan, the status changes only if it is determined that maintenance cannot, and will not return the aerospace vehicle to a MC status within _____ hours.

A

2

141
Q

Units will report the WUC/LCNs for the mission limiting condition that will take the _____ for maintenance to correct on an aerospace vehicle in PMC and NMC status.

A

Longest (Pacing Item)

142
Q

Plans Scheduling and Documentation usually helps Maintenance units submit the AFTO 103 approximately how many days before Depot input?

A

60

143
Q

What is the AFTO 103 used for?

A

Depot Input Request

144
Q

Provides worldwide strategic global support for USTRANSCOM.

A

En Route

145
Q

Acceptance/Transfer Inspection time normally ranges between how many days depending on airframe?

A

48 - 72 hours

146
Q

Plans Scheduling and Documentation usually helps Maintenance units submit the AFTO Form 103 approximately how many days before Depot input?

A

60

147
Q

Has primary responsibility for its unit members and retains principal responsibility for weapons system or systems.

A

Sponsor Organization

148
Q

Has primary responsibility for its unit members but shares the weapon system or systems assigned to the host.

A

Associate Organization

149
Q

Regular Air Force unit is the host and shares with a Reserve unit.

A

Classic Association

150
Q

Reserve component is the host and shares with RegAF unit.

A

Active Associate

151
Q

Satisfy short-term engineering service requirements for on-site engineering support.

A

Contract Engineering Technical Support (CETS)

152
Q

Satisfy long-term requirements for on-site field engineering support.

A

Air Force Engineering and Technical Services (AFETS)

153
Q

What is PIC an acronym for?

A

Purpose Identifier Codes

154
Q

What possession code should not exceed 48 hours?

A

BT (Transfer)

155
Q

Deal with fleet-wide maintenance issues affecting specific weapons systems.

A

Weapons System Managers (WSM)

156
Q

AMC / AO4 Logistics Operations is AMC’s POC for what missions?

A
  • OPLAN exercises
  • Presidential Support
  • Contingency and theater mobility aircraft maintenance deployments
157
Q

Who sources, tasks, and manages deployed personnel and equipment for “Demand Force Team” taskings?

A

A4O

158
Q

What is XOCL and acronym for?

A

Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)

159
Q

Who provides expeditious logistics support for AMC and AMC-gained aircraft with NMC or Mission Essential (ME) discrepancies?

A

618 AOC (TACC) XOCL

160
Q

CANNs from AFRC and ANG is _____ ?

A

Restricted

161
Q

MRT starts work _____ upon arrival; _____ hour duty day authorized the first day for travel time. Duty day starts at the time of _____ report for duty at home-station.

A
  • Immediately
  • 16
  • Initial
162
Q

MRT normal work/rest periods are _____ hours followed by _____ hours rest. At a minimum, MRT members are provided the opportunity for _____ hours of uninterrupted sleep.

A
  • 12
  • 12
  • 8
163
Q

MRT must report work status every _____ hours or upon expiration of current ETIC.

A

6

164
Q

Civilian Performance Program is normally conducted within _____ days of assignment. Appraisal periods run 1 _____ through 31 _____.

A
  • 30

- April / March

165
Q

Right to union representation. (Civilians)

A

Weingarten Rights

166
Q

What are the four disciplinary actions for civilian personnel?

A

Oral Admonishment, Written Reprimand, Suspension, and Removal

167
Q

FMC

A

Full Mission Capable

168
Q

PMCB

A

Partial Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply

169
Q

PMCM

A

Partial Mission Capable Maintenance

170
Q

PMCS

A

Partial Mission Capable Supply

171
Q

NMCA

A

Not Mission Capable Airworthy

172
Q

NMCB

A

Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply

173
Q

NMCBA

A

Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Airworthy

174
Q

NMCBS

A

Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Scheduled

175
Q

NMCBU

A

Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Unscheduled

176
Q

NMCBSA

A

Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Scheduled Airworthy

177
Q

NMCBUA

A

Not Mission Capable Both Maintenance and Supply Unscheduled Airworthy

178
Q

NMCM

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance

179
Q

NMCMA

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance Airworthy

180
Q

NMCMS

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance Scheduled

181
Q

NMCMU

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance Unscheduled

182
Q

NMCMSA

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance Scheduled Airworthy

183
Q

NMCMUA

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance Unscheduled Airworthy

184
Q

NMCS

A

Not Mission Capable Supply

185
Q

NMCSA

A

Not Mission Capable Supply Airworthy

186
Q

The overall responsibility for correct and timely deviation reporting rests with who?

A

The Unit Commander

187
Q

The primary deviation code is the _____ event in the sequence of events that directly leads to the mission departing in delay. (Meaning an event from which unit actions cannot recover).

A

First

188
Q

Red Ball maintenance normally occurs _____ hours prior to launch and until aircrew have released the aircraft back to maintenance.

A

2

189
Q

Administrative actions taken to prohibit aircraft from flying because of a special condition.

A

Aircraft Grounding

190
Q

Owning _____ will direct QA to develop local One Time Inspections (OTI).

A

MXG/CC

191
Q

Annotate local OTI in forms on a Red _____ and grounding discrepancies on a Red _____.

A
  • Dash

- X

192
Q

Who has the authority to ground all aircraft assigned to their base?

A

Wg/CC

193
Q

Who will determine if the risk is significant to ground all like MDS aircraft?

A

AMC/A4

194
Q

What program is required by Public Law 99-661 that a preflight safety inspection of all internationally scheduled charter missions for the transportation of members of the Armed Forces.

A

Ramp Inspection Program

195
Q

MAJCOM OPR for the Ramp Inspection Program is HQ AMC/_____.

A

A4MP

196
Q

Ramp Inspection Program:

_____% of internationally scheduled charters are inspected. _____% for domestic /SAAM chartered missions.

A
  • 100

- 25

197
Q

Ramp inspectors will complete AMC Form _____ after reviewing aircraft and documentation and forward up to HQ AMC.

A

234

198
Q

Hangar Queen Categories:

  • Category 1 - Not flown _____ to _____ days.
  • Category 2 - Not flown _____ to _____ days.
  • Category 3 - Not flown _____ or more days.
A
  • 30 - 59
  • 60 - 89
  • 90+
199
Q

Unit possessed aircraft are exempt from accruing Hangar Queen time for up to _____ days immediately following depot repair or maintenance.

A

10

200
Q

FCC Program only applies to personnel assigned to positions on the UMD with a _____ prefix for the DAFSC.

A

C

201
Q

FCCs must fly _____ missions per quarter.

A

3

202
Q

Can FCCs work other en route aircraft?

A

No. (Exemption: FCCs left art an en route location awaiting transportation my be assigned to work other en route aircraft).

203
Q

When does the duty day begin for an FCC?

A

When the FCC shows at the aircraft

204
Q

FCCs will not be required to work longer than _____ hours; must be given _____ hours of uninterrupted rest.

A
  • 16

- 8

205
Q

Who will be the primary decision authority to determine when the FCC begins a rest cycle for the next mission?

A

Aircraft Commander

206
Q

Who has the overall responsibility for the Aircraft Battle Damage Repair (ABDR)?

A

Air Force Material Command (AFMC)

207
Q

Who is the POC for damaged AMC aircraft?

A

AMC/A4MR

208
Q

Units will document all aircraft battle damage on AFTO Form _____.

A

97

209
Q

The _____ will provide local guidance to ensure an effective FOD program.

A

Wg/CV

210
Q

UTMs must interview newly assigned personnel within _____ days. _____ days for ARC.

A
  • 30

- 60

211
Q

UTMs must conduct a comprehensive trainee orientation within _____ days for all trainees initially entering upgrade. _____ days for ARC.

A
  • 60

- 90

212
Q

SAVs are conducted every _____ months for unit training. _____ months for AFRC and _____ months for ANG.

A
  • 18
  • 24
  • 36
213
Q

What percent of records are reviewed during a SAV?

_____% for upgrade and _____% all other records.

A
  • 50

- 10

214
Q

A guide for supervisors and trainers to ensure personnel are training in an effective and efficient manner to meet mission requirements.

A

Master Training Plan (MTP)

215
Q

At a minimum, MTPs must include what?

A
  • Master Task List (MTL)
  • Current CFETP
  • AF Form 797 / JQS
  • Milestones
216
Q

Who must ensure that training requirements and the MTP is developed?

A

Flight Chief/AMU Superintendent

217
Q

Identifies all day to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed by work-center personnel.

Identifies special work requirements not performed on a regular basis.

A

Master Task List (MTL)

218
Q

When can an Aircraft Commander (A/C) sign an Exceptional Release (ER)?

A

When designated personnel are not available

219
Q

How are missions determined?

A
  • Designed Operational Capability (DOC)
  • Mission Essential Subsystem List (MESL)
  • Unit Training Syllabus (AETC)
  • Test Mission Requirements
220
Q

Numerical codes placed next to (or in place of) the X’s in the FSL and BSL columns that identify additional information listed at the end of (or within the remarks block of) the aircraft specific Minimum Essential Subsystem List (MESL).

A

MESL Qualifying Note

221
Q

Who develops and maintains Minimum Essential Subsystem Lists (MESL)?

A

Weapons System Manager (WSM)

222
Q

Maintenance Managers and Production Superintendents are required to attend Maintenance Supervision and Production Course (MSPC) within _____ year of assignment.

A

One

223
Q

Monitors flightline operations and coordinates support and priority with other squadron Pro Supers and MOC.

A

Maintenance Production Superintendent

224
Q

Remains on the flightline to the fullest extent possible, when maintenance personnel are performing flightline maintenance and launch/recovery.

A

Expediter

225
Q
  • Saves Lives
  • Minimize loss of degradation of resources
  • Continue, sustain, and restore operational capability in an all-hazards physical threat environment at AF installations worldwide.
A

Air Force Emergency Management Program Mission

226
Q

Approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2

A

Installation Commander

227
Q

What system does the Air Force use to conduct Unit Recall procedures?

A

Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS)

228
Q

Lack of forces, equipment, personnel, material.

A

Shortfalls

229
Q

Programmed Depot Maintenance (PDM) Roles:

  • Emergency: ____ hour response.
  • Immediate: Confirmed _____ hours and _____ days response.
  • Urgent: _____ days response.
  • Route: _____ days response.
A
  • 4
  • 24 / 5
  • 15
  • 45
230
Q

Provides expeditious logistics support for AMC and AMC-gained aircraft with NMC or Mission Essential (ME) discrepancies.

A

Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)

231
Q

Who has verbal tasking authority over Active Duty?

A

Execution Operations Control Logistics (XOCL)

232
Q

Provides both unit-level and headquarters-level planning, scheduling, and tracking of airlift and mobility missions.

A

Global Decision Support System (GDSS)

233
Q

_____ removal of a specific assembly, subassembly or part from on e weapon system to another to satisfy and existing supply requisition and meet mission requirements.

A

Authorized

234
Q

What AF Form is used to adjust Stock Levels?

A

AF Form 1996

235
Q

Who is responsible for the review of the D23 daily?

A

Section Chief

236
Q

Storage locations established and controlled to store parts awaiting installation and removed to FOM.

A

Tail Number Bin (TNB)

237
Q

If parts in a Tail Number Bin (TNB) are not worked, Supply can pull when needed elsewhere. (True or False)

A

True

238
Q

Who is the focal point for the Product Improvement Program (PIP)?

A

Quality Assurance (QA)

239
Q

_____ will co-chair Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program (IREP) meetings with the _____ on a quarterly basis.

A
  • MXG/CC

- MSG/CC

240
Q

Extension of the Unit Manning Document (UMD) which puts names to position numbers.

A

Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR)

241
Q

Who pays for MPA (Man-Days)?

A

Active Duty MPA Account

242
Q

Maintenance personnel duty hours are to be aligned to provide _____ mission support.

A

Optimal

243
Q
  • Week _____: (Ops gives requirements to Mx)
  • Week _____: (Mx gets back with Ops)
  • Week _____: (Scheduled Mx is incorporated)
  • Week _____: (Plan is signed by Wg/CC)
A
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
244
Q

Quarterly Planning contract must be approved by the OG/MXG/CC _____ days before the start of the quarter.

A

14

245
Q

The purpose of the Post-Dock is to verify that those maintenance actions, listed on the AF Form _____ and agreed upon at the Pre-Dock meeting were completed and documented correctly.

A

2410

246
Q

Plans Scheduling and Documentation will brief the MXG/CC whenever unaccomplished TCTO’s are within _____ days of grounding.

A

60

247
Q

The _____ is a list of required inspections that cover tasks that are complex and tasks affecting safety of flight.

A

Key Task List (KTL)

248
Q

Denotes the maximum number of minors acceptable during a inspection.

A

Acceptable Quality Level (AQL)

249
Q

A _____ is an inspection conducted after work has been completed.

A

Quality Verification Inspection (QVI)

250
Q

A _____ is an inspection not covered by a Personnel Evaluation (PE) or Quality Verification Inspection (QVI).

A

Special Inspection (SI)

251
Q

The Form _____ will be used to document safety, fire protection, and health training unless other specific documentation is specified elsewhere.

A

55

252
Q

Oral Admonishments and Written Reprimands are removed from civilian records after a period of _____ years.

A

2

253
Q

Any time the pilot doubts that adequate clearance exists, aircrew members , if applicable, will _____ to verify obstruction clearance.

A

Deplane

254
Q

Waiver approval authority Airfield Manager will use AF Form _____ for request.

A

679

255
Q

All waivers pertaining to safety of aircraft operations will be forwarded through the _____.

A

MAJCOM/A3

MAF MSPC (1 decks)

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