M2M Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

5 properties of malignant cancer cells

A
  • unresponsive to normal signals for proliferation control
  • de-differentiated (lack many of the specialized structures/funcs of the tissues in which they grow)
  • invasive (capable of outgrowth into neighboring normal tissues to extend the boundaries of the tumor)
  • metastatic (capable of shedding cells that can drift through the circ sys and proliferate at other sites in the body)
  • clonal in origin (derived from a single cell)
  • **can measure transformation in a lab via increased anchorage independence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

multi-step process for carcinogenesis

A

1- susceptibility to cancer is inherited- carcinogenesis is a multi-step process
–accumulation of somatic mutations produced by environmental factors over time

2-an early mutation may be in a DNA repair gene that increases the rate of more mutations
–ex. P53, BRCA1, BRCA2

3- tumor initiation (occurs via mutations in oncogenes and anti-oncogenes)

4- promotion
5- conversion
6-progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 types of genes usually mutated in tumor initiation and their effect on cellular proliferation

A

oncogenes- drive proliferation

  • quantitative changes- overexpression (BCR/ABL)
  • qualitative changes- create a hyperactive protein

anti-oncogenes- inhibit proliferation or metastasis
-tumor supressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 cytogenic abnormalities associated with malignancy

A

cytogenic analysis to study cancer gave first clues to genetic abnormalities in cancer cells and is used in clinical diagnosis

translocations and gene deletions may activate oncogenes or inactivate tumor supressors
-ex. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) assoc w/ Philadelphia chr

inactivation of tumor supressors may occur by LOH
-ex. retinoblastoma and the APC gene in familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

events that can produce LOH

A

loss of a tumor supressor gene (loss of RB gene)

a tumor supressor gene can be transferred during recombination, leading to a gamete w/o the gene

LOH can occur via:
mutation, mitotic recombination, chromosome loss, environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Knudson’s theory

A

2 hits/events needed to acquire a cancer

1 hit-familial individuals already have 1 mutation and just need to lose 1

2 hit-acquired patients need 2 hits to have cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how are cancers associated with both dominant and recessive symptoms

A

susceptibility to cancer is inherited in both fashions

inherited in a dominant fashion: ex. susceptibility to Retinoblastoma

  • heterozygotes are non-malignant, but will be cancerous w/ the loss of a single normal RB gene in 1 cell
  • thus, RB heterozygotes are likely to develop disease and pass on the defective gene to 1/2 of children, thereby making retinoblastoma a dominant inheritance pattern

in reality- cells must be homozygous RB mutated to be malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe how RB gene was first identified

A

cytogenic analysis of retinoblastoma cells showed the region around Chromosome 13q14 often had an abnormal structure

  • retinoblastoma cells from some patients lack RB completely; both copies of RB have been deleted via PCR analysis
  • some patients have partial deletions or other rearrangements of RB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RB protein’s function in the cell cycle and malignancy

A

RB protein is hyperphosphorylated in rapidly proliferating cells at S or G2 in cell cycle, but is hypophosphorylated in non-proliferating cells in G0 or G1

-hypophosphorylated form of RB protein normally functions to repress the entry of cells into the S phase. When RB becomes hyperphosphorylated, it no longer inhibits this transition and the cells begin a cell division cycle. Thus, when there is no RB protein or it is non-functional, cells cannot downregulate their cell division and grow out of control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

RB protein general info

A

RB is an inhibitor of cell proliferation and is therefore an anti-oncogene or tumor supressor

phosphorylation by CDKs inactivates the RB protein, so cell proceeds from G1 to S phase

RB protein is a target for many animal tumor viruses

  • ex. SV40 and HPV
  • these viruses drive a quiescent cell into S phase and proliferate by producing a viral protein(s), SV40T antigen (transforming) or HPV E7 protein, that binds to and inactivates the RB protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hallmark of a tumor supressor gene or anti-oncogene

relates to RB gene

A

hallmark: LOH and acquired Homozygosity for the susceptible gene

Inherited retinoblastoma: the DNA from the normal tissue of the patient or from another unaffected family member often shows a defect in the RB gene, but has one normal copy per cell.
In these patients it apperas that normal, nonmalignant retinal cells are heterozygotes for RB gene but the tumor cells have descended as a clone from a single cell that has acquired homozygosity for the RB susceptible gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3 tumor suppressor genes

A

APC
BRCA1
BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how does APC function as a tumor supressor

A

APC is a tumor suppressor in FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis)
FAP is inherited via autosomal dominant- 1 defective APC gene puts you at high risk for colon cancer, but need 2nd mutation (LOH) to develop phenotype

APC gene encodes a cytoplasmic protein that regulates the localization of the beta-catenin in cytoplasm
beta-catenin is bound to E-cadherin at plasma membrane in mormal cells
APC protein cuases degradation of any unbound beta-catenin in cytoplasm
FAP patients lose APC, so beta-catenin goes to nucleus to produce (over) transcription of oncogenes like c-myc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do BRCA1 and BRCA2 function as tumor suppressor genes

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2- predisposing genes for breast and ovarian cancer
inherited cases display LOH and have only 1 mutant gene
aquired- these genes haven’t been found in tumors, so it’s believed that mutations in other genes may affect BRCA functions indirectly

homozygous BRCA2 mutations get Fanconi’s anemia
heterozygotes get breast cancer from mammary gland losing the WT allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe why p53 was originally incorrectly thought to be an oncogene

A

initially thought to be an oncogene because certain p53 mutations were dominant to the WT gene in producing cellular transformation; tumors were still heterozygous

the explanation was found by showing that the oncogenic p53 mutations produce a mutant p53 protein that can bind the WT protein and inactivate it
“dominant negative” mutation spoils the WT protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

explain why p53 gene is the “guardian of the genome”

A

cells missing p53 accumulate mutations at a high rate and have a higher chance of becoming malignant

p53 prevents potentially deleterious mutations though the replication of damaged DNA, and introducing apoptosis in cells with too much damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cellular function of p53 protein

A

important for cell response to environmental mutagenesis

acts as a transcription factor important for expression of genes- preventing cells from replicating damaged/foreign DNA

required for apoptosis- when cells commit suicide if their DNA is damaged beyond repair

p53 defective cells replicate DNA and produce mutations leading to cancer (mutant p53 found in ~50% all cancers)
-“hot spots”- common areas for point mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

oncogenic viruses vs RB and p53

A

viruses have oncogenes that act by inactivating p53

viruses also inactivate RB protein

destruction of RB and p53 is a major route to cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ex of oncogenic virus in humans

A

HPV Human papilloma virus

HPV E7 binds to RB and deactivates it
HPV E6 binds p53 and causes it to be degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how were oncogenes discovered

A

discovered oncogenes in certain oncogenic retroviruses from animals (chicken)

with 1 particular viral gene segment (v-onc), tumors are rapidly induced in the infected cells
w/o it, integration into host genome occurs w/o activation of oncogenes

method:
put cells in agar, watch for proliferation
normal cells- no anchorage to grow, so no proliferation
infected cells- proliferate regardless of anchorage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

define retrovirus

A

RNA containing membrane-enclosed viruses that bud from cell membrane of infected cells and usually don’t kill infected cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

examples of oncogene discovery

v-src
v-erb
v-abl
v-myc

A

V-src; oncogene of Rous Sarcoma Virus; caused fibrosarcomas in certain birds

V-erb: oncogene of avian erythroblastosis virus; causes erythroblastosis in chickens

V-abl- oncogene found in Abelson leukemia virus from mice

V-myc- gene usually fused with a portion of the gag gene (in RNA); appears this gene is capable of eliciting neoplastic transformation of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

protein products of viral oncogenes-

pp60v-src protein

A

coded by v-src gene is a membrane bound protein kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine residues in several different proteins. The proteins change cell properties by affecting gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

protein products of viral oncogenes-

v-erb-B

A

codes for a protein that is similar in structure to the cell surface receptor for epidermal growth factor (EGFR). This raises the possibility that this protein has growth stimulating properties like EGFR. This receptor is a member of a family of related proteins that exhibit tyrosine-specific protein kinase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

protein products of viral oncogenes-

v-abl

A

codes for a protein kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine residues on other proteins. It is similar to the human gene c-ABL that is found on the BCR-ABL translocation in the Philadelphia chromosome and is overexpressed in BRC-ABL CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

protein products of viral oncogenes-

endogenous oncogenes

A

Endogenous oncogenes are marked c-onc. Notice that c-onc genes are part of normal functioning of human cells, so therapy can only target overexpression, not all of c-onc

Thus- it seems many oncogene products mimic hormones or growth stimulating factors either by resembling natural hormones or by affecting the structure of the cell surface receptors for these hormones.

These altered receptors then send signals to the cell nucleus in an unregulated manner to affect growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

2 changes responsible for oncogene cancerous effects

A

in the proto-oncogene:
quantitative (too much protein)
qualitative (overactive/unregulated protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

why are oncogenes useful as molecular markers in prognosis
2 examples:
N-myc
HER2/neu

A

level of oncogene expression tends to correlate w/ the rapidity of the progress of the cancer

ex. N-myc gene expression used for neurobalstomas
ex. increased HER2/neu gene expression correlates w/ poor breast cancer prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

oncogenes vs tumor suppressor genes:

A

oncogenes- promote cell proliferation
tumor suppressor genes- inhibit cell proliferation

if you have over-activation mutation in an oncogene and an inhibiting mutation in a tumor suppressor gene, then that will lead to cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how bioinformatics about a patient’s cancer are being used for targeted therapy and personalized medicine

A

can design either small molecs or antibodies as therapy

targeting oncogenes:
herceptin- drug antibody therapy against HER2/erb2 oncogene product
small molecs- able to inhibit cancerous proteins, usually by binding to active sties
ex. Gleevac (ATP analog- specific to binding pocket) inhibits ABL tyrosine kinase in patients w/ BRC-ABL translocation on philadelphia chr

targeting tumor suppressor genes:
inject RB directly into RB-negative tumors
use drugs that kill only p53 deficient cells
use drugs that correct mutant conformations of dominant-negative p53 proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

criteria for classifying a hereditary cancer syndrome such as Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

rare inherited cancer susceptibility w/ large range of presentation
must have more than 1 family member w/ cancer (autosomal dominant nature)
usuallly assoc w/ p53 mutation (70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

diagnostic criterai for Li-Fraumeni Syndrome LFS

A

a proband w/ a sarcoma diagnosed before 45 AND

a first degree relative w/ any cancer under 45 AND

a first or second degree relative w/ any cancer under 45 or a sarcoma at any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Knudson two-hit hypothesis

A

2 hits/mutations must accumulate in a tumor suppressor gene before progressing to cancer

1 inherited state/hit is premalignant

ex. breast cancer= HER2, p53
lung cancer= EGFR, p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

function of p53 in response to UV exposure

A

p53 is required to protect from UV- a major carcinogen, by protecting skin- sensor of cell stress
CHK1 and CHK2 bind to and activate p53 to act on target genes to help DNA repair and damage prevention
DNA damage, cell cycle abnormalities, hypoxia –>
activate p53 –>
cell cycle arrest; DNA repair and cell cycle restart OR death/elimination of damaged cell –>
cellular and genetic stability

DNA damage can occur/accumulate w/o functioning p53; p53 is a common chemotherapy target and can have personally designed drugs to activate p53 w/o DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

clinical manifestations of Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease

A

autosomal dominant;
genetic testing can diagnose

high penetrance by age 65
high variability in severity/onset

characterized by formation of cystic and highly vascularized tumors in many organs
major cause of death are metastatic RCC and CNS hemangioblastomas

-cerebellar and spinal cord hemangioblastomas
retinal hemangioblastomas
bilateral kidney cysts clear cell renal carcinomas (RCC)
pheochromocytomas- usually adrenal gland (night sweats; high bp; heart palpitations; panic attacks)
pancreatic cysts and tumors
endolymphatic sac (inner ear) tumors
cystadenomas of genitourinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

classification of VHL

A

based on presence or absence of pheochromocytoma and type of VHL mutation

Type 1: hemangioblastoma + clear cell renal carcinoma
(due to total/partial loos of VHL- impartial folding)

Type 2: pheochromocytoma +/- hemangioblastoma +/- RCC
different combos of Type 2 (due to VHL missence mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

molecular basis of VHL

A

VHL is a tumor suppressor gene located on 3p25-26
VHL protein is part of a complex that targets proteins for proteosomal degradation via ubiquitination

VHL loss/inactivation leads to HIF accumulation, a high rate of aberrant aneuploidy, and disruption of primary cilia maintenance (leads to renal cysts and renal cell carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

VHL-HIF protein interactions and oxygen condidtions

A

interactions are dependent on oxygen conditions

Normoxic conditions: HIF is hydroxylated. With WT VHL, HIF is ubiquitinated by VHL protein and undergoes degradation

Hypoxic conditions: HIF doesn’t get hydroxylated and isn’t marked for degradation. HIF protein accumulates and the transcription of downstream genes that are involved in angiogenesis, metabolism, apoptosis, and other cancer-growth promoting processes and survival under low O2 conditions

**Cells w/ mutated VHL act as if they’re hypoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

pathogenesis of clear cell renal carcinoma

A

Clear cell renal cell carcinoma (ccRCC) is the most common histologic subtype of RCC

Majority of cases are sporadic (4% inherited)
-VHL loss/mutation is responsible for almost 2/3 of sporadic cases

Knudson’s TWO HIT theory is that the dev of VHL-related tumors requires inactivation of the 2 copies of the VHL gene

VHL disease- patient already inherited 1 VHL gene mutation, so they only need one more hit for tumor
Patients w/ VHL are at risk to develop up to 600 tumors on kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

rationale for therapies treating RCC

A

Management of local renal cell carcinoma typically involves surgical resection w/ either partial or radical nephrectomy

Management for metastatic renal cell carcinoma involves systemic therapy
–vascular endothelial GFR (VEGF-R) tyrosine kinase inhibitors, MTOR inhibitors, and immunotherapies

localized RCC- ongoing surveillance- 20-30% will relapse

metastatic RCC- surgery, radiotherapy, systemic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

molecular components of a membrane:

A

lipid bilayers
composed of lipids, cholesterol, and proteins
~5nm thick
serve as barriers to most water-soluble molecs
dynamic and fluid (depends on composition and temp)
membrane proteins mediate most of membrane func

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

concept of membrane fluidity:

A

the degree to which lateral motion is possible among adj phospholipids on a given side of the bilayer.
Some lipids are anchored, some are free-floating within a given membrane.
different compartments of a membrane have different degrees of fluidity.

ex. acyl chains unsaturated makes the membrane more fluid
ex. Cholesterol, when intercalated in membranes, stiffens the membrane and makes it less fluid (Thickens the membrane by straightening out non-polar, hydrophobic groups inside the bilayer)
ex. Membrane composition also determines curvature (size of polar heads and temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

identify parts of phospholipid
sphingolipid
cholesterol

A

Phosphoglycerides: have a glycerol-3-phosphate backbone with 2 fatty acyl chains (either saturated or mono- or polyunsaturated) at one end and a polar head group at the other end. Head group determines which phosphatidylglycerol it is

Sphingolipids: have a ‘sphingosine’ (long acyl unit) with either of two polar head groups (which one it is distinguishes which type of sphingolipid it is) and an attached fatty acid chain.
ex. Sphingomyelin: phosphocholine head group.
These are started to be made in the ER and finished in the Golgi apparatus.

Cholesterol: have a characteristic hydroxylated ring structure at one end, and a fatty acid chain on the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe asymmetry of bilayers

A

particular phospholipids don’t flip from one side to another w/o enzyme activity, but lots of lateral diffusion occurs

Phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylthanolamine, and phosphatiddyinositol are more abundant on internal surface

PC, sphingomyelin, and glycolipids are more abundant on external surface

Cholesterol is thought to be distributed evenly across both membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

2 ways proteins associate with membranes

A

Integral proteins (fully or partially embedded in membrane)- have multiple transmembrane domains (can go back and forth through the membrane)

Peripheral membrane proteins- covalently interacting with proteins bound in the membrane, but not themselves embedded in the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

obtaining cholesterol- uptake and synthesis

A

via ingestion and uptake or synthesis by the liver.

Uptake depends on Low-density lipoprotein receptor LDLR
-Negative feedback loop- sufficient cholesterol in the diet decreases synthesis and vice versa
-Sterol regulatory element binding protein (SREBP) regulates both uptake and synthesis of cholesterol
(SREBP- A protein containing a transcription factor that regulates both LDLR and all 30 synthesis proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cholesterol synthesis

A

depends on approx 30 enzymes

First and rate-limiting enzyme is HMGCoA reductase

  • Statins block this step and are used to lower cholesterol
  • Low cholesterol- transcription factor is cleaved by SREBP to go to nucleus to activate genes
  • -Sensor is in ER membrane, where cholesterol is lowest and changes are easiest to detect
  • -Held in ER until cholesterol becomes low, then SREBP moves to Golgi to get cleaved

3 protein complex

  • SREBP
  • SCAP (SREBP cleavage activating protein) binds both SREBP and sterols like cholesterol
  • Insig- binds SCAP when cholesterol is high, blocks SCAP’s signaling
  • -SCAP signal domain is recognized by a coat protein COPII for vesicles to move from ER to Golgi
  • -As cholesterol conc drops, Insig doesn’t bind SCAP, so SCAP/SREBP moves to Golgi in vesicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

typical volumes of plasma, ECF, and ICF

A
45 L total
plasma- 3
ICF- 27
ECF- 13 + 5 for third space
(incl interstitial fluid, plasma, lymph)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
ICF and ECF composition- mM and membrane permeability
Na+
K+
Cl- (and CO3-)
proteins
water
A

Na+
14 ICF; 140 ECF; (-)

K+
145 ICF; 5 ECF; +

Cl-
5 ICF; 145 ECF; +

proteins-
126 ICF; ~0 ECF; -

water
~55,000 ICF = ECF; +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

2 most important functional properties of membranes

A

Lipid-
“impermeable to charge” and strong polarity
Electrically strong; membrane potential -50mV across 5 nm membrane = -100,000 V/cm

Ion channels and transporter proteins
Channels- ions and water
-Selective
-Gated- temperature; mech; chem; electrical
Transporters
-Big molecules
-Pump (move against gradient with an E source- ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

3 routes by which a substance can traverse a membrane

A

Diffusion- passive movement; small and neutral charged

Channels- selective and gated

Transporters- big molecules, sometimes via pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

4 physical forces that can determine the gating properties of ion channels

A

temp
mechanical
chemical
electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

determine direction an uncharged sub will move across a membrane

A

according to conc gradient

high to low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

determine whether a cell will swell or shrink

A

look at osmotic pressure in and outside of cell

inside the cell:
high osM= cell swells
low osM= cell shrinks

assume ECF is constant and only water can change cell volume; ignore permeable substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

3 mechanisms that different cells have evolved to keep from swelling and bursting

A

Make a cell impermeable to water

Build a strong wall around the cell to keep it from swelling by brute force

Balance osmotic force osmotically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which equation to determine which direction water will move across a semi-permeable membrane

A

Pi= sigmaRT*detaC

sigma= reflection coeff
R= gas constant
deltaC= difference in solute conc across a membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

osmosis vs diffusion:

A

osmosis is diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what substance must move to change a cell’s volume

A

WATER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

reflection coefficient and permeabilities

A

Reflection coefficient of 1: non-permeable
Reflection coefficient of 0: same as water

A different reflection coefficient complicates matters. A molec that crosses half as easily as water will exert half of the ideal osmotic P of a non-permeating solute.

Clinical implications- shock involves having blood go to extremities, and not to brain. You give them an IV of NaCl because it is non-permeable. Clysis- give fluid subcutaneously if you can’t find a vein. Glucose is less permeable, which temporarily sucks water out of cells before it gets into the cells and starts helping them absorb water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

define osmolarity, molarity, and equivalents

A

Osmolarity- total conc of solute particles
Ex. 1 M soln of CaCl2 gives 3osM soln

Molarity- number of moles of solute per L soln

Equivalents- number of “combining weights” of an ion per liter, calculated by a 2-step process
ex. For each ion, convert to mosM; multiply mosM by the valence of the ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

define tonicity

A

effect of a soln on a cell; depends on membrane permeability

Hypertonic- soln that makes cell shrink

Hypotonic- soln that makes cell swell and burst

Isotonic- same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

importance of sub-cellular protein targeting

A
  1. Cell needs to move big proteins without compromising membrane integrity
    a. Thus, transport vesicles (contains cargo targeted for specific membrane-bound organelles)
  2. Vesicular transport- basic principle of transporting substances from one intracellular compartment to another
  3. Incorrect transport frequently results in disease
    a. Ex. Cystic fibrosis, due to a failure in chloride ion channel-protein transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

basic principles of membrane fusion

A
  1. Membranes don’t automatically merge when they contact e/o; maintain separation
    a. 2 membranes coated in water molecs
    i. Need to remove water to fuse the lipids
    ii. Overcome charge repulsion between lipids in order to allow merging efficiency
    iii. Membrane fusion specificity- make sure these should be merging to begin with
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

func and structure of SNARE proteins

A

a. 3 shapes:
i. VAMPs: transmembrane domain at one end, with a helical domain in it
ii. Syntaxin: transmembrane domain, one helical domain
iii. SNAP25: no transmembrane domain, 2 helical domains, fatty acid binding region that more or less acts as a membrane-binding domain
1. Notice different types of each protein, and each only binds to specific counterparts
2. Helical domains of all 3 proteins serve to bind with each other- form an aligned bundle or tetramer with coiled coils
3. All vesicles contain VAMPs. All target plasma membranes contain syntaxin and SNAP25
4. When the vesicle nears the target membrane, the helical domains on the vesicle bind to those on the target membrane
a. These effectively press 2 lipid layers together, squeeze out water, overcome charge repulsion, and promote lipid fusion
b. Helical binding needs to be extremely strong to do this (and it is)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

regulation of SNARE-based fusion

A

a. Enzyme that regulates the dissociation of SNARE proteins: NSF protein
i. 6 form a turning barrel around the SNARE complex and twists it apart, using ATP hydrolysis
ii. Alpha snap is a cofactor; binds with NSF
b. After being unwound, SNARE syntaxin becomes unfolded/denatured
i. N-Sec1 refolds it properly and primes it for fusion, but also stays bound and inactivates formation of SNARE complex
ii. N-Sec1 needs to be removed to activate syntaxin
1. Syntaxin w/ n-sec1 can create that same (but inactive) tetramer core complex on its own (2 SNAP25, 1 VAMP, 1 Syntaxin)
2. Ca removes N-Sec1 efficiently (ex. In neurotransmitters)
c. SNARE cycle: VAMP on vesicle, syntaxin and SNAP25 on target membrane, helical binding and lipid fusion, NSF-mediated unwinding, refolding of syntaxin with Sec1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

mechanism of viral fusion

A

a. Enveloped viruses (ex. HIV, ebola, influenza viruses) also need to go through membrane fusion to infect cells
b. Viruses have a fusion machinery similar to SNARE fusion
i. Only 1 protein folded over on itself antiparallel
ii. Still achieves efficiency and specificity (2 objectives of fusion)
iii. (ex. Influenza virus) Achieved by help of special viral fusion protein
1. Protein contains a transmembrane domain at one end (inserted into viral membrane) and a highly hydrophobic fusion domain
a. Normally fusion domain is folded/hidden within viral protein
b. Upon signaling (influenza- pH change), the fusion domain is exposed and inserted in target cell membrane
c. Fusion proteins immediately refold and causes viral and cellular membrane fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

regulation of viral fusion

A
  1. Regulation of viral fusion
    a. Signaling- like low pH
    i. Influenza is internalized via endocytosis, and is activated in lysosome with drop in pH
    b. Binding to CD4- activates HIV
    c. HIV also has a pocket domain that can be targeted via drugs
    d. Blocking fusion will block transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

relative strengths of electric and osmotic forces

A
  1. Electric forces are MUCH stronger than osmotic forces

a. so relatively few excess ions are needed to counter large conc differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

2 forces acting on an ion moving across a membrane

A
  1. Electrochemical gradient
    a. Chemical gradient (conc difference)
    b. Electrical potential differences (membrane potential from cation/anion imbalance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

define equilibrium potential

A
  1. Equil pot relates the conc grad to the electrical force and is the electrical potential diff across the membrane that must exist if the ion is to be at equilibrium at the given conc
    a. Specific to ONE ion
  2. If membrane and equil potentials are equal, the ion is at electrochemical equilibrium. Vm=Eion. If not:
    a. Membrane is impermeable to that ion or
    b. Ion is being pumped across the membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

equilibrium potential vs recorded membrane potential

A
  1. Membrane pot is a measure of the real difference in voltage between the internal environment of the cell and the ECF
  2. Equilibrium pot is what the voltage diff would be IF a given ion was in equilibrium given a particular ICF/ECF ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

recognize that each and every ion species has its own, independent equilibrium pot

A
  1. Equilibrium pot can be calculated for each individual ion, while the cell will still have only 1 membrane potential
    a. Comparison of these 2 indicates whether or not a pump must exist for the ion and which direction it’s pumping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

determine if a pump exists for an ion and which way it pumps

A
  1. Look at conc in vs conc out- determine which way the ion would naturally move
  2. Look at charge of ion vs membrane potential- determine which way it would naturally move
  3. If these are the same direction- must be a pump moving ions across the gradients
  4. If these are different directions- must compare the equilibrium pot to the membrane potential:
    a. If they are equal- there is no pump required
    b. If they are different- a pump exists
    i. Direction of pump: consider which way the ion movement would move to make Vm closer to E
  5. Pump pushes ions in the opposite direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

number of excess anions vs total number of ions

A
  1. Ex. In a typical cell w/ RMP of -80mV: for every 100,000 cations, there are approx. 100,001 anions
    a. This gives an indication of just how strong electric force is
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

bulk solutions are always electrically neutral-

principle of Electric Neutrality

A
  1. Principle of Electrical Neutrality- [+]out= [-]out and in=in.
    a. Seems contradictory to membrane potentials arising from excess ions
    b. Electric force is so powerful that excess number of ions is very small compared to total # ions present in cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

describe cell’s state of equilibrium

A
  1. The specific ions don’t have to be equal inside and out
  2. Cell just must follow Donnan rule: products of ion conc inside must equal product of ion concs outside the cell
    a. Only relevant to counter ions (K+ and Cl-)
  3. Nernst equation- at equilibrium when electric and chem gradients are in agreement?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

apply osmotic balance, charge neutrality, and Nernst equation to calculate ion conc and membrane potential

A
  1. Osmotic balance: mosM inside and out will be equal
  2. Charge neutrality: can assume equal number of cations and anions inside the cell (and also outside) but not in=out
  3. Nernst equation: E (mV)=-60/z * log(conc out/conc in)
  4. If in a steady state with no pumps acting on a cell, Vm=E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

describe one cycle of sodium pump

A
  1. Each cycle: 3 sodium ions are pumped out from ICF to ECF and 2 potassium ions are pumped into the cell ECF to ICF
    a. Pump action requires ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

equilibrium vs steady state

A
  1. Real cells are often in steady state

a. conc’s aren’t changing, but a constant input of E is needed to maintain this (ATP needed to drive Na/K pump)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

describe how membrane pot depends on relative, not aboslute, permeabilities to ions

A
  1. Dynamic environment
  2. Depends on RATIO of permeabilities (number of channels)
  3. Permeability changes to reach new steady states
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

describe how primary short term determinant of membrane pot is not the Na/K pump, but relative membrane permeabilities to different ions

A
  1. a cell with more Na channels than K channels (for ex) will have a different membrane potential than vice versa
  2. larger cells with more channels are more vulnerable, quicker, to Na/K pump failure than others
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

define driving force of an ion

A
  1. Driving force= at any instant, the difference between Vm and Eion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

describe why membrane pot is sensitive to small changes in K+ out, but not Na out

A
  1. Membrane pot is already close to E of K+
  2. Loss of EC Na+ (bringing E of Na+ closer to 0) makes the Vm slightly hyperpolarized (closer to -80mV) but no other significant effect
  3. Cell is much more permeable to K+ than Na+
  4. Sensitivity to K conc is higher because its starting conc outside the cell is much smaller than Na+,
    a. So it’s much more sensitive to small changes in conc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

law of mass action

A
  1. Keq= [products]/[reactants]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

define pH and pKa

A
  1. pH is a measure of the acidity or basicity of a soln
    a. pH=-log[H+]
  2. pKa is a measure of the strength of an acid or base by its propensity to donate or accept protons
    a. pKa= -logKa
    b. Ka= [H+][A-]/[HA]
    c. lower pKa= large Ka = more dissociation= stronger acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

A

weak acid/base

pH= pKa + log [A-]/[HA]

shows extent of dissociation
pH=pKa when something is 50% dissociated
pH lower than pKa= protonated; pH greater than pKa= deprotoated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

define H-H equation for bicarbonate buffer sys in ECF

A

pH = 6.1 + log ([HCO3-] mM / 0.03 * Pco2 mmHg)

normal= (24 mM/0.03 x 40 mmHg)

normal pH= 7.4

88
Q

define normal blood pH, HCO3-, and pCO2

A
  1. Blood pH: Arterial: 7.34-7.44 venous: 7.28-7.42
    a. More CO2= dissolved Co2 reacting w/ water to make carbonic acid (carbonate ions and H+s), so more acidic
  2. [HCO3-]= 24mM
  3. pCO2= 40 mmHg, or 40*0.03= 1.2mM
  4. Ratio of HCO3- to CO2 is 20, gives pH of 7.4 in HH
  5. Cytosol= slightly acidic; gastric juice- very acidic
89
Q

describe how weak acids and bases work to buffer pH and define pH range of maximal buffering capacity

A
  1. Effective buffering occurs in the range from [A-]/[HA] = 0.1 to 10, or within one pH unit of either side of the pKa
    a. Max buffering capacity is around the pH equaling the pKa (pH changes the least when things added)
    b. Bicarbonate buffer sys is most important regulator of extracellular pH
  2. Weak acids and bases interact in a given range to control pH (existing in protonated and deprotonated states)
    a. Many drugs, AAs, peptides, proteins, and nucleic acids
    b. Important weak acids= HCO3- and HPO4 2-
    c. Important weak bases= purines, pyrimidines, amphetamines, procainamide, nortiptylene, local anesthetics
    d. pH affects drugs’ effectiveness that have ionizable groups- how rapidly it can be taken up
90
Q

alkalosis and acidosis

A
  1. alkalosis= body fluid pH above 7.45

4. acidosis= body fluid pH below 7.35

91
Q

describe activation of IBD during puberty can impact patients’ emotional and social developmetn

A

Not much breast development, missing periods
Uncomfortable discussions with parents; kept it to themselves
Different from peers; difficulties socializing

92
Q

correctly diagnose clinical presentations of IBD

A
  1. Inappropriate inflammatory response to intestinal microbes in a generally susceptible host
  2. No diagnostic assay yet
    a. Idiopathic “inflammatory bowel disease” (IBD)
    b. Rarely bloody stool/diarrhea (hematochezia)
    c. Located in ileum
    d. Discontinuous pattern (skip lesions)
    e. Present in upper GI tract
    f. Extra-GI manifestations common
    g. Fistulas are common
    h. Transmural inflammation
    i. Caused by inappropriate inflammatory response to microbes in genetically susceptible host
    j. Genetic Factors
    i. nucleotide oligomerization domain 2 (NOD2)
    ii. interleukin-23–type 17 helper T-cell (Th17) pathway
    iii. autophagy genes
93
Q

rising prevalence in IBD

A

i. Changes in diet
ii. Antibiotic use,
iii. Altered intestinal colonization (e.g., the eradication of intestinal helminths)
iv. Tobacco- smokers at increased risk for Crohn’s; former and nonsmokers at a greater risk for ulcerative colitis
a. Cigarette smoking is a PROTECTIVE FACTOR for ulcerative colitis
b. About 25% of IBD patients show extra-intestinal manifestations

94
Q

Crohn’s vs Ulcerative Colitis

Hematochezia*****
Location
Pattern
Upper GI tract
Extra-GI manifestations
Fistulas*****
Inflammation
A
HEMATOCHEZIA- 
rarely     common
Loc-  ileum       rectum
pattern- discont.    continuous
upper GI tract- Yes      no
Extra-GI   common in both
FISTULAS-   COMMON    RARE
Inflam. transmural    mucosal
95
Q

identify straight-forward diabetic ketoacidosis DKA

A

o Ill appearance, rapid breathing, nausea/vomiting/belly pain, dehydration
o Hyperglycemia, Ketones in blood/urine, acidosis (low pH and HCO3-)

96
Q

describe major metabolic disturbances in DKA

A

o High blood sugar (>200 mg/dL)
o Acidosis (low pH and HCO3-)
o Potassium may be high or low (typically normal to elevated blood levels
early on, but with risk of falling potassium during treatment)
o Dehydration

97
Q

describe the stimulus for insulin release

A

o Glucose enters the beta cells in the pancreas
increased ATP/ADP ratio
closes a channel to cause rising intracellular potassium
increasing
intracellular potassium depolarizes the membrane
Calcium ions influx
leads to insulin exocytosis

98
Q

describe 3 target site actions of insulin

A

o Liver – store glucose (as glycogen) and lipid, stop lipid and glycogen
breakdown
o Muscle – store glucose, make protein
o Adipose – store glucose and triglyceride (incorporated into chains of fats)

99
Q

describe the risk for cerebral edema in DKA

A

o Cerebral edema is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in DKA
o May be present even before treatment starts, but some treatment factors
can cause/exacerbate it:
 Rapid drops in glucose and sodium from too much or too hypotonic
IV fluid
o Presents with mental status changes, headache, Cushing’s triad,
fixed/dilated pupils.
o Treatment is to raise the osmolality of the blood.  

100
Q

primary vs secondary active transport

A
  1. Primary active transporters= use ATP to do work
    a. Main ex. Na+/K+ pump; Ca2+ pump, and H+ pump on cell membranes
    b. Also some within organelles
  2. Secondary active transporters= use Na+ leak into the cell to do work
    a. Much more prevalent
    b. Can reverse direction, depending on membrane potential
101
Q

define cotransport and exchange transport

A
  1. Cotransport- secondary active transporter that moves different solute species in the same direction
  2. Antiport/exchange- secondary active transporter that moves solute in opposite direction
102
Q

describe conceputally useful idea of H/K exchanger

A
  1. several clinical situations that suggest the presence of a sys that exchanges K+ for H+ and vice versa
    a. ex. Infusing K+ causes acidemia (the K+ is taken up by the cell in exchange for H+)
    b. ex. Infusing acid causes hyperkalemia (elevated K) in the blood
  2. process actually involves several different transporters, perhaps working in pairs or in parallel
    a. ex. Hyperkalemia causes extra K+ uptake via the Na/K pump
    i. also depolarize cells (shift EK in positive direction)
  3. change in membrane potential can affect the rate of activity of the electrogenic tranporters
  4. ex. Tranporter moving three HCO3-‘s and 1 Na+ from ICF to ECF is inhibited by depo
    a. reduces bicarbonate extrusion, causing acidemia
103
Q

describe how cells concentrate glucose inside, even though the glucose transporter cannot pump glucose against its gradient

A
  1. Glucose gets phosphorylated inside cell, which makes it unable to fit into the glucose transporter
    a. So glucose is mostly unidirectional into the cell
  2. Notice glucose transporters are normally sequestered within vesicles in the cell until insulin signals the cell to make those veisicles merge with the cell surface and transport glucose into the cell
104
Q

hyperkalemia and its danger

A

Excess of potassium in blood (outside cells, in ECF). This changes the membrane potential of the cell because it alters the concentration gradient on which the electrical gradient of the membrane is based.
Effectively, this raises the equilibrium potential of K+, which in turn makes the membrane potential rise substantially (by ~20 mV for a 2% calcium efflux).
This is almost universally fatal. The reason it’s so dangerous is that messing with membrane potentials is a good way to screw up action potential propagation, particularly in the pacemakers in the heart– thus can’t get heart contraction signals.

105
Q

causes and treatments of hyperkalemia

A

Caused by a variety of things: massively lysed cells, kidney failure, severe muscle damage.
Treatment:
Can stabilize cardiac conduction system by giving Ca2+
Can get cells to take up the K+ by giving insulin and glucose to stimulate Na-K pump. (Insulin gets glucose into the cell, where it activates the pump to work harder).
If you give alka-seltzer and alkylyze blood, can stimulate proton pumps to get K+ into cells.
Can use cation exchange resins: Effectively, Na+-lined “flypaper” for K+ in the blood, swapping out Na+ for K+.
Can use renal dialysis to pherese excess K+ out of blood.

106
Q

structure of Nav and Kv ion channels

A

a. 4 membrane spanning domains, each of which contain 6 alpha helices (S1 through S6)
i. In Kv channels each domain is a polypeptide
ii. In Nav and Cav channels one polypeptide comprises the entire channel

107
Q

describe aquaporin water channels

A

tetramers in which each of the subunits contains a permeation pathway for water molecules

i. These are “anti-ion” channels since they exclude all ions including protons
ii. Aquaporins are expressed in cells/tissues where rapid movement of water is important, such as the kidney
iii. In addition to the four water channels, the assemblage of the four subunits also produces a central pore which may allow ion permeation and be gated between open and closed.

108
Q

basic principles of channel selectivity

A

a. Selectivity varies from highly selective (Kv channels) to little selectivity (nicotinic AChRs)
b. Determinants:
i. Charge: cation vs anion and ionic valence
ii. Size: Molecules larger than pore size will be rejected

109
Q

role of dehydration of ions in channel selectivity

A

iii. Dehydration: Water stabilizes ions and gives them a larger effective size and also mask slight differences in ion size
1. Water must be removed, which is energetically unfavorable
2. Energy compensation by ionic interactions in pore
iv. Multiple binding sites can increase selectivity

110
Q

Nav structures serving for selectivity

A

d. Nav have activation and inactivation gates, both on the intracellular side
i. Activation gate functions similarly to Kv with positive potential opening the gate and causing an in-flow of sodium
ii. Inactivation gate is open at the resting potential because the binding site is inside the channel, and therefore blocked by the activation gate
1. After activation, the inactivation gate closes, causing current to return to gradually return to zero
2. Gate is formed by cytoplasmic loop connecting repeats III and IV

111
Q

Kv structures serving for selectivity

A

a. S4 helices have positively charged residues (lys or arg) at every third position
i. These structures “sense” voltage
ii. Their translocation activates the channel
iii. Movement of the activation gate is likely a hinge-like opening of S6 about a conserved glycine
b. The S5 and S6 helices along with the P loop form the ion conducting pathway
i. This pathway creates the selectivity
c. Kv has an activation gate on the intracellular side, that rotates around a center pivot point
i. The gate opens when the inside of the cell has a positive potential, allowing potassium ions to exit the cell (activation)
ii. When the potential inside the cell is negative, the gate closes and current stops (deactivation)

112
Q

structural features of Nav and Kv leading to “sidedness” of agents that act on these channels and to “state dependence” of action

A

a. Factors that contribute to sidedness:
i. Selectivity filter near extracellular side
ii. Vestibule nearer to the intracellular side
iii. Activation/inactivation gates near intracellular side
b. Drugs such as lidocaine and TTX can only access their target from specific sides and when gates are in a certain state

113
Q

generic epithelial transport mechanisms for absorbing NaCl and water into the blood

A

a. NaCl: Na+ picked up by the apical membrane (high permeability of apical membrane for Na+) and is transported into the cell, then is pumped out by the Na/K pump out the basolateral membrane. Cl- passively follows the Na+ to equalize the electrical potential.
b. Water follows the influx of NaCl into cells to balance osmolarity.
c. Notice all this is passive (no ATP usage) absorption.

114
Q

basic transport mech’s by which glucose and AAs are absorbed into the blood

A

a. Epithelium in GI tract: AA, sugars, and glucose are pumped (secondary active transport) through the apical membrane and diffuse out the basolateral side passively into the blood.
i. AA and sugars are picked up by their target cells by secondary active transport mechanisms.
ii. Glucose, as mentioned before, diffuses into cell along its gradient (but is phosphorylated in the cell to prevent efflux).

115
Q

differentiate between tight and leaky epithelia

A

a. Tight: more junction proteins, tighter seal between cells. Used particularly in the distal tubules of the kidney.
b. Loose: less junction proteins, looser seal between cells.
c. Tight: “fine tuning”– strictly controlled substance transport at lower levels, don’t want backflux.
d. Loose: quantity over quality (needs lots of transporters, not too picky about equal amounts).

116
Q
  1. Calculate, given two of three variables (apical membrane potential, basolateral membrane potential, transepithelial potential), the third one.
A

a. Trans-epithelial membrane potential = basolateral membrane potential - apical membrane potential.
i. Notice trans-epithelial is abbreviated PD.
b. One thing to remember here is that the membrane potentials of the apical and the basolateral membrane will be different (different ion permeabilities, etc).
c. The other thing to remember is that membrane potentials are always written in the form of describing the inside of the membrane with respect to the outside– ie, in a membrane potential is -10 mV, the inside of the cell is 10 mV more negative than the outside.

117
Q

describe the basic process by which some epithelial cells secrete (vs absorb) fluid

A

a. There’s a chloride-selective channel in the apical membrane in some epithelial cells, cAMP-gated on the inside of the cell to open and allow the efflux of Cl- back out of the apical membrane (which takes Na+ and water with it).
b. This process is driven by receptors on the basolateral side of the epithelial membrane that are triggered by acetylcholine to open those gates.
c. The reason the Cl- channels excrete Cl- instead of intaking it is that there’s an non-electrogenic pump on the basolateral side that uses Na+ leakage to import Cl- into the cell.
d. Effectively you’re putting watery/serous substance out into the epithelial secretions (mucus, etc).
i. This is the basis for cystic fibrosis: the chloride channel isn’t properly implanted in the cell membrane, and thus no dilution of mucus secretions are possible.
ii. This is also the basis for cholera: the cholera toxin gets into the cell and opens the Cl- channel without regulation- which leads to a massive efflux of water out the apical membrane into the epithelial system (diarrhea, etc).

118
Q
  1. Identify four important substances that are never pumped across membranes, but always move passively down their concentration gradients.
A

(water, O2, CO2, and urea)

a. You can open and close aquaporin channels to allow the water to come in or go out, but it always flows along its gradient

119
Q
  1. Describe the main routes of excretion of metabolic wastes - CO2 and urea, in particular.
A

a. CO2, unsurprisingly, is excreted in the alveoli of the lungs.
b. Urea is excreted in the urine after being picked up out of the blood in the kidneys.

120
Q
  1. Compare and contrast the relative roles of the G.I. tract (minimal) and kidney (extensive) in excreting non-volatile metabolic wastes and regulating ECF composition.
A

a. GI tract excretes (in feces) largely things you couldn’t absorb in the first place. GI tract absorbs pretty much everything it can that comes in to it indiscriminately (thus its small role in excreting waste).
i. However, GI tract does excrete dead red blood cells (excreted into the GI tract from the liver), which is significant.
b. Kidney concentrates waste very well in the urine- gets rid of approximately 0.5 moles of non-volatile (nongaseous) metabolic waste a day, mainly end-products of nitrogen metabolism (urea) and protons.

121
Q
  1. Identify the main function of the kidney, and explain how it is designed to do this: “I know what I like.”
A

a. Get rid of non-volatile metabolic waste
i. Mostly urea and protons
ii. forms an ultrafiltrate of plasma in the glomerulus, which contains water, salts, sugars, amino acids, and all other beneficial compounds, as well as the non-volatile metabolic waste products
iii. as this plasma ultrafiltrate passes along the renal tubules, the epithelial cells lining the tubules reabsorb (pump back into the blood) the things that it wants to keep (glucose, salts, bicarbonate, etc), allowing the wastes to pass on
iv. Requires a large amount of ATP to drive reabsorption pumps
v. Kidney also regulates ECF composition

122
Q

explain CBIGK hyperkalemia acronym

A

a. Describes different treatments for hyperkalemia
i. Calcium-relieve cardiac arrhythmias
ii. Bicarbonate-encourages cells to take up potassium by increasing alkalinity, reducing plasma concentration
iii. Insulin+Glucose-juices up energy supply of Na-K pump, thereby reducing plasma concentration
iv. Kayexalate-ion exchanger with high affinity for K that removes it from the body

123
Q

Understand how the passive electrical properties of axons render them poor conductors of
electrical signals over distances greater than a few millimeters.

A

The take-home message will be simply that the ‘passive’ electrical properties of axons (that is, their properties without the special sodium channels) are pathetically, laughably inadequate to do the job. Without the sodium channels, electrical signals can’t spread more than a few millimeters from the site of the stimulus.

124
Q

Describe the positions of the activation and inactivation gates in sodium channels during
an action potential.

A

at rest, the activation gate is shut and the inactivation gate is open. When the membrane is depolarized, they reverse states: the activation gate opens and the inactivation gate closes.
This is avoided because the activation gate swings faster than the inactivation gate, so that when the axon is first depolarized there is a brief instant when both gates are open and sodium can then rush into the cell.

125
Q

Describe why intracellular concentrations of sodium and potassium do not change much after a single action potential.

A

Electrical forces can be large from few ions, unlike cellular concentrations.

126
Q

Describe the role of the sodium/potassium pump during the action potential

A

Ultimately the Na+/K+ pump must be called upon to restore proper ances.
While the Na/K pump is necessary over the long run, most axons can give long bursts of AP’s without requiring pump activity. It’s an elegant system: a large reserve of stored energy (the Na+ and K+ ‘batteries’) can be tapped rapidly and repeatedly, and restored leisurely at a later time.

127
Q

Describe the mechanisms underlying the refractory period of the action potential

A

After producing an action potential, an axon cannot generate another one for a few milliseconds. This is called the refractory period. It can be subdivided into an absolute refractory period, during which time no stimulus, no matter how strong, can evoke another AP, followed by a relative refractory period, during which time a stronger-than-normal stimulus is required to evoke another AP. The refractory period results primarily from the fact that the sodium channel inactivation (h) gates require time to reopen after repolarization. If a stimulus is applied when some h gates are still closed, the sodium channel activation (m) gates may swing open, but no Na+ can flow owing to the closed inactivation gates. Whenever any channel is blocked by a closed inactivation gate, we say that the channel is inactivated.
The potassium channels also contribute to refractoriness. After the axon repolarizes, it takes time (several msec) for the K+ channel gates to close again. The higher K+ conductance makes it harder for a stimulus to depolarize the axon.

128
Q

. Describe the mechanisms underlying accommodation of the action potential.

A

Accommodation concerns a nerve cell’s loss of excitability to a stimulus that is applied slowly, rather than quickly. If an axon is depolarized quickly, as occurs normally, an action potential is generated at the usual threshold voltage. However, if the depolarization is applied slowly, many neurons do not generate an action potential as effectively (some fail entirely); this is called accommodation of the action potential.
Normally, physiological stimuli evoke fast membrane depolarization, so that sodium channel activation gates swing first, and the inactivation gates, being slower to respond to a change in membrane potential, do not snap shut until after the action potential rising phase has been generated. A slow depolarization, however, provides time for the inactivation gates to close first, so that, when activation gates do open, any channel in which the inactivation gate has already closed is useless; it cannot conduct sodium ions. Susceptibility to accommodation varies widely among different neurons. Some fail altogether to give an action potential when depolarized slowly, while others are barely affected
Accommodation also manifests itself during hyperkalemia. That is, the steady membrane depolarization produced by elevated plasma potassium ion concentration closes some inactivation gates. Consequently, when a physiological stimulus arrives, producing a rapid depolarization, inactivated channels are incapable of contributing to the action potential. This is the mechanism that underlies the generation of cardiac arrhythmias.

129
Q

threshold for an AP

A

AP threshold is the point at which the incoming current of Na+ equals the outgoing current of K+ (as Na+ comes in, K+ wants to come out more strongly). If the incoming current (Na+) gets just a little higher, the cell will enter the positive-feedback loop of depolarization.
A more intuitive way of thinking about it is that the threshold is the point at which just a hair more depolarization will probably make the cell fire an AP and just a hair less depolarization will probably make the cell return to normal polarization levels.

130
Q

Describe the positive‐feedback nature of the rising phase of the action potential.

A

If the inward Na+ current momentarily exceeds the outward K+ current, it will produce a little bit more depolarization, which will open more Na+ channels and the Na+ entry process will become ‘explosive’, producing an AP.
Once threshold is exceeded, a miniature ‘explosion’ occurs. Remember, at threshold, not all sodium channels are conducting yet. But the sodium entering the channels that are conducting will depolarize the membrane further, and that depolarization will cause more sodium channels to start conducting, which will cause more sodium entry, which will cause more channels to open…. This is called ‘positive feedback.’ In a few tens of microseconds, the sodium channels are all open, and Vm is well on its way to ENa.

131
Q

Describe how action potential propagation relies on voltage‐gated sodium channels acting like molecular “booster
stations”.

A

You simply could not rely on the passive electrical properties of the wire; you would have to construct booster stations at regular intervals along the wire. Each booster station would do two things. First, of course, it would provide an energy boost to the decaying signal. Second, it would have to know when to apply the boost; that is, it would need to detect the incoming signal.
As we will see next, the action potential mechanism in axons is exactly analogous to the engineer’s booster station; the energy source is the sodium ‘battery’, and the detector is a voltage- sensing gate in the sodium channel.

132
Q

Discuss why action potential propagation is much slower than the velocity of light.

A

Because channels along the whole length of the axon need to open one after another, it is not a “bump your neighbor” type of situation.

133
Q

Describe how myelination increases action potential conduction velocity

A

The multiple layers of myelin membrane form an electrical insulator, reducing the ‘leaky’ cable properties of the nerve fiber. In other words, the effective resistance between the axoplasm and the ECF is increased by myelin. In addition, the membrane capacitance, Cm, is decreased by myelination. Now, however, Cm between the nodes is reduced by the myelin and Rm is increased, so that little current is lost between the nodes and the next node is depolarized to threshold very quickly. Because of this elegant specialization, the action potential “jumps” from node to node; this is called saltatory conduction (L. saltare, to jump). Myelination greatly increases conduction velocity.

134
Q

Describe refractoriness, and explain how it prevents an action potential from reversing its direction of propagation.

A

An AP doesn’t reverse direction because, looking backwards (like riding in the last car on a train and looking back), all one sees is refractory axon – the sodium channels are incapable of firing an AP immediately after the active zone passes.

135
Q

Describe the effect of extracellular calcium ions on action potential threshold.

A

Ca2+ in the ECF normally remains bound to negative charges on the outer surface of the cell.
As the outside of the membrane gets more negative in places, the potential difference across the membrane at those places decreases (ie, it depolarizes), thus triggering the m gates to create an AP without normal signaling.

136
Q

Discuss the effect of axon diameter on conduction velocity, threshold to extracellular stimulation, safety factor of
conduction, and likelihood of being myelinated.

A

thick membranes = low membrane capacitance = faster AP transmission. Fewer on channels = high membrane resistance = faster AP transmission. Larger-diameter axon = lower internal resistance = faster AP transmission.

Myelination effectively decreases the capacitance of the axonal membrane (making a signal go faster, no waiting for the capacitance to build) and increases the membrane resistance (making a signal go farther, no leaking of ions out of the membrane).

137
Q

Hyperkalemia: Put it all together. Describe two causes, the mechanism of cardiac arrhythmias, the mechanism of action
of calcium ion administration, two treatments to increase cell uptake of potassium ions from the ECF, and two
treatments to remove potassium from the body. Identify what CBIGK means.

A

Two causes: The causes are mostly due to K+ escaping from cells, combined with a kidney that can’t do its job of keeping [K+]o below about 5 mM.
Mechanism of cardiac arrythmias:
In brief, there is a master clock in the wall of the right atrium that triggers each beat. The clock comprises a clump of a few thousand cells (the sino-atrial (SA) node) that depolarize spontaneously (and synchronously). When they reach threshold, each fires one action potential. Axon-like processes fan out to all of the muscle fibers, and each AP carries news to the muscle fibers that it’s time to contract. In fact, a kind of backup system exists, because all cells in the cardiac conduction system depolarize spontaneouslcy. It’s just that the ones in the SA node depolarize fastest and so get to threshold first, setting the overall tempo of beats. But the backups make trouble during hyperkalemia.

138
Q

basic clinical features of Multiple Sclerosis MS

A
  1. MS symptoms: fatigue, walking impairment, spasticity, cognitive impairment, bladder dysfunction, pain, mood instability, sexual dysfunction
  2. Walking impairment/ Gait: ataxic, spastic, paretic, foot drop; muscle weakness, loss of balance, sensory deficit
  3. Disabling: significantly impairs quality of life
139
Q

consequences of demyelination in nerve conduction

A
  1. Neuronal damage
  2. Slower conduction and smaller effective distance of action potentials
  3. Proliferation of sodium channels along the axon
140
Q

certain therapies that might improve nerve func

A

Sodium Channel blockers phenytoin and flecainide preserve axons in the animal model of MS.
K+ channel blockade: Enhances conduction of action potentials in demyelinated axons through inhibition of K+ channels

141
Q

structure of nuclear pore complex

A

a. Pore complex: network of large nuclear membrane-spanning structures that control entry to and exit from the nucleus.
i. The nuclear membrane is double-layered; the pore complex penetrates both.
1. Inner layer: binding sites for chromatin and the nuclear lamina (structural supports consisting of intermediate filaments).
2. Outer layer: continuous with the ER membrane.
a. Because this is the case, proteins that are translated into the ER membrane (through the translocon) are only one membrane layer (the inner nuclear membrane layer) away from the inside of the nucleus.
3. Note that the inner and outer nuclear membrane layers are continuous at the pores of the pore complex.
ii. 4 structural building blocks of a pore:
1. Column subunits (pore wall)
2. Annular subunits (“spokes” extending in toward the pore’s center)
3. Lumenal subunits (transmembrane, hold membrane open and anchor pore to membrane)
4. Ring subunits (cytosolic and nuclear faces of the complex; on the outer and inner surfaces of the nuclear membrane)
iii. Very large structures: ~125 million daltons (30X larger than ribosome).
iv. Roughly 3000-4000 pores per mammalian cell nucleus
v. 9 nm diameter channel, but can expand to accommodate larger transports.

142
Q

roles of karyopherins in nuclear transport

A

i. The binding receptors are part of the karyopherin family. They directly interact with the FG Nups or with the cargo itself. Are importins or transportins. Interacts with the nuclear pore complex. You need the receptor to recognize specific cargo molecules for their entry into the nucleus if it isn’t something that always should be transported inside. Helps regulate nuclear entry. Requires Ran binding.

143
Q

role of Ran gradients in establishing the directionality of transport

A

i. There is an energy cost for establishing the gradient.
ii. RanGTP is required for export and for separating the cargo from the receptor upon import
1. Perhaps high concentrations of RanGTP affect the volume of import/export

144
Q

basic mech’s for nuclear transport of proteins and RNA/protein complexes

A
  1. Molecules less than 5000 daltons can freely diffuse through the pore complex; everything else has to be gated in by a specific receptor protein.
  2. Nucleoporin proteins (lots of hydrophobic repeats) line the central pore transporter channel to interact with import/export receptors.
  3. Nuclear Localization Signals (NLS): sequences in proteins that allow those proteins to be picked up by a nuclear import/export receptor. Notice the sequence doesn’t have to be contiguous.
145
Q

nuclear import/export receptors

A

a. Soluble, cytosolic proteins; bind to both NLS on transported protein and to nucleoporins in the pore channel.
b. Exportins export; importins import. Two things: one, they need to be on the right side of the membrane to work, and two, this does take energy (GTP); selective placement of GTPases and GDP phosphorylases on different sides of the nuclear membrane allows a concentration gradient to occur, which helps the proteins to get back to the side that they work on.

146
Q

common nuclear imports and exports

A
  1. Common imports: histones, DNA/RNA polymerases, gene regulatory proteins, and RNA-processing proteins
  2. Common exports: tRNAs and processed mRNAs
    a. Export of mRNA: part of mRNA processing is to attach a whole bunch of proteins to it (among others, mRNA exporter proteins). Without all these proteins, it won’t exit the nucleus. Note that a lot of the nuclear-exit-signal proteins fall off to be recycled as it leaves the nucleus.
  3. Ribosomal proteins: imported into nucleus to be assembled with rRNAs, then exported.
147
Q

explain how changes that impact nuclear transport/NPC components can contribute to disease

A
  1. NP fusions occur in cancer.
    a. Acute myeloid leukemia: 2 NPCs fuse and interact with hox proteins, which can turn on transcription and inappropriately activate some genes
  2. Specific nucleoporins play lots of roles in other diseases
    a. Also involved in diseases of a ging
  3. Post mitotic cells can become prone to oxidative damage and pores can become leaky
  4. The wrong proteins can accumulate in the nucleus
148
Q

3 mech’s of protein transport

A
  1. Gated transport between the cytosol and the nucleus (nuclear transport)
    a. Requires specific receptor protein to carry a folded protein through the pore complex
  2. Transmembrane transport across a membrane from the cytosol into an organelle through translocators (protein synthesis and mitochondrial import)
    a. Requires a translocator protein or protein complex (like translocon)
  3. Vesicular transport in which membrane bound transport intermediates move protein and lipids from one compartment to another
    a. Requires adaptor and coat proteins
149
Q

major func’s of ER

A
  1. Synthesis of lipids- phospholipid, ceramide, cholesterol
  2. Control of cholesterol homeostasis- cholesterol sensor and synthesis
  3. Ca2+ storage (rapid uptake and release)
  4. Synthesis of proteins on membrane bound ribosomes
    a. Co-translational folding of proteins and early post-translational modifications
    b. Post-translational insertion into the membrane
  5. Quality control proper protein folding, protein degradation, and turnover
150
Q

define translocon

A

protein-conducting aqueous channel that spans the rough ER membrane

151
Q

protein sorting signals

A

most proteins are “tagged” with a region (primary sequence or tertiary structure) that forms a “recognition patch”: this tells the cell how to package the protein and where to send it

a. Notice that there’s a specific 5’ sequence that signals that the transcript is going to be pulled into the ER; if it’s absent, the protein remains soluble in the cytosol.
b. The 5’ sequence that signals ER translocations causes the ribosome translating that protein to attach to the membrane of the ER (thus causing rough ER vs smooth ER).

152
Q

co-translational translocation

A

: as mRNA is translated, it’s moved through the translocon into the ER lumen to be cleaved by signal peptidases and folded.

  1. The 5’ signal sequence binds to the SRP (signal receptor particle) in the ER membrane; this opens the translocon and the nascent polypeptide is threaded through the translocon into the lumen as it’s translated (the 5’ signal sequence is cleaved off almost immediately so that it doesn’t make up a part of the final protein).
    a. SRPs: have a multi-methionine “pocket” that binds to a wide variety of 5’ signal sequences.
    b. 5’ signal sequences: variable; often mainly nonpolar.
  2. Notice that the translocon is regulated on the luminal surface as well by binding protein BiP: it can expel proteins as well as admit them.
  3. If the nascent protein is meant to be a membrane protein, the protein contains another region (aside from the 5’ signal sequence) that interacts with the translocon: a “stop-transfer sequence” which stops the transfer of the protein into the lumen– thus the protein remains “stuck” with a transmembrane domain in the ER membrane, one end of the protein in the lumen, and the other end of the protein in the cytosol. The “stuck” protein then translocates out of the translocon for further packaging.
  4. Notice that these transmembrane proteins can span (traverse) the membrane many times, depending on the number and location of start- and stop-transfer domains
  5. As a protein is being transcribed by the ribosome, a signal sequence is translated that direct the protein to associate with the ER
  6. The signal receptor particle binds to this area, stops translation of the protein until the srp binds to the srp receptor in the ER, then it can continue
  7. Ribosome can get attached to the translocon, which opens
  8. The protein is threaded through the translocon channel and ends up properly folded in the ER
153
Q

major functions of Golgi

A
  1. Synthesis of complex sphingolipids from the ceramide backbone
  2. Additional post-translational modifications of proteins and lipids
    a. Ex. Proteolytic processing
  3. Sorting of proteins and lipids for post-golgi compartments
  4. Proteolytic processing (protein cleavage)
  5. Morphology: notice that the Golgi complex can be bigger or smaller (more or less cisternae) depending on how much packaging and modification needs to happen in that cell
  6. How the Golgi apparatus transports protein/lipids through itself:
    a. Depends on the type of things transported. Sometimes it’s by moving them from cisterna to cisterna with small vesicles; sometimes it’s by actually moving or modifying the entire cisterna that contains the material (“cisternal progression”).
    b. Which one used depends on the nature of the material– if it won’t fit inside a vesicle, tend to use cisternal progression.
  7. Notice that N-linked glycosylation is finished in the Golgi: this, again, is a signal to move the protein to a new location
  8. “Proproteins”: proteins that undergo proteolytic cleavage late in processing (Golgi).
  9. One package sorting mechanism: by thickness of the package’s membrane (thicker -> plasma membrane; thinner stays in the ER membrane, that sort of thing).
154
Q

3 well-studied vesicle coatas and describe how they function in vesicular transport

A
  1. Clathrin, COPI, COPII
    a. Coats are assembled at sites of vesicle formation from soluble cytoplasmic components and sort the molecs (proteins and lipids) to be moved forward or backward
    b. Coat formation assists in physical deformation of the planar membrane
  2. Clathrin coats: highly structured and symmetrical, transport from outside of the cell to inside (endocytosis) or lysosomal transport to/from the Golgi
  3. COPI coats: traffic from Golgi to ER
  4. COPII coats: traffic from ER to Golgi
155
Q

key clinical features of cholera infection

A

a. Severe, rapidly fatal watery diarrhea
b. Low-grade fevers and drowsiness
c. Fatigue
d. Decreased urination (renal failure) and dehydration
e. Low K+, Ca2+, low HCO3-
f. ileus
g. Metabolic/lactic acidosis
h. Hypoglycemia
i. coma
j. Skin tenting without lesions
k. Tachycardia
l. Muscle cramps, pain, spasms
m. Abdominal pain
n. Nausea, vomiting
o. Hypovolemic shock
p. asymptomatic

156
Q

treatment ofr cholera

A

a. Oral rehydration therapy or IV rehydration
b. Rehydrate, maintain hydration, feed early to make sure nutrition doesn’t get too poor
c. Overall- replace fluids and electrolytes until the body can eliminate the foreign microorganism
i. Can use antibiotics (azithromycin) to quicken this

157
Q

role of choldera toxin A and B and the CFTR in cholera infection

A
  1. Recall: bacteria isn’t the problem- it’s the toxin that the bacteria secrete
  2. A subunit: active site
  3. B subunit: transport/binding molecule; binds to the GM1 ganglioside receptor on enterocyte surface
  4. A subunit cleaved off and endocytosed:
    a. Binds to the Gs proteins, inactivating their GTPase activity (so always turned on)- stimulates cAMP production
    b. cAMP activates CFTR (CF transport regulator) chloride channel in apical membrane
    i. notice that the Na-K pump on the basolateral side may also be shut down
    c. perpetual CFTR activation leads to massive chloride efflux
    d. the efflux of chloride draws water with it, causing diarrhea
    e. since the tight junctions in apical enteric cells are relatively loose, you can lose a whole lot of water and sodium very quickly paracellularly as they follow the chloride
158
Q

physiology behind oral rehydration solutions

A
  1. Effectively ORS is just water, sugar, and salt (plus potassium and citrate in WHO formula)
    a. Homemade= 8 teaspoons sugar, 1 tsp salt in 1 L water
  2. Small amounts can be reabsorbed quickly; small sips can rehydrate patients even when emesis follows
  3. Glucose helps Na+ uptake (and therefore water retention) in enteric system, also provides nutrition
    a. Notice can replace glucose w/ rice powder, which may reduce severity of diarrhea by adding amino acids to improve sodium uptake in enterocytes (counteract Cl- and water efflux)
159
Q

leading cause of morbidity and death with cholera

A

Diarrhea- non-inflammatory (watery) (small bowel) and inflammatory (colon)

160
Q

what bac and host molecs contribute to the development of diarrhea with cholera

A
  1. VIBRIO CHOLERAE- Gram-negative motile rod (flagellin)
  2. From brackish water (estuaries: river-ocean)
  3. Only infects humans
  4. Acute, massive watery diarrhea; lose whole body fluid in 1 day >20L
  5. Explosive epidemics
  6. Pandemics
  7. Pathogenesis of cholera diarrhea:
    a. Inoculum molec to get past the acid
    b. Cholera is resistant to pH
    c. To help swim- flagella
    d. TCP- toxin-coregulated pilus
    e. Diarrhea itself- CT cholera toxin
161
Q

what molecs are used to distinguish between cholera strains

A
  1. Greater than 200 serogroups (different O-specific polysaccharides cause different strains)- inflammation
  2. Also necessary to function:
    a. Pili- supports colonization (binding)
    b. Toxin – secretory diarrhea; made of 1 A (active) and 5 B (binding) subunit toxins
162
Q

name the molecs that contribute to protection against cholera disease

A
  1. Having the CFTR mutation- heterozygotes have less intense form of cholera (homozygous mutants have cystic fibrosis)
  2. Cholera toxin works via Cl- channel; less fluid loss via abnormal channels or no channels
  3. Heterozygote advantage
163
Q

. Describe the vaccines available to prevent cholera infections and how they provide protection against disease

A
  1. Oral Cholera Whole cell rB subunit vaccine
    a. Killed:
    i. 60-80% protection x 6-60 months with45% protection in year 1
    ii. Dukoral- Killed V. cholera 01 x2 + CtxB
    iii. Shanchol- Killed V. cholera 01 and 0139
    b. Live attenuated: (safe; no CT; efficacy?)
    i. CVD 103-HgR
    ii. Peru 15
  2. Mechanism of protection:
    a. V. cholerae 01 and 0139 have no cross protection
    i. CT is identical
    ii. OPS is different
    b. Antibody to CT increases after infection but is short-lived protection by WC is comparable to WC-rBS
    c. Thus, antibodies to OPS of LPS are the primary mechanism of protection
    i. Vibriocidal titers
164
Q

2 major routes for small volume endocytosis

A
  1. Clathrin-coated vesicles: use SNARE proteins on vesicles to merge lipid surface of vesicles with plasma membrane
    a. Effectively there’s a string of lowered-pH steps in the cell to take endocytosed stuff to the lysosome to be degraded into its component parts.
    i. Drugs can either be active once degraded by the lysosome or be picked up by their targets somewhere in the process
    b. Coat forms, get pinched off by dynamin, and then gets uncoated to show the vesicle
  2. Caveolae: cholesterol-rich vesicles budding from membrane- evidently having signal functions.
    a. Survace of the cell has lots of small invaginations called caveolae; they look like little caves
    i. 3 major coat proteins called caveolins (1,2,3)
  3. These proteins form around the invaginations; help form the cave like structure of the membrane
  4. Also associate with other proteins that dictate what can come inside; also pinched off by dynamin
165
Q

quality control of protein synthesis in ER

A

a. Provide optimized oxidizing environment for folding and oligomeric assembly
b. Folding enzymes
c. Molecular chaperones- ATPases
d. Folding sensors/quality control

166
Q

2 types of molecular chaperones

A
  1. Chaperone protein example: heat shock proteins (Hsp’s)
  2. Hsp70 family: can bind to exposed hydrophobic domains to reform and prevent aggregation as its being made
  3. Hsp60 family: form large barrels which envelope misfolded proteins to refold them without aggregation
167
Q

describe protein degradation, proteasome, and role of ubiquitin

A

a. Protein degradation misfolded proteins need to be trashed; proteins don’t live forever; organelles get damaged and turn over; both good and bad endocytosed materials need to be degraded
b. Proteasome: degrade proteins; dispersed throughout the cytosol and nucleus. Also monitors the ER (proteins detected to be misfolded are retrotranslocated back into the cytosol for degradation). It is a big protein- proteases live in the central cylinder. Powered by atp
c. When you ubiquitinate a protein, it is destined to be destroyed by a proteasome. Put ubiquitin on, activate it
i. Can also be used as regulatory signals (ubiquitination of histones and transcription factors can regulate transcription)

168
Q

funcs of lysosome

A
  1. Degrades all cellular components in an acidic environment (pH 5- due to proton pump)
  2. Targeted via the endocytic pathway
  3. Mono-ubiquitinated transmembrane proteins are targeted for endocytosis and are transferred via the late endosome/multivesicular body to the lysosome for degradation
  4. Regulated at the Multivesicular Body- prelysosomal compartment; vesicles containing proteins slated for destruction bud into the lumen; when the multivesicular body fuses w/ the lysosome, these vesicles are delivered into the lysosome for degradation. Lysosomal membrane proteins (proton pump and transporters) need to be protected from degradation. They reach the lysosome by vesicles that bud from the Golgi and fuse with the lysosome. Defects in enzymes or membrane proteins can cause lysosomal storage diseases (Gaucher disease). Central and peripheral Nervous Systems are especially susceptible to lysosomal storage diseases
169
Q

macroautophagy vs chaperone-mediated autophagy

A

a. Macroautophagy: best studied
i. Formation of double-membraned vesicle (autophagosome) that fuses with a lysosome to deliver organelles, proteins, etc. where hydrolases degrade contents of autophagosome.

b. Chaperon-mediated autophagy; recognition of specific proteins that contain a specific recognition sequence (based on AA sequence KFERQ). Direct binding and delivery to lysosome

170
Q

process of macroautophgy

A

Activate a P13K complex that allowx nucleation of a membrane that will eventually form autophagosome. Regulation of protein conjugation events to extend membrane. Randomly capture, or specifically deliver cargo to the extending autophagosome, then join the membranes to close the vesicle. Fuse with lysosome. Recycle AAs and other macromolecular precursors

171
Q

rationale behind autophagy’s protective action against neurogeneration

A

a. Aggregate-prone proteins (those with expanded stretches of glutamine residues in diseases like Huntington’s disease) will cause neuronal cell death. Autophagy degrades the aggregate-prone proteins (perhaps after they have started to form small aggregates). No toxic stimulus, no neuronal cell death

172
Q

mech’s which apoptosis induction and autophagy are connected

A

a. Many proteins (Bcl-2) that regulate apoptosis/cell death, also control autophagy- remember this could create problems in interpreting results of therapeutic interventions designed to target these proteins. Apoptotic proteases (caspases) can cleave essential autophagy regulators inactivating them and therefore blocking the process of autophagy. In some cases (when starvation-induced cell death) it is easy to see why autophagy would protect; it provides essential nutrients at least in the short term; in others (stress-induced cell death from chemotherapy) it’s less clear why autophagy would be less protective

173
Q

characteristic plasma membrane events of apoptosis

A

a. Plasma membrane
i. Vigorous, boiling action (zeiosis)
ii. Cell tears itself apart, leading to apoptotic bodies
1. Some contain chromatin
iii. Normally phosphatidyserine is confined to only the interior leaflet of the plasma memberane
1. After apoptosis begins, approximately half of the PS is on the outer leaflet
a. Via scramblase
b. Antigenic and detected by receptors on phagocytic cells
c. Macrophage engulfs apoptotic cell
i. Not activated and therefore not inflammatory
ii. Anti-inflammatory by releasing the cytokine TGFβ
iii. Physiologically silent

174
Q

characteristic cytoplasmic events of apoptosis

A

i. Cells lose about a third of their volume in a few seconds
1. In culture, make cells appear to have pulled away from neighbors
ii. Cytoskeletal changes accompany shrinkage

175
Q

characteristic nuclear events of apoptosis

A

i. Nucleus collapses
ii. Chromatin becomes supercondensed
1. Appears as crescents around nuclear membrane
2. Eventually becomes spherical featureless beads
iii. Correlates to fragmentation of DNA into a length of one or several nucleosomes
iv. Degradation by endonuclease in poorly protected region between histones
1. Leads to approximately 300,000 breaks/chromosome

176
Q

neucrosis (vs apoptosis)

A

i. Occurs in tissue with severe and sudden trauma
1. E.g. ischemia
ii. First, mitochondria begin to swell
1. At the point of “high-amplitude swelling”, the mitochondria can no longer maintain ion gradients and therefore cannot produce ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
iii. Lack of ATP causes plasma membrane ion pumps to fail, leading to an influx of water and the cell bursting
iv. Intracellular contents of cell comes into contact with the extracellular area, leading to inflammation
v. Attracts white blood cells
1. Leads to debris removal, injury resolution, and sometimes scarring
vi. More pathogenic than apoptosis
vii. Inflammatory

177
Q

apoptosis (vs necrosis)

A

i. Cell is still viable early in apoptosis
ii. Ideally, apoptotic cells are taken up by healthy cells before releasing proinflammatory contents into body
iii. Seen in cells where death is normal and predictable
iv. Death due to relatively minor injury
v. More physiological than necrosis
vi. Anti-inflammatory

178
Q

most to least apoptosis tissues

A

a. Most
i. Morphogenetic death
1. In limbs, cells between digits to yield fingers and toes
ii. Nervous system
1. Overproduction of cells
2. The cells that make the correct connections are preserved
iii. Immune system
1. 95-99% of lymphocytes undergo apoptosis in thymus
2. Are not selected to become mature T-cells
b. Least

179
Q

intrinsic apoptosis pathway

A

i. Perturbation of mitochondrial outer membrane function, spontaneously, through withdrawal of growth factors, or some other signal
1. Normally membrane is guarded by anti-apoptotic factors
a. Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL
2. In apoptosis, those factors are replaced by pro-apoptotic factors
a. Bim and PUMA
3. Lets proteins like Bax and to act on membrane and make it permeable, thereby releasing cytochrome C
4. Cytochrome C activates Apaf-1, which activates Caspase 9 (signal), which activates Caspase 3 (executioner)

180
Q

extrinsic apoptosis pathway

A

i. Cytotoxic T cells (CTLs) provide surveillance of the surface of body cells, thereby detecting infected or mutated cells
ii. A CTL upregulates expression of surface molecule called Fas (CD95) ligand
iii. FasL engages and cross links a corresponding molecule (Fas or CD45) on abnormal cell’s surface
iv. CD95 transduces a signal to the cell interior, which recruits an adapter molecule FADD to CD95, which activates caspase 8
v. Caspase 8 activates caspase 3
vi. Mutations in Fas or FasL causes autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS), where cells fail to die
vii. A protein called FLIP is proteolytically inactive and elated to caspase-8, which competitively inhibits its binding to FADD
1. Notice viruses such as the herpes viruses (e.g. HHV-8/Kaposi’s sarcoma) have viral FLIPs to avoid apoptosis
2. E. coli can glycosylates FADD to prevent apoptosis
viii. CTLs also can secrete enzymes (granzymes) and pore making protein (perforin) that deliver apoptosis-inducing molecules

181
Q

importance of apoptosis in tumor formation and progression

A

a. Mutations normally do not progress and di via apoptosis

b. Cancer can result with too much growth and normal apoptosis or normal growth and too little apoptosis

182
Q

concept of a cytoskeleton

A

a. Set of intracellular structures that orders the inside of a cell as well as organizing it in the extracellular environment.
b. Specifically: provides cell shape, mechanical strength, locomotive structures, plasma membrane support, spatial organization of organelles, and intracellular transport “roads”.

183
Q

Describe microtubule cytoskeleton (their properties, their functional roles, and their protein
composition

A

all cytoskeletal elets: polyprotein structures

c. Microtubules: hollow tubular structure, very flexible, don’t stretch. Primarily provide the scaffold for spatial organization and movement of organelles, and also the movements of cilia and flagella. Outer diameter 25 nm. Often clustered near the nucleus (used during mitosis).

184
Q

Describe intermediate filaments in the cytoskeleton (their properties, their functional roles, and their protein
composition

A

d. Intermediate filaments: ropelike structure (more details below), very strong, primarily provide mechanical strength to the cell. Distributed primarily throughout the plasma membrane.

185
Q

Discuss cytoskeletal dynamics and the role of certain proteins and drugs in tubulin polymerization/depolymerization.

A

a. Certain drugs interact with microtubule structure and, due to microtubules’ role in mitosis, block cell division (thus are compounds of interest in cancer treatment).
b. Colchicine and vinblastine (toxic plant extracts) interfere with tubulin polymerization at the plus end.
c. Paclitaxel (“Taxol”) binds to and stabilizes the microtubule. The net effect of this is to cause aggregations of microtubules, which shuts down effective function during mitosis.

186
Q

Explain the concept of molecular motor. Explain the mechanisms of tubulin‐based movement and intracellular transport.

A

a. “Motor proteins”: dyneins and kinesins. Associated with microtubules; use them as tracks to drag cargo to target organelles.
b. These proteins convert ATP into mechanical energy by conformational changes.
i. Kinesins: 2 head domains and a tail. The heads contain ATPase: effectively the enzyme “walks” its heads down the microtubule and pulls the tail (and cargo) behind it. By hydrolyzing ATP, the enzyme shifts conformation to swing the trailing head group around to attach in front of the leading head group.
1. Notice that the kinesins only ever travel from minus to plus ends of the microtubules.
2. Notice also that the dyneins effectively travel the same way but only ever go from plus to minus ends of the microtubules.
ii. Tail domains bind cargo.

187
Q

. Discuss the role of microtubules in mitosis.

A

Three types of microtubules in the mitotic spindle: astral microtubules radiating from centrosomes (place centrosomes in center of daughter cell, help pull two centrosome halves apart), kinetochore microtubules connecting chromosomes (plus ends bind to specific site of centromere in chromosomes), and overlap microtubules (plus ends bind to each other on opposites ends from each side of the dividing centrosome).

i. Kinetochore action is driven by “minus-directing motors”: the chromosomes are pulled in the minus direction (away from the middle), and the plus ends depolymerize between them as the centromere separates (thus no remnants left over).
ii. Bare-bones: Astral and overlap microtubules pull centrosomes apart (plus-directed motors, kinesins); kinetochores separate chromosomes during this process (minus-directed motors, dyneins).

188
Q

Discuss the cytoskeleton in the context of disease processes.

A

a. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex: Keratin mutation that affects intermediate filament stability. IFs can’t provide mechanical strength: thus a very slight impact on the skin produces skin lesions and dermal bleeding. Effectively the epidermis is ripped away from the underlying subcutaneous tissue with extreme ease due to abnormal intermediate filament connectivity.
b. Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome: Neurofilament mutation causes peripheral neuropathy. These mutations are also associated with Lou Gehrig’s disease.
c. Kartagener syndrome: wide variety of symptoms (respiratory disease, male infertility, left/right symmetry mismatch, etc)
i. Turns out to be a monocilium (cilia/flagella) defect- sperm can’t swim, lungs can’t clear mucus, cilial direction that establishes left/right symmetry in early gastrulation is disturbed, etc. Problems in outer dyneins of monocilium.
d. Dyneins (minus-end directed motors, can transport into centrosome) often shuttle viruses (which can attach to them) into the nucleus or along peripheral nerves into dorsal root ganglia.

189
Q

Discuss cytoskeletal dynamics and the role of certain proteins in actin filament formation,
polymerization/depolymerization.

A

The two key steps are nucleation and extension/retraction of the filament.
In the presence of divalent cations and ATP, G-actin assembles to form two- stranded, helical filaments (F-actin). Most of these filaments contain additional actin-binding proteins.
Some 60 accessory proteins - a huge number - participate in the regulation of polymerization and disassembly. These include proteins that bind G-actin, others that stabilize,
1crosslink, sever or cap F-actin, and proteins that enable F-actin branching to form MF networks. Nucleation concentration is much higher than monomeric concentration in the cell.

190
Q

Describe the role of actin cytoskeleton in epithelial cell polarity and discuss some diseases associated with that.

A

Actin plays a key role in polarization of epithelial cells. One of the most important functions of actin is anchoring proteins that are involved in Tight junction (TJ) and Adherens junction (AJ) formation. Decreased association of AJ proteins (cadherins and catenins) with actin leads to internalization of cadherins and loss of cell-cell adhesion, the step that is a prerequisite for epithelial-to-mesenchymal (EMT) transition and cancer formation. In addition, actin plays a key role in apical microvilli formation. An unusual type of actin anchoring is observed in brush border microvilli: A tight MF bundle forms the core of these microvilli. All actin plus-ends are anchored in the apical protein cap of the microvillus. Actin bundles are held together by the cross-linking proteins villin and fimbrin, and bundles are linked laterally to the plasma membrane by myosin-I. Loss of microvilli is observed in microvilli inclusion disease.

191
Q

4 . Explain the concept of molecular motion, and the mechanism of actin‐based organelle movement and muscle
contraction.

A

Like MTs, MFs support mechanical activity through the use of motor proteins. Actin-binding motor proteins belong to the myosin family. Myosins (heavy chain) are structurally related to the kinesins and, thus, consist of a head region, containing ATPase activity and actin binding sites, and a tail region. The ATPase is actin-activated and moves to the plus-end of the MF (see figure in Cytoskeleton I and Muscle). The tail region is involved in binding to other molecules.
Myosin II, characteristic of striated muscle (see there), forms hetero-oligomers involving two heavy chains and two copies of each of two light chains. The coiled tails of myosin II bundle with the tails of other myosin molecules to form large bipolar assemblies (several hundred myosins), the “thick filaments” in muscle (see there). The ATP-driven walk of myosin heads along actin filaments results in the sliding-filament mechanism responsible for muscle contraction.
Other non-conventional myosins, such as I and V, are associated with membranes and, thus, are involved in the F-actin-mediated movement of organelles. Myosin V forms dimers to transport cargo within the cell.

192
Q

5 . Discuss the concept and the key steps of cell movement.

A

During locomotion, amoeboid cells go through repeated cycles of protrusion (of lamellipodia, filopodia), attachment (of these protrusions), traction (to pull the cell forward), and detachment (of adhesion toward the rear). In other words, tight coordination between actin cytoskeleton dynamics and cell adhesion is a prerequisite for migration

193
Q

Discuss cell motility in the context of developmental and disease processes

A

Lissencephaly:
This describes a severe defect of brain development resulting in a smooth cortical surface, i.e., the absence gyri. Neuronal migration is a critical process for establishing the normal, complex cytoarchitecture of the brain. Loss-of-function of n-cofilin, an actin filament depolymerizing factor, results in lissencephaly and the associated severe mental retardation.

Metastasis: Most of the terminal cancers are characterized by the spread of the tumors from the primary site, the process known as metastasis. The migration of cancer cells from the primary tumor to the blood stream and setting up secondary tumors at the other tissues is at the core of metastasis. Multiple drugs are being developed and used to either prevent or at least slow-down cell movement as a means of preventing spread of tumors.

194
Q

Describe the role of actomyosin ring in cell division.

A

Actin also plays a key role during last stages of cell division, known as cytokinesis. The formation and contraction of actomyosin ring drives the formation of the cleavage furrow and separation of the daughter cells. The site of actomyosin ring formation and the timing of its contraction are highly regulated events that determine the symmetry of cell division

195
Q

. Describe the mechanisms regulating the establishment and activation of the actomyosin ring and identify examples of
asymmetric cell division.

A

Examples of asymmetric cell division: Red blood cells (no nucleus!). Generation of platelets. Spermatogonia.

196
Q

principle types of plasma membrane receptors

A

respond to water-soluble signaling. Generally work by activating signal transduction inside the cell. 3 main types:

i. Ion channel receptors:
1. Gated channels– usually closed until ligand binds, at which point gates open and particular ions travel through.
2. Ion channel receptors largely regulate channels for Ca2+.
a. Notice that one main type of Ca2+ channel takes up calcium into the endoplasmic reticulum (see “Signaling: Calcium” for details).
ii. G-protein coupled receptors:
1. Cytosolic side binds to ligand; intracellular side binds to a G protein complex (heterotrimeric G proteins, which bind GTP; more on this under “Signaling: Receptors”).
2. This protein complex is normally bound to GDP at its alpha subunit; when the ligand binds, the alpha complex binds GTP instead of GDP and dissociates from beta and gamma subunits.
a. Both the alpha and beta-gamma subunits can serve as signaling agents inside the cell.
3. Notice this allows a variety of responses (different trimeric proteins) to one ligand in a variety of tissues.
iii. Receptor kinases:
1. Often growth factor and insulin receptors.
2. Cytosolic side binds to ligand; intracellular side has a kinase domain on it (tyrosine kinase)– it will PO4 other proteins with particular tyrosine residues.
a. Most receptor kinases act as dimers: once they’re both bound to ligand, they will phosphorylate each other, turning on their signaling: once that PO4 is added, it creates a binding site for a set of adaptor proteins, which bind to the receptor kinase dimers and set off a signaling cascade.
b. Lots of variety in receptor action here as well: can PO4 other proteins, can have a lot of different potential adaptor proteins to bind to the binding site, etc.

197
Q

principle types of intracellular/nuclear receptors

A

respond to lipid-soluble signaling.

i. Generally work by activating transcription of specific genes. It does this largely by activating proteins which activate promoters upstream of transcription start sites.
ii. These proteins are also referred to as transcription factors.
iii. Steroids: bind to receptor proteins, inducing a conformational change which allows the receptor protein to release its inhibitor protein and bind its activator protein (entire complex: receptor-ligand-activating protein); this complex can interact with promoter regions to activate transcription.

198
Q

tools of signaling pathways

A

a. Second messengers: small molecules released within the cell in response to the binding of the first ligand; can bind to other intracellular signaling molecules.
i. Calcium: first ligand opens ion channel to admit Ca2+; calcium then binds a variety of other things inside the cell.
ii. cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate): generated by adenylate cyclase
iii. IP3 (inositol triphosphate)
iv. DAG (diacylglycerol): generated by phospholipase C (PLC)
v. NO (nitric oxide): generated by nitric oxide synthase (NOS)
vi. (notice that, for example, calcium can trigger the production of NOS, which triggers NO, which triggers.. etc, etc. Thus can have second messengers activating third messengers activating fourth messengers, and so on, though the third and fourth messengers can also act as second messengers. The cell has no idea that it’s screwing up all the cool categories we invent for it. Again: develop a healthy distrust of simple signaling pathways.)
b. Other signaling steps:
i. Protein modification (PO4ation, ubiquitinylation, etc)
ii. Protein-protein binding/targeting
iii. GTP/GDP exchange (G-proteins coupled to receptors, small GTPases like ras)
1. Note that GTP does not seem to act as a second messenger: I think it’s the fact that GTP changes the configuration of proteins which then act on other proteins that makes the difference. That is, GTP itself is acting as more of a helper than an agent in the signaling.
2. G-proteins: see “Signaling: Receptors.”
3. Ras proteins: see “Receptor Tyrosine Kinases.”

199
Q

mech’s for signal termination

A

a. Uptake, breakdown, or diffusion of original signaling molecules
b. Desensitization of receptor
c. Termination initiated by another signal (phosphorylation, dephosphorylation, etc)
d. Termination-dedicated enzymes: ie phosphodiesterases (PDEs) which break down the second messengers cAMP/cGMP.
e. Some kind of feedback inhibition: ie, the bound ligand or receptor acts in such a way as to undermine its ability to stay bound or stay active (G-proteins gradually lose their GTP-bound active state).

200
Q

pathway for amplification and termination

A

a. Amplification depends on signaling cascades: one signaling molecule can create a large number of signals, which in turn can create an ever larger number of second signals, etc.
b. Positive feedback mechanism (ie. calcium-induced calcium release): very quick but very dangerous signaling pathway (can get out of control rapidly). Usually coupled with a negative feedback mechanism past a certain threshold to keep it under control.

201
Q

Identify “nodes” (such as calcium) and “modules” in a signaling pathway, and evaluate the potential for crosstalk in signal
transduction.

A

a. Nodes: points in a network that receive multiple inputs and/or multiple outputs. Calcium is evidently the most extensive node in signaling.
b. Modules: groups of components that function together, often physically assembled to form complexes. Ie: G-protein heterotrimeric complex would presumably form a signaling module, as would negative feedback mechanisms.

202
Q

rectpor tyrosine kinase RTK activation mech- from ppt

A

ligand binding drives dimerization, which activates the activity of the kinase resulting in Tyrosine autophosphorylation at specific sites

203
Q

molec mech of stimulation of ras GTPase by RTKs- from ppt

A

tyrosine phosphorylation of receptor causes binding by SH2-domain-containing proteins incl the adaptor protein Grb2, which binds a Ras GEF called Sos. Proximity of Sos with membrane-bound Ras results in guanine nucleotide exchange

204
Q

Describe mechanism of action of two main classes of RTK‐targeted anti‐cancer agents (antibodies and TKI’s).- from ppt

A

primary role of antibodies is to block ligand binding to the receptor. TKIs inhibit catalytic activity (usually) by binding in substrate-binding site of the kinase

205
Q

List tumor cell characterisƟcs that predict clinical response to EGFR‐targeted therapeuƟcs.- from ppt

A

response to EGFR TKI correlated with receptor mutations that may “activate” the receptor, EGFR amplification, or overexpression as determined by FISH or immunohistochemistry

206
Q

describe mech of resistance to TKI’s- from ppt

A

acquired resistance- second site mutations in EGFR arising or selected in patients who initially benefit from therapy but then acquire resistance and disease progression. these mutations block inhibitior binding to the kinase active site. may be able to design new inhibitors to avoid this problem. activation of other receptors like Met or Erb82. Combine inhibitors or make dual specificty inhibitors? primary resistance- if the tumor has a Ras mutation inhibiting the receptor further up the pathway will not be effective

207
Q

Draw the membrane topology a G protein‐coupled receptor and identify the basic structural characteristics that mediate
ligand binding and coupling to G proteins.

A

Basically you’ve got a 7-unit barrel-shaped receptor protein with a ligand binding domain on the outside of the membrane, then a heterotrimeric G protein complex binding domain on the inside of the membrane, bound to the heterotrimer plus GDP. The G protein complex is made up of three subunits, alpha, beta, and gamma. The beta-gamma subunits are pretty much always stuck together, and in their GDP-bound state they’re also stuck to the alpha subunit.
Agonist binds in middle pocket

208
Q

Explain how G protein‐coupled receptors activate hetero‐trimeric G proteins and diagram the GTP‐hydrolysis cycle of G
protein signaling.

A

When a ligand binds, GDP dissociates from the Alpha-Beta-GTP complex, which allows GTP to bind to form the active form of the G protein. This step is unfavorable without an agonist, which is why the inactive form is prevalent. When this occurs, the alpha and beta subunit which were previously closely associated, are able to float away to create an effect in the cell. Alpha subunit is a GTPase which will eventually hydrolyze GTP to GDP and return the complex to its original inactive state. The cycle can repeat if agonist remains

209
Q

. Describe the function of second messengers in receptor signaling and give two examples for how they are generated by
activated G proteins.

A

PLC is cleaved to make IP3 and DAG. IP3 exerts effects by binding its receptor in the ER, which releases calcium. DAG binds with PKC to stimulate Ca influx into the cell.
cAMP is also produced by active alpha and the AC complex. It activates protein kinase A, which eventually leads to an influx of calcium, which leads to increased heart rate and contraction

210
Q

Explain how receptor activation leads to signal termination through receptor desensitization and coupling to additional
pathways

A

At the same time that you activate the signaling pathway, another pathway is activated that favors desensitisation of the receptor. Beta activated GRK kinase which phosphorylates the receptor, which attracts Beta arrestin (which prevents association of another g protein), and it interacts with clathrin and causes the receptor to be endocytosed. Internalized receptors can be re-sensitized and recycled, or they can be taken to the lysosome to be chopped up by acid.

211
Q

Give two examples of drugs that act through modulating different steps in a receptor‐G protein‐second messenger
signaling cascade.

A

• Beta blockers: Prevent activation of a pathway (antagonists) and decreases heart rate.
Phosphodiesterase: degrades cAMP and turns it into AMP, which does not activate PKA

212
Q

Describe a phosphorylation reaction (including which amino acids can be phosphorylated) and explain how it can affect a
phosphorylated protein.

A

e. Phosphate is added to the hydroxyl group of Serine, threonine, and tyrosine. The OH group nucleophilically attacks the gamma phosphate from an ATP molecule. Phosphorylation regulates the activity of a given protein.
Phosphorylation is a nucleophilic attack of the hydroxyl group of the AA to the gamma-P of ATP

213
Q

. List at least two other types of secondary protein modification

A

a. Adenine (double loop), ribose, triphosphate.
b. Bonds between phosphates are high-energy- alpha, beta, and gamma phosphates via phosphoanhydride bonds
c. Contains E rich bonds; it is an energy equivalent, phosphate donor, nucleotide, conversion to second messenger (cAMP), neuromodulator

214
Q

Explain how protein kinases can be classified and describe examples.

A

a. Based on which residue they phosphorylate (Ser-Thr-Asp)
b. Based on their substrate protein
c. Based on their activating stimulus
d. Based on their phylogenic relationship (certain families of related kinases)

215
Q

Describe the structure/function of a protein kinase and principles of their regulation (including requirement for activation
loop phosphorylation in some but not all kinases).

A

A kinase domain consists of a small and large lobe (green and blue, respectively, regions of PKA that are not conserved among kinases are shown in white). ATP binds in the cleft between the lobes; interaction of the substrate is usually mostly with the large lobe. A “closed conformation” of the glycine rich loop in the small lobe forces the γ-Phosphate of the ATP into the right position for phosphorylation (a fast reaction). An “open conformation” of the glycine rich loop then allow exchange of the generated ADP for a new ATP (a slow reaction).
Thus, kinase activity is thought to require alternating open and closed conformations.

The active conformation of all kinases is highly conserved. This presents a problem for making specific inhibitors for individual kinases. However, the inactive conformations are not, since there are many ways to distort conformation to prevent activity (an opportunity for specific inhibitors, now also realized by the pharmaceu tical industry). Generally, the ATP binding pocket is somehow distorted in inactive conformations (glycine rich loop; C-helix; activation loop). In many but not all kinases, the activation loop has to be phosphorylated for full activity. Another common regulatory theme is block of the active site by an inhibitory “pseudo-substrate” sequence.