M7.1 Safety Precautions Flashcards
What is the employee’s responsibility if an injury occurs at work?
A) To ensure that the injury and treatment are recorded in the Accident Book.
B) To report the injury to a colleague and not document it.
C) To avoid seeking medical treatment for minor injuries.
A) To ensure that the injury and treatment are recorded in the Accident Book. (It’s a legal requirement)
What could happen if an employee fails to record an injury in the Accident Book?
A) The injury will not be taken seriously by management.
B) There will be no legal starting point for claiming compensation if complications arise later.
C) The company will automatically cover medical costs.
B) There will be no legal starting point for claiming compensation if complications arise later.
What is Foreign Object Damage (FOD) in aviation?
A) Any article or substance alien to an aircraft or system that could potentially cause damage.
B) A specific type of damage that occurs only in the cockpit or on the wingtips
C) Damage caused exclusively by engine failure or tire pressure.
A) Any article or substance alien to an aircraft or system that could potentially cause damage.
What are the two types of Foreign Object Damage (FOD)?
A) Active and Passive
B) External and Internal
C) Visible and Hidden
B) External and Internal
What are examples of external FOD hazards?
A) Bird strikes, sandstorms, objects left on the runway.
B) Loose tools inside the cockpit and engine overheating.
C) Oil leakage and tire pressure loss.
A) Bird strikes, sandstorms, objects left on the runway.
How does aircraft maintenance reduce the risk of internal FOD?
A) By cleaning the cockpit and runway after each flight.
B) By replacing all parts with new ones during each flight.
C) By ensuring tools are tagged with serial numbers.
C) By ensuring tools are tagged with serial numbers.
What is one of the recommended practices for accident prevention in aviation?
A) Never wear metal-studded footwear that could generate sparks.
B) Always carry loose articles for convenience.
C) Always wear rings and jewelry when working with aircraft.
A) Never wear metal-studded footwear that could generate sparks.
Which of the following actions helps ensure workplace safety?
A) Eliminate the hazard, remove the hazard, guard equipment, wear personal protection, and complete safety education.
B) Ignore the hazard, leave it for others to deal with, and wear no protection.
C) Wait for the hazard to resolve itself and rely on others for safety measures.
A) Eliminate the hazard, remove the hazard, guard equipment, wear personal protection, and complete safety education.
What is the main purpose of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974?
A) To regulate financial compensation for workplace injuries.
B) To provide legal safety protection for employers and employees.
C) To allow employees to work without the need for protective measures.
B) To provide legal safety protection for employers and employees.
What is the role of “duty holders” in the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974?
A) Duty holders are responsible for ensuring safety for themselves and others.
B) Duty holders are exempt from following safety regulations.
C) Duty holders are only responsible for financial compensation in the event of an accident.
A) Duty holders are responsible for ensuring safety for themselves and others.
Which of the following does the HSE do to manage workplace risks?
A) Providing advice, guidance, and raising awareness.
B) Only investigating accidents after they happen.
C) Offering only legal services to businesses.
A) Providing advice, guidance, and raising awareness.
What is the legal status of Approved Codes of Practice (ACOPs) issued by the HSE?
A) They are legally binding only if specified in the regulations.
B) They are merely suggestions and have no legal importance.
C) They are approved by the HSE and have special legal status.
C) They are approved by the HSE and have special legal status.
According to the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, what is required from employers?
A) Employers must implement risk assessments and have a written health and safety policy if FIVE or more people are employed.
B) Employers need to only train employees once a year in health and safety.
C) Employers should provide health and safety advice only when accidents occur.
A) Employers must implement risk assessments and have a written health and safety policy if FIVE or more people are employed.
What is one of the responsibilities of employers under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999?
A) To consult with employees about their risks at work and current protective measures.
B) To focus only on financial risks in the workplace.
C) To only provide health and safety training for new employees.
A) To consult with employees about their risks at work and current protective measures.
What are the four key steps in the “Managing for Health and Safety” framework?
A) Plan, Do, Check, Act
B) Prepare, Execute, Review, Respond
C) Analyze, Implement, Evaluate, Adjust
A) Plan, Do, Check, Act
Which INDG guide provides further information on carrying out risk assessments in the workplace?
A) INDG 174 - ‘PPE at Work’
B) INDG 163 - Guide to Controlling Risks in the Workplace
C) INDG 165 - Fire Safety Guidelines
INDG 163 - Guide to Controlling Risks in the Workplace
Which of the following guides is related to the use of PPE at work?
A) INDG 163 - Guide to Risk Assessments
B) INDG 174 - ‘PPE at Work’
C) INDG 177 - Safety at Work Procedures
B) INDG 174 - ‘PPE at Work’
What must a UK employer do regarding the Health and Safety Law Poster?
A) Display it where workers can easily read it and provide each worker with a leaflet.
B) Only display the poster in the staff break room.
C) Distribute a health and safety law leaflet without displaying the poster.
A) Display it where workers can easily read it and provide each worker with a leaflet.
According to the law, what must a business do if it has 5 or more employees regarding its health and safety policy?
A) It must have a health and safety policy but does not need to write it down.
B) It must have a written health and safety policy.
C) It does not need a health and safety policy if it has fewer than 10 employees.
B) It must have a written health and safety policy.
What is the primary purpose of conducting a Risk Assessment (RA) in an organization?
A) To create paperwork for legal purposes only.
B) To assess the risks to employees’ health and safety and identify control measures.
C) To evaluate employees’ performance and productivity.
B) To assess the risks to employees’ health and safety and identify control measures.
When is a written record of the Risk Assessment required?
A) Only when there are 10 or more employees.
B) If the company has 5 or more employees.
C) If the company has 50 or more employees.
B) If the company has 5 or more employees.
- Which of the following HSE publications can assist with conducting a Risk Assessment?
A) Approved Codes of Practice (ACOPs), Health and Safety Guidance (HSG), and Industry Guidance (INDG).
B) Only the Health and Safety Executive (HSE) employee manual.
C) Annual business reports and financial documents.
A) Approved Codes of Practice (ACOPs), Health and Safety Guidance (HSG), and Industry Guidance (INDG).
How does a Risk Assessment help an organization?
A) It identifies the least important risks and ignores major issues.
B) It focuses on understanding how accidents can occur and which risks are most likely to cause harm.
C) It focuses primarily on cost-saving measures.
B) It focuses on understanding how accidents can occur and which risks are most likely to cause harm.
Who is responsible for providing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) to employees?
A) The employer must provide PPE for free.
B) Employees must purchase their own PPE.
C) Contractors are responsible for providing PPE.
A) The employer must provide PPE for free.
What should be considered when selecting PPE for a specific task?
A) Only the size and color of the PPE.
B) The suitability of the PPE for the risks, environmental conditions, and job requirements.
C) The cost of the PPE.
B) The suitability of the PPE for the risks, environmental conditions, and job requirements.
When selecting PPE, what is important to ensure about the equipment?
A) It is CE marked and of good quality.
B) It looks fashionable.
C) It is the cheapest option available.
A) It is CE marked and of good quality.
Which type of respiratory protection should be used in environments with a shortage of oxygen?
A) A disposable filtering face-piece or respirator.
B) A half-face respirator.
C) Breathing apparatus.
C) Breathing apparatus.
What is one method to minimize the chances of developing dermatitis at work?
A) Apply barrier cream to hands and arms before work and reapply after washing.
B) Wear open gloves without barrier cream.
C) Wash hands with soap and water frequently, but no cream is needed.
A) Apply barrier cream to hands and arms before work and reapply after washing.
What does PUWER stand for, and when was it introduced?
A) Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
B) Personal Use of Workplace Equipment Regulations 1998
C) Provision and Use of Workplace Environment Regulations 1988
A) Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
Under PUWER, what is required to ensure work equipment is safe for use?
A) It must be suitable for the intended use, maintained, and inspected.
B) It only needs to be checked once every few years.
C) It should only be used by employees who have basic knowledge of the equipment.
A) It must be suitable for the intended use, maintained, and inspected.
What does PUWER require for equipment used at work?
A) It must be accompanied by protective devices such as guarding and emergency stop controls.
B) It should be used by anyone, regardless of training.
C) It must be stored in a separate location when not in use.
A) It must be accompanied by protective devices such as guarding and emergency stop controls.
Which of the following types of equipment must comply with additional health and safety regulations in addition to PUWER?
A) Only machinery in the workshop.
B) Lifting equipment, pressure equipment, and personal protective equipment (PPE).
C) Office furniture and non-mechanical tools.
B) Lifting equipment, pressure equipment, and personal protective equipment (PPE).
What is required before using work equipment according to PUWER?
A) Employees must receive adequate information, instruction, and training.
B) Equipment must be provided by the employer, but no specific training is required.
C) Work equipment can be used immediately without prior training.
A) Employees must receive adequate information, instruction, and training.
What does LOLER stand for?
A) Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations (1998)
B) Lifting Operations and Load Equipment Regulations (1988)
C) Lifting Operations and Logistics Equipment Regulations (1988)
A) Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations
Under LOLER, who is responsible for keeping records of the “thorough examination” of lifting equipment?
A) The operator who uses the equipment.
B) The person responsible for the equipment and the relevant enforcing authority.
C) Only the maintenance team.
B) The person responsible for the equipment and the relevant enforcing authority.
What is required when lifting equipment is found to be defective under LOLER?
A) The equipment should continue to be used until the defect is fixed.
B) Defects must be reported to the person responsible for the equipment and the relevant enforcing authority.
C) The equipment should only be repaired after a year.
B) Defects must be reported to the person responsible for the equipment and the relevant enforcing authority.
Which of the following is true about LOLER’s requirements for lifting equipment?
A) All lifting equipment must undergo a ‘thorough examination’ at regular intervals.
B) Lifting equipment is only required to be inspected if it looks worn out.
C) Lifting equipment must be inspected only once during its lifetime.
A) All lifting equipment must undergo a ‘thorough examination’ at regular intervals.
What does COSHH stand for?
A) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
B) Control of Safety and Hazardous Operations
C) Chemicals of Safety and Health Operations
A) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
Which of the following is NOT a harmful substance covered by COSHH regulations?
A) Airborne dust and fumes
B) Cleaning fluids and chemicals
C) Safe drinking water
C) Safe drinking water
What does INDG 136 primarily provide guidance on?
A) How to perform a risk assessment for workplace accidents
B) How to control hazardous substances at work
C) How to use personal protective equipment (PPE)
B) How to control hazardous substances at work
What is the primary purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) To perform a risk assessment for hazardous substances
B) To provide information on the hazards of chemicals and how to use them safely
C) To replace the need for personal protective equipment (PPE)
B) To provide information on the hazards of chemicals and how to use them safely
Under which regulation is the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) required in the UK?
A) The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations
B) The Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
C) The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations (PUWER)
A) The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations
What information is typically found in a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) Emergency response procedures and chemical hazards
B) Detailed pricing and purchase information for chemicals
C) Work schedules and personnel details
A) Emergency response procedures and chemical hazards
What is the main purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) To help employers and workers assess and manage the risks of hazardous chemicals
B) To provide a list of suppliers for chemicals used in the workplace
C) To track the chemical inventory in the workplace
A) To help employers and workers assess and manage the risks of hazardous chemicals
How many sections are there in a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
C) 16
What are the four types of hazards identified in a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) Physical, chemical, electrical, biological
B) Health, fire, reactivity, environmental
C) Toxicity, corrosion, biohazard, explosive
B) Health, fire, reactivity, environmental
How often should a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) be updated?
A) Every year
B) Every two years
C) Every three years, unless significant new data is available
C) Every three years, unless significant new data is available
What does an MSDS typically provide for handling chemicals?
A) Information on local legislation
B) A general summary of hazards and safety measures
C) A detailed chemical analysis
B) A general summary of hazards and safety measures
What does “MHOR” stand for, and when was it introduced?
A) Manual Handling Operations Regulations, 1992
B) Manual Handling Occupational Risk, 1992
C) Material Handling Operational Requirements, 1991
A) Manual Handling Operations Regulations, 1992
What does “manual handling” refer to?
A) Using machinery to lift or move a load
B) Moving or supporting a load by hand or bodily force
C) Operating a vehicle to transport goods
B) Moving or supporting a load by hand or bodily force
What is one way to reduce the risk of injury from manual handling?
A) Avoid lifting from floor level or above shoulder height, especially heavy loads
B) Carrying heavier loads at a faster pace
C) Avoid using lifting aids such as forklifts or hoists
A) Avoid lifting from floor level or above shoulder height, especially heavy loads
What does the guidance on manual handling explain?
A) How to avoid, assess, and reduce the risk of injury from manual handling
B) How to carry out manual handling tasks as quickly as possible
C) How to handle hazardous materials only
A) How to avoid, assess, and reduce the risk of injury from manual handling
According to the regulations, which of the following is a recommended technique to avoid injury during manual handling?
A) Lifting from floor level to shoulder height
B) Reducing the amount of twisting, stooping, and reaching
C) Increasing the carrying distance
B) Reducing the amount of twisting, stooping, and reaching
In what year were The Electricity at Work Regulations introduced?
A) 1987
B) 1989
C) 1992
B) 1989
Which of the following is a precaution when working with electricity?
A) Use electrical tools even in wet areas
B) Only use electrical cables that are frayed
C) Never handle electrical equipment with wet hands or feet
C) Never handle electrical equipment with wet hands or feet
When working in hazardous areas, such as fuel tanks, what type of electrical equipment should be used?
A) Standard electrical equipment
B) Explosion-proof electrical equipment
C) Unapproved electrical equipment
B) Explosion-proof electrical equipment
What should you avoid when working with electrical cables?
A) Trailing them through oil, water, or other liquids
B) Securing them with duct tape
C) Running them above shoulder height
A) Trailing them through oil, water, or other liquids
What is the first precaution to take when working on aircraft electrical systems?
A) Place warning signs at external power receptacles
B) Disconnect the aircraft battery
C) Pull and tag all relevant circuit breakers (CBs)
B) Disconnect the aircraft battery
Why must compressed gas containers be treated with extreme caution?
A) They contain high levels of kinetic energy
B) They can only be used for a limited time
C) They are flammable
A) They contain high levels of kinetic energy
What must be fitted to compressed gas bottles when not in use?
A) Safety goggles
B) Protective caps to protect the valve assemblies
C) Pressure gauges
B) Protective caps to protect the valve assemblies
What must be within test dates when using compressed gas bottles?
A) The safety valves
B) The storage containers
C) The containers’ ‘safe life’
C) The containers’ ‘safe life’
What should be done before charging an aircraft system with a compressed gas like Oxygen or Nitrogen?
A) Charge the system slowly to avoid pressure spikes
B) Purge the hose on the gas bottles to discharge contaminants
C) Check the aircraft system for leaks
B) Purge the hose on the gas bottles to discharge contaminants
When charging aircraft systems, what should you check about the pressure gauges?
A) They are within their calibration date.
B) They are set to any units of measurement.
C) They are turned off after use.
A) They are within their calibration date.
At what pressure is compressed air typically supplied in the workshop?
A) 50 psi
B) 80 psi
C) 100 psi
B) 80 psi
What is the minimum pressure at which compressed air can pose a severe hazard to personnel?
A) 5 psi
B) 12 psi
C) 25 psi
B) 12 psi
What should you never do when using compressed air?
A) Point compressed air tools at people
B) Use compressed air to clean clothing
C) Use compressed air on machinery
A) Point compressed air tools at people
What can happen if compressed air is directed into the skin?
A) It can cause an air embolism in the bloodstream
B) It can cause a severe allergic reaction
C) It can cause internal bleeding in the muscles
A) It can cause an air embolism in the bloodstream
What should never come into contact with oxygen to avoid the risk of fire or explosion, including spontaneous combustion?
A) Water
B) Oils and greases
C) Paints
B) Oils and greases
Why must smoking be avoided immediately after working with oxygen systems?
A) The clothing can absorb oxygen and ignite from a naked flame
B) Smoking can damage the oxygen equipment
C) Smoking releases chemicals that react with oxygen
A) The clothing can absorb oxygen and ignite from a naked flame
What type of tools should be used when working on oxygen systems?
A) Any standard tool
B) Oxygen-specific tools
C) Tools with non-metallic components
B) Oxygen-specific tools
What type of lubricant should be used when working on oxygen systems?
A) Any general-purpose lubricant
B) Only approved lubricants like Perfluorinated Polyether (PFPE)
C) Petroleum-based lubricants
B) Only approved lubricants like Perfluorinated Polyether (PFPE)
When performing leak tests on oxygen systems, which of the following should be used, and which must never be used?
A) Only soapy water should be used, and oil-free solutions must be avoided.
B) Prescribed oil-free solutions should be used, and soapy water must never be used.
C) Any water-based solution can be used as long as it’s applied carefully, avoiding any contact with oxygen components.
B) Prescribed oil-free solutions should be used, and soapy water must never be used.
What is the recommended method to check for contamination in oxygen before charging breathing oxygen systems on aircraft?
A) Use soapy water to check for leaks and contamination.
B) Inhale the oxygen to detect any contamination, such as a rotten egg smell.
C) Charge the system without checking, as oxygen is always pure.
B) Inhale the oxygen to detect any contamination, such as a rotten egg smell.
Which of the following describes a confined space?
A) Any space that is open to the atmosphere with proper ventilation.
B) Any enclosed space with a risk of death or serious injury from hazardous substances or dangerous conditions.
C) Any space that requires no special precautions or equipment to enter.
B) Any enclosed space with a risk of death or serious injury from hazardous substances or dangerous conditions.
What is the primary risk when working in a confined space such as an aircraft fuel tank?
A) Lack of lighting
B) Lack of oxygen and hazardous substances
C) Excessive noise levels
B) Lack of oxygen and hazardous substances
What must be constantly monitored when working in a confined space to ensure safety?
A) Air pressure
B) Oxygen and explosion levels
C) Fuel levels
B) Oxygen and explosion levels
What should you do if explosion levels are high in a confined space?
A) Begin working immediately and ventilate the area
B) Enter the space only with permission from a supervisor
C) Do not enter the confined space at all
C) Do not enter the confined space at all
What is the correct order of steps in dealing with a chemical spill?
A) Secure the space, clean up, alert & evacuate, confine the chemical.
B) Alert & evacuate, secure the space, confine the chemical, clean up.
C) Clean up, alert & evacuate, secure the space, confine the chemical.
B) Alert & evacuate, secure the space, confine the chemical, clean up.
When confining a chemical spill, what equipment should be used to minimize the spread of the chemical?
A) Absorbent socks and booms.
B) Chemical gloves.
C) Fire extinguishers
A) Absorbent socks and booms.
How should a chemical spill be cleaned up once it has been contained?
A) Sweep up the spill with a broom.
B) Use absorbent pillows and mats to soak up the chemical.
C) Leave it to evaporate naturally.
B) Use absorbent pillows and mats to soak up the chemical.
What is the primary goal of the Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations 2002 (DSEAR)?
A) To eliminate risks related to physical injuries in the workplace.
B) To assess and reduce the risks of fires and explosions from dangerous substances.
C) To prevent the use of all chemicals in aircraft maintenance.
B) To assess and reduce the risks of fires and explosions from dangerous substances.
What are the three essential components needed for a fire to start?
A) Heat, water, and fuel.
B) Oxygen, fuel, and ignition.
C) Oxygen, heat, and moisture.
B) Oxygen, fuel, and ignition.
What are the two main principles by which fire extinguishers operate?
A) Excluding oxygen and removing fuel.
B) Excluding oxygen and removing heat.
C) Increasing heat and adding more fuel.
B) Excluding oxygen and removing heat.
What types of materials are involved in a Class A fire?
a) Flammable gases (e.g., propane)
b) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, and fabric)
c) Cooking oils and fats (e.g., olive oil)
b) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, and fabric)
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class B fire?
a) Flammable gases (e.g., methane)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, and lubricants)
c) Metals (e.g., magnesium)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, and lubricants)
What type of fire is classified as Class C?
a) Cooking oils and fats (e.g., sunflower oil)
b) Flammable gases (e.g., acetylene)
c) Combustible solids (e.g., cardboard)
b) Flammable gases (e.g., acetylene)
Class D fires involve which of the following materials?
a) Metals (e.g., magnesium, titanium)
b) Wood, paper, and fabric (e.g., newspaper, cotton)
c) Flammable liquids (e.g., diesel)
a) Metals (e.g., magnesium, titanium)
What type of substances are involved in Class F fires?
a) Cooking oils and fats (e.g., frying oil)
b) Flammable gases (e.g., butane)
c) Flammable liquids (e.g., gasoline)
a) Cooking oils and fats (e.g., frying oil)
What is the current status of electrical fires in the British Standards classification system?
a) They are classified separately.
b) They are included in all other fire classifications.
c) They are not classified.
b) They are included in all other fire classifications.
What type of fire extinguisher should be kept nearby when operating petrol-engine ground equipment?
a) Water extinguisher
b) Foam fire extinguisher
c) CO2 extinguisher
b) Foam fire extinguisher
Why should water extinguishers only be used for Class A fires and not for Class D fires?
a) Water can intensify Class D fires by reacting with the burning material.
b) Water evaporates too quickly on Class D fires.
c) Water does not work well on wood or paper fires.
a) Water can intensify Class D fires by reacting with the burning material.
What is the primary way in which water extinguishers put out Class A fires?
a) By smothering the fire and cutting off the oxygen.
b) By cooling the fire below its kindling temperature.
c) By rapidly absorbing the heat and turning it into steam.
b) By cooling the fire below its kindling temperature.
Why are carbon dioxide extinguishers effective for electrical fires?
a) They cool the fire to a very low temperature.
b) They remove oxygen, and carbon dioxide is not electrically conductive.
c) They form a barrier to prevent oxygen from reaching the fire.
b) They remove oxygen, and carbon dioxide is not electrically conductive.
It also rapidly cools it too.
Which classes of fires can dry powder (ABC) fire extinguishers be used on?
a) Only Class B and C fires
b) Class A, B, and C fires
c) Class A, B, C, and F fires
b) Class A, B, and C fires
They are not used on class F
Which of the following is true about standard dry powder (ABC) fire extinguishers?
a) They can be used on cooking oil fires (Class F).
b) They are safe to use in enclosed spaces without risk of inhalation.
c) They can be used on electrical fires up to 1 kV.
c) They can be used on electrical fires up to 1 kV.
Why are dry powder fire extinguishers not recommended for use in enclosed spaces?
a) The powder can’t be inhaled, which makes it safer in confined areas.
b) The powder can be easily inhaled, and the residue is difficult to clean up.
c) They are not effective in suppressing the fire in tight spaces.
b) The powder can be easily inhaled, and the residue is difficult to clean up.
Foam fire extinguishers (AFFF) are suitable for which of the following types of fires?
a) Class A and Class C fires
b) Class B and Class F fires
c) Class A and Class B fires
c) Class A and Class B fires
The foam creates a blanket and starves the fire of oxygen
AFFF (Tridol) foam is not suitable for extinguishing long pre-burn and deep-seated fires, such as those involving storage tanks. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is more appropriate for these types of fires?
a) Dry powder
b) Foam (AFFF)
c) Film Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
c) Film Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
Wet chemical fire extinguishers are primarily used for which type of fires?
a) Electrical fires (Class C)
b) Deep fat fryer fires (Class F)
c) Metal fires (Class D)
b) Deep fat fryer fires (Class F)
What is the process that occurs when wet chemical extinguishers are applied to burning liquids, and how does it work to extinguish the fire?
a) Combustion, which eliminates the fuel supply.
b) Saponification, which forms a soapy substance that cools and seals the surface to prevent re-ignition.
c) Vaporization, which disperses the fire with cooling agents.
b) Saponification, which forms a soapy substance that cools and seals the surface to prevent re-ignition.
Halogenated Hydrocarbon (Halon) Extinguishers
Which classes of fire is Halon most effective on, and what is its primary method of extinguishment?
a) Class A and B, by cooling the fire.
b) Class B and C, by chemically disrupting combustion.
c) Class D and F, by creating a vapour-suppressing barrier.
b) Class B and C, by chemically disrupting combustion.
It’s most commonly used in in aircraft cabin fires and is no longer produced but still can be used.
What are the two main types of Halon, and what distinguishes them in terms of usage?
a) Halon 1211 (portable extinguishers) and Halon 1301 (fixed installations like cargo holds or engines).
b) Halon 1211 (fixed installations) and Halon 1301 (portable extinguishers).
c) Halon 1211 (used on Class D fires) and Halon 1301 (used on Class B fires).
a) Halon BCF 1211 (portable extinguishers) and Halon BTM 1301 (fixed installations like cargo holds or engines).
- Halon 1211, Bromochlorodifluoromethane (CBrClF2)
- Halon 1301, Bromotrifluoromethane (CBrF3)
What colour is foam extinguisher?
A) cream
B) yellow
C) blue
A) cream
What class fire does fabrics fall under?
A) A
B) B
C) D
A) A
