M XII Flashcards

1
Q

The solicitors for a buyer and seller of a house have agreed to use the Law Society Formulae for exchanging contracts by telephone. They also agree to use the Standard Conditions of Sale, unamended. Both solicitors wish to exchange contracts using Formula B.

How will the solicitors effect exchange of contracts?

Each solicitor will hold their own client’s contract and will confirm the versions are the same over the telephone. They will then send their client’s signed part to each other, and the buyer’s solicitor will send the agreed deposit to the seller’s solicitor to hold as stakeholder.

The buyer’s solicitor will send the contract signed by the buyer to the seller’s solicitor, along with the deposit. The seller’s solicitor will confirm both contracts are the same over the telephone, insert the exchange and completion dates in both, and send the part signed by the seller to the buyer’s solicitor.

Each solicitor will hold their own client’s contract and will confirm the versions are the same over the telephone. They will then send their client’s signed part to each other, and the buyer’s solicitor will hold the agreed deposit funds as stakeholder.

The buyer’s solicitor will send the contract signed by the buyer to the seller’s solicitor, who will confirm both contracts are the same, insert the exchange and completion dates in both, and send the part signed by the seller to the buyer’s solicitor. The buyer’s solicitor will then hold the agreed deposit as stakeholder.

Each solicitor will send the other their client’s signed contract. The solicitors will confirm the versions are the same over the telephone, and the buyer’s solicitor will then send the deposit funds.

A

(A) When each solicitor wishes to confirm the contracts under Law Society Formula B for exchanging contracts by telephone, each solicitor holds their own client’s part of the contract, confirms they are the same, and then sends it. The buyer’s solicitor will also send the deposit funds to the seller’s solicitor to hold as stakeholder pursuant to the unamended Standard Conditions of Sale. (B) is incorrect, as it describes a Formula A exchange – the buyer’s solicitor will send the contract signed by the buyer to the seller’s solicitor, along with the deposit. The seller’s solicitor will confirm both contracts are the same over the telephone, insert the exchange date in both, and send the part signed by the seller to the buyer’s solicitor. (C) is incorrect because although it describes a Formula B exchange, as just explained under the unamended Standard Conditions of Sale, the seller’s solicitor will hold the deposit funds as stakeholder. (D) is incorrect because it describes a Formula A exchange, and it also incorrectly provides that the buyer’s solicitor will hold the deposit. (E) is incorrect because no formula for exchange requires both solicitors to send their client’s contract to the other solicitor before confirming they are the same.

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2
Q

A man died intestate, survived by his wife and two daughters. The man’s parents are also alive. The assets in his sole name totalled £400,000, comprising the family home (£350,000), personal belongings (£20,000), and £30,000 in bank accounts.

Which of the following best describes who will inherit the man’s estate?

The man’s wife will inherit the whole estate
.
The man’s wife will inherit half the estate, and the other half will pass to the man’s parents.

The estate will be divided between the man’s wife, his two daughters, and the man’s parents in accordance with the intestacy rules.

The man’s daughters will inherit the whole estate.

The estate will be divided between the man’s wife and two daughters in accordance with the intestacy rules.

A

(E) The estate will be divided between the man’s wife and two daughters in accordance with the intestacy rules. The rules of intestate succession apply when a person dies without a valid will. Under these rules, when the deceased is survived by a spouse or civil partner and issue, the estate will be divided between the surviving spouse or civil partner and issue in accordance with the intestacy rules. Specifically, the spouse takes personal chattels, £270,000, and half of the residue. The issue take the other half of the residue. Here, therefore, the man’s wife and two daughters will be entitled to share the estate. The man’s parents have no entitlement under the intestacy rules. (A), (B), (C), and (D) are, therefore, incorrect.

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3
Q

A solicitor has completed the purchase of a freehold investment property for a limited company client. The title to the property is registered and the solicitor has dated the legal charge which the limited company signed to secure the mortgage advance required to purchase the property. The solicitor went on holiday the day after completion and left the post-completion work with a colleague. The solicitor has returned to the office one month later to find the following note on the file from their colleague:

‘I submitted the Stamp Duty Land Tax form to Revenue on the day of completion. This is all that I needed to do and I have diarised the date of expiry of the official search with priority. I hope that you enjoyed your holiday!’

Was the colleague correct that they did all that needed to be done?

Yes, the priority period has not expired so the solicitor will still be able to make the application for registration.

No, the colleague allowed the time for registration of the legal charge with Companies House to expire so now a court order is necessary.

No, because the colleague did not send a notice of assignment on completion.

Yes, as the solicitor has a further month within which to complete the registration application.

No, because the colleague was required to wait 14 days before sending the tax to Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs.

A

(B) It is necessary to register the legal charge which is referred to in the question within 21 days of completion. This has not been done, so a court order is necessary. (A) is incorrect. It seems from the question that the priority period (30 working days) has not expired (since only a month has gone by), but the certificate of registration of the charge with Companies House is late, as explained previously. (C) is incorrect. A notice of assignment is required on a leasehold transaction, and the question makes it clear that this is a freehold title. (D) is incorrect both because it ignores the problem with the legal charge and because it relies on the time period for submitting an application for first registration of an unregistered title. Our facts make it clear that the title is registered. (E) is incorrect because it is not true; the timescale is any time within 21 days after completion; there is no 14-day waiting period.

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4
Q

A limited company contracted to sell a factory unit with vacant possession and a fixed completion date was agreed. The buyer was not able to obtain their funding and missed the completion date. The seller was somewhat relieved because the tenant who was occupying the factory unit had not yet moved out.
The tenant has assured the seller that they will vacate, although they have not given the seller a date. The seller is keen to proceed and has instructed their solicitor to serve a notice to complete on the defaulting buyer.

Should the solicitor serve the notice to complete as requested?

No, because time is not of the essence in a property conveyance.

No, because the buyer is trying to obtain financing.

Yes, as this is a prerequisite to obtaining an order for specific performance.

No, because the seller is not ready, able, and willing to complete as the tenant is still in situ.

Yes, as the buyer would have been aware of the tenant through pre-contract enquiries.

A

(D) The seller’s solicitor should not send the notice to complete because the seller is not ready, able, and willing to complete as the tenant is still in situ. A party must be ready, able, and willing to complete before sending a notice to complete. Because it is not clear when the tenant will vacate, the seller cannot be sure that they will secure vacant possession (as required by the contract) by the time the notice to complete is served. Thus the seller is not ready, able, and willing to complete. (A) is incorrect. Whilst it is true that time is not of the essence in a standard conveyance, that is the point of a notice to complete – it makes time of the essence and requires the party served to complete within 10 working days. (B) is incorrect because it is irrelevant. Serving a notice to complete would give the seller remedy options that aren’t otherwise available (such as rescinding the contract, should the buyer be unable to obtain financing). (C) is incorrect both because the seller is not ready, able, and willing to complete and because, even if they were, an order for specific performance would not be a very good remedy as the buyer does not appear to have the funds to purchase the factory. (E) is incorrect because it is irrelevant; under the contract, the seller is required to deliver vacant possession and since the seller does not know whether they can, they are not ready, able, and willing to complete

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5
Q

A firm has incurred the following costs on behalf of a client: (1) travel expenses whilst working on the client’s matter, (2) court fees, (3) stamp duty land tax, (4) estate agent’s fees, and (5) surveyor’s fees.
Which of the following most correctly describes which payments can be treated by the firm as disbursements for the purposes of VAT?

The estate agent’s fees and the surveyor’s fees.

The land registry fees and the stamp duty tax.

The travel expenses and the stamp duty fees.

Travel expenses.

All of the expenses.

A

(A) The estate agent’s fees and the surveyor’s fees are the expenses most likely to come within the HMRC guidelines of what constitutes a disbursement, as they will have been paid on the client’s behalf as the client’s agent, the client has received the benefit of the services, and the client will have authorised the payment. (B) is incorrect as these fees are exempt from VAT. (C) and (D) are incorrect as travel expenses cannot be treated as disbursements – they are treated as general overheads.

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6
Q

A man instructed a solicitor to assist the man in purchasing a home. Title to the home had not yet been registered with Her Majesty’s Land Registry, but the sale has just completed and the solicitor is preparing to apply for a first registration of title. The solicitor has determined that no Stamp Duty Land Tax is due.

Must the solicitor submit a Stamp Duty Land Tax return to Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs (‘HMRC’) with respect to the transaction?

Yes, within 14 days of completion.

Yes, within 14 days of first registration.

No, as the solicitor determined that no tax is due.

Yes, within 30 days of completion.

Yes, within 30 days of first registration.

A

(A) A Stamp Duty Land Tax return must be submitted to HMRC within 14 days of completion of the purchase of a property, even if no tax is due. Penalties and interest are payable if the return is not timely filed or if any Stamp Duty Land Tax is owed but not paid within this 14-day period. The 14-day period applies whether title to the property is registered or unregistered. (B) is incorrect as the period is measured from the date of completion and not from the date of registration. (C) is incorrect as it does not matter that no tax is due – the return must still be filed. (D) and (E) are both incorrect as the period is 14 days from completion.

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7
Q

A woman and a man have agreed that the man will buy the woman’s home. They each have instructed solicitors to act for them in the transaction. The solicitors have agreed to use the Law Society’s Conveyancing Protocol and the Code for Completion by Post. Contracts have already been exchanged, which included the Standard Conditions of Sale unamended.

Under the Code for Completion by Post, when should the seller’s solicitor confirm completion?

The solicitor must confirm completion by 2 PM on the day of completion by phone, fax, or email and must send written confirmation by first class post or document exchange within three working days after completion.

The solicitor must confirm completion as soon as possible by phone, fax, or email and by written confirmation sent by first class post or document exchange no later than the end of the working day following completion.

No later than the end of the working day following completion, the solicitor must confirm completion both by phone, fax, or email and by written confirmation sent by first class post or document exchange.

The solicitor must confirm completion as soon as possible by phone, fax, or email and by written confirmation sent by first class post or document exchange no later than three working days following completion.

The solicitor must confirm completion as soon as possible by phone, fax, or email and by written confirmation sent by first class post or document exchange no later than three working days following completion.

A

(B) Under the Code for Completion by Post, the solicitor must confirm completion as soon as possible by phone, fax, or email and by written confirmation sent by first class post or document exchange no later than the end of the working day following completion. Therefore, all the other choices are incorrect. It should be noted that the 2 PM in (A) is a reference to the time by which completion must occur on the completion date unless the parties have agreed otherwise.

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8
Q

An executor has been administering the estate of her aunt for several months. Her aunt was wealthy and left a large estate, which has been very time-consuming and complicated for the executor to manage. She would like to be remunerated for her time and effort. The will is silent regarding executor remuneration.

Can the executor charge the estate for her services?

Yes, because the estate was large and complicated.

Yes, if remuneration is authorised by the court.

Yes, if the executor is also a solicitor.

No, because a personal representative may not charge for their services.

No, because the will does not authorise remuneration.

A

(B) The executor can charge the estate for her services if it is authorised by the court. PRs are not entitled to charge for services unless it is authorised in some way-either by the court, the will, or the beneficiaries. The court can authorise remuneration for PRs for past, present, or future services. (D) is therefore incorrect. (A) is incorrect because, although the estate’s size and complexity may persuade the beneficiaries or court to allow remuneration, a large and complex estate does not automatically entitle the PR to receive payment. (C) is incorrect. The PR does not also have to be a solicitor to charge for services. (E) is incorrect. If the will does not expressly authorise remuneration, a PR can still receive payment from the beneficiaries or by court authorisation.

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9
Q

A solicitor is acting as executor of an estate of a client who died three months ago. The solicitor has obtained the grant of probate. The solicitor would like to buy a house from the estate for himself. The solicitor offers the probate valuation for the house, and the residuary beneficiary agrees in writing.
Should the solicitor proceed with the necessary documentation to transfer the house into his own name?

Yes, because a solicitor can act where there is an own interest conflict if they have received written consent from the client.

Yes, because a solicitor can act where there is an own interest conflict if they are satisfied it is in the client’s best interests.

Yes, because a solicitor can act where there is an own interest conflict if the solicitor and the client have a substantially common interest.

No, because a solicitor cannot act if there is an own interest conflict unless the solicitor and the client are competing for the same objective.

No, because a solicitor cannot act if there is an own interest conflict or a significant risk of an own interest conflict.

A

(E) There is an absolute bar to the solicitor acting where there is an own interest conflict or a significant risk of an own interest conflict. Here the solicitor is, in effect, both the seller (as executor) and buyer. (A) is incorrect because of the absolute bar to acting, and the beneficiary is not a client anyway. (B) is incorrect because of the absolute bar. (C) and (D) are incorrect because neither of the exceptions for conflicts between clients apply to a solicitor’s own interest conflicts.

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10
Q

A first-time buyer has exchanged contracts on the purchase of a leasehold flat which they will use as their main home. The buyer has received the completion statement from their solicitor and notes that there is an additional sum showing on the completion statement for a service charge. The first-time buyer is not sure what this is and telephones their solicitor.

How should the solicitor respond?

That the figure appearing on the statement is an allocation for service charges paid in advance by the seller.

That the figure appearing on the statement is an apportionment for service charges paid in advance by the seller.

That the figure appearing on the statement is an error and will be removed because it is not applicable in a leasehold transaction.

That the figure appearing on the statement is payable by the landlord and is included for the buyer’s reference only.

That the figure appearing on the statement is an amount that covers fees associated with the registration of the transaction.

A

B) In a leasehold transaction, tenants may be responsible under the terms of their leases for paying a defined share of a service charge in addition to their rent. While a management company is responsible for carrying out repairs and maintenance to the building, the costs of this are passed on to tenants via the service charge. If the seller has paid service charges in advance, they will expect reimbursement of the advance payment from the buyer on completion. The adjustment is known as an apportionment. (A) is incorrect because the relevant term here is ‘apportionment’. (C) is incorrect because the reverse is true – service charges are applicable only in leasehold transactions. (D) is incorrect because service charges are payable by tenants, not landlords. (E) is incorrect because the service charge is not related to registration fees. As explained above, the service charge is a means of apportioning the costs of maintaining a building amongst tenants.

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11
Q

A woman made a will seven years ago. At that time, she owned a Toyota car. In her will, she left “my car” to her nephew and the residue of her estate to her daughter.

In the days after the woman’s death, her executor discovered that the woman sold her Toyota car three years ago and purchased a new Mercedes car.
Will the woman’s nephew inherit the Mercedes under the will?

Yes, as to assets, the will is treated as speaking at the time of the testator’s death.

No, the gift of the car will lapse, and the nephew will receive nothing.

No, as the nephew is merely entitled to require the executor to buy him a Toyota similar to what the woman owned when she wrote the will.

No, the gift of “my car” will adeem, and the nephew will receive nothing.

No, as the nephew is only entitled to receive a sum of money equal to the value of the Toyota.

A

(D) The gift of the car adeems, and the nephew will receive nothing. If a will makes a gift of specific property and that property is not in the testator’s estate when the testator dies, the gift adeems-that is, it fails. The general rule is that the will speaks at the date of death for gifts. However, if the will refers to “my” property like “my car”, it is presumed that the testator had a contrary intention to the general rule and intended the beneficiary to receive the car the testator owned when they wrote the will. Here, the woman left “my car” to her nephew. She owned a Toyota when she wrote the will but owned a Mercedes at her death. It is presumed that she intended the nephew to receive the Toyota. Because the Toyota was not in the woman’s estate when she died, the gift adeems. The nephew will receive nothing. (A) is therefore incorrect. (B) is incorrect because lapse occurs when a beneficiary has predeceased the testator. That is not the situation here. (C) is incorrect because the nephew is not entitled to ask the executor to buy him a Toyota. (E) is incorrect because the nephew will not receive a sum of money equal to the value of the Toyota.

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12
Q

A client is purchasing a factory unit from a limited company. The solicitor acting for the client notes that there is a charge on the charges register and has prepared a completion statement for their client who is a cash buyer.

What pre-completion searches will the buyer’s solicitor carry out?

A full land charges search and a company search.

A company search and a bankruptcy search.

A company search and an official search with priority.

An official search with priority and a bankruptcy search.

A full land charges search and a bankruptcy search.

A

(C) The solicitor must carry out a company search and an official search with priority. The facts indicate that the buyer is purchasing from a limited company; thus, a company search will be required. The facts also indicate that there is a charges register, which denotes that the title is registered; thus, an official search with priority is required. (A) is incorrect. A full land charges search is relevant when the title is unregistered. (B) is incorrect. The facts indicate that the client is a cash buyer. This means the buyer is not getting a mortgage; thus, a bankruptcy search is not required. (D) and (E) are incorrect for the same reason. (E) also is incorrect as a full land charges search is for unregistered land.

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13
Q

A woman died recently. Two years before her death, she made a potentially exempt transfer in the form of a cash gift to her daughter. A large sum of tax is now payable on this gift, but the daughter has spent all the money and has no funds to pay the tax. The woman’s executors were unaware of this cash gift but have now been contacted by Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs (HMRC), which is seeking to recover this sum from them.

Which of the following should the personal representatives have done to best protect themselves from this liability?

The personal representatives should have made full enquiries to discover details of lifetime gifts and obtained a certificate of discharge from HMRC.

The personal representatives should have placed appropriate advertisements and waited two months from the date of the advertisements before distributing the estate.

The personal representatives should have obtained a Benjamin Order.

The personal representatives should have asked all family members about any lifetime gifts made by the woman.

The personal representatives should have waited six months from the issue of the grant of probate before distributing the estate.

A

personal representatives could have protected themselves from this liability by making full enquiries to discover details of lifetime gifts and obtaining a certificate of discharge from HMRC. Liability for failed potentially exempt transfers by the deceased can arise if the inheritance tax due is still unpaid after 12 months. However, HMRC will not pursue the personal representatives for this liability if the personal representatives have made the fullest enquiries and obtained a certificate of discharge from HMRC. (B) is incorrect because placing appropriate advertisements protects against claims from unknown beneficiaries and creditors, which is not the situation here. (C) is incorrect because Benjamin Orders protect against claims from known but missing beneficiaries and creditors. (D) is incorrect. Making enquiries of the family alone is insufficient. A certificate of discharge is also required. (E) is incorrect. Waiting six months would not have assisted in relation to this matter either.

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14
Q

An executor is dealing with the estate of a woman who died recently with a large estate. The estate is subject to an initial inheritance tax payment of £180,000. The estate comprises a house worth £400,000, £60,000 in various bank accounts (all of which participate in the Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs direct payment scheme), £100,000 payable to the estate under a life insurance policy, £10,000 of quoted shares, and some furniture worth £5,000. A bank loan is available to fund the inheritance tax that cannot be funded from elsewhere.

Which of the following assets will need to be used to fund the initial payment of inheritance tax?

The £60,000 in bank accounts, £100,000 life insurance proceeds, the shares, the furniture, and a £5,000 bank loan.

£100,000 life assurance proceeds, the furniture, and a £75,000 bank loan.

The house only.

£60,000 in bank accounts, the shares, and a £110,000 bank loan.

£60,000 in bank accounts, the shares, the furniture, and a £105,000 bank loan.

A

A) The bank accounts, life insurance proceeds, shares, furniture, and bank loan will need to be used to pay the inheritance tax (‘IHT’). The initial payment of IHT must be made before the PRs can apply for the grant. Consequently, the house will be unavailable to fund the IHT, as real estate can be sold only with a grant as evidence of the executor’s authority to sell the property. However, the £60,000 in bank accounts can be paid directly to HMRC before the grant is obtained to fund the IHT. The quoted shares and furniture can also be sold to raise funds before the grant is obtained. As the life insurance proceeds are payable to the estate, the insurance company may pay this sum directly to HMRC. This leaves an outstanding balance of £5,000, which can be funded via a bank loan. (B), (C), (D), and (E) are therefore incorrect.

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15
Q

The solicitors acting for the landlord and tenant of office premises have spent many weeks trying to negotiate the terms of a new lease following the service by the tenant of a valid section 26 notice under the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 (Part II). It is clear that the parties will not be able to reach agreement.

How will the absence of agreement between the parties be resolved?

The landlord will impose the terms of a new lease because they own the premises.

The tenant will take a new lease of the premises, which will be on the same terms as the old lease.

The court will set the terms of the new lease.

The tenant will impose the terms of a new lease because it is protected under the 1954 Act.

The lease will be surrendered, and the tenant will be required to vacate because the parties cannot agree.

A

(C) If the parties cannot agree on the terms of a new lease following service of a section 26 notice, the court can set the terms of the new lease, although in practice this is rare. Therefore, the remaining answers are incorrect.

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16
Q

In her will a woman left all her estate to trustees to hold on trust for her daughter for life and on her death to her grandchildren in equal shares. The daughter has requested the trustees to use some of the fund to purchase a house in France to be used as a holiday home for the family and to be rented commercially when not in use.

If the trustees refuse the request, what is the most likely reason?

The daughter has no interest in the capital of the fund.

The purchase of the house would not benefit the grandchildren.

The use of a house as a residence is not an investment.

The purchase would be an unauthorised investment.

The trustees must act impartially between the beneficiaries

A

(D) The trustees would refuse the request because the purchase would be an unauthorised investment. Trustees must invest in authorised investments. They have power to purchase land in the UK as an investment, as a residence for a beneficiary, or for any other reason, but they have no power to buy land outside the UK. (A) is incorrect because the request relates to a trustee investment, not to the exercise of the trustees’ power to advance capital. (B) and (E) are incorrect because, although the trustees’ duty is to act impartially between the beneficiaries, there is no reason why the purchase of land as a residence should not benefit the grandchildren by bringing capital growth. (C) is incorrect because trustees have express power to purchase land as an investment, as a residence for the beneficiaries, or for any other reason

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17
Q

Last year a man transferred shares into the name of his adult grandson. No reason was given for the transfer. The man now claims that he made the transfer because he feared that he would be liable for a large legal claim and he wanted to keep the shares out of reach of his potential creditors. The claim has not materialised, and he wishes to claim the shares back. His grandson refuses to hand the shares over.
Which of the following statements best describes the man’s position?

The court will not allow the man to reclaim the shares because it will not hear evidence of his illegal purpose.

The court will not allow the man to reclaim the shares because there was no declaration of trust.

The court will allow the man to reclaim the shares because the illegal purpose was not carried out.

The court will not allow the man to reclaim the shares because it is presumed that he intended to make a gift.

It will be for the court to decide whether the man may reclaim the shares depending on whether it is in the public interest.

A

(E) If a property transfer was made as part of an illegal or fraudulent transaction, the court must decide whether it is in the public interest to allow the claim. The court would take into account all relevant factors, including the underlying purpose of the relevant law and the respective conduct of the parties. In these circumstances, the court would likely consider whether creditors have in fact been deceived, whether the grandson was aware of the scheme, and the effect on either party of allowing the man’s claim. (A) is incorrect because, as noted above, the court will decide based on the relevant factors. The claimant does not need to plead the illegal purpose. (B) is incorrect because if the court decides to allow the claim because it is in the public interest, no declaration is required. (C) is not the best answer because while the court will consider whether the illegal purpose was carried out, that factor by itself is not definitive, as discussed above. (D) is incorrect because, as discussed above, the court will decide based on all of the relevant factors.

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18
Q

A man died intestate, survived by his civil partner and son. The assets in his sole name totalled £500,000, comprising the family home (£350,000), personal belongings (£50,000), and £100,000 in bank accounts.

Which of the following best describes how the man’s estate will be distributed?

The man’s civil partner will be entitled to a statutory legacy of £250,000 only.’

The man’s civil partner will have no entitlement to the man’s estate, and the whole estate will pass to the man’s son.

The man’s estate will be split so that the civil partner and son receive half each.

The man’s civil partner will be entitled to the man’s personal belongings, a statutory legacy of £270,000, and half of the remaining assets.

he man’s son will be entitled to receive the man’s personal belongings only.

A

(D) The man’s civil partner will be entitled to the man’s personal belongings, a statutory legacy of £270,000, and half of the remaining assets. The rules of intestate succession apply when a person dies without a will. Under these rules, when the deceased is survived by a spouse or civil partner and issue, the spouse or civil partner will receive personal chattels, £270,000, and one-half of the residue. The deceased’s issue will take the other half of the residue. Here, therefore, the man’s civil partner and son will be entitled to share the estate. The civil partner will receive the personal belongings, a statutory legacy of £270,000, and half of the remaining assets only. The other half of the remaining assets will pass to the man’s son. (A), (B), (C), and (E) are, therefore, incorrect.

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19
Q

A man purchases 12 crates of wine, all of the same vintage. He tells his brother: “Six of these crates of wine are for you. I will keep them for you in my cellar”. One week later the man dies. In his will he appoints his solicitor to be his executor and leaves all his estate to charity. All the wine remains in his cellar.

Can the brother claim six crates of the wine?

No, because there was no clear intention to declare a trust.

Yes, because the man was holding the wine on trust for his brother.

No, because there was no written evidence of the man’s intention to create a trust.

Yes, because the man’s intention to give the wine to his brother continued until his death.

No, because it is not clear which of the crates are held for the brother.

A

(E) The brother cannot claim six crates of the wine because it is not clear which of the crates are held for him. Where an individual wishes to create a trust of personalty with himself as trustee, there must be certainty of intention to be legally bound, of subject matter (the trust property), and objects (the beneficiary). There are no formal requirements for a declaration of trust of personalty. Here, the man’s words suggest that he intends to be legally bound, and the beneficiary is clearly his brother. However, where the trust property is tangible property it must be clearly differentiated from other property of the same kind. Here, the man has not set aside the six crates of wine intended for the brother, so the trust fails for lack of certainty of subject matter. (A) is incorrect because the man’s words suggest an intention to bind himself, even though the word ‘trust’ has not been used. (B) is incorrect because the trust fails for lack of certainty of subject matter. (C) is incorrect because the requirement for a declaration of trust to be evidenced in signed writing only applies to trusts of land. (D) is incorrect because the requirement for intention to continue until death applies only where an attempted gift has failed but the intended donee becomes the donor’s personal representative, which is not relevant on these facts.

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20
Q

A woman died 11 months ago domiciled in England and Wales. She left her whole estate to charity in her will. A grant of representation to her estate was issued seven months ago. The woman’s husband is considering whether to bring a claim against her estate under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 (‘the Act’). There are no circumstances in which a court would give leave for a late application to be made under the Act.
Is the husband able to bring a claim under the Act?

No, because the woman died more than six months ago.

No, because the grant of representation was issued more than six months ago.

Yes, because the grant of representation was issued less than one year ago.

Yes, because the woman died less than one year ago.

Yes, because the grant of representation was issued within six months of the woman’s death.

A

(B) The husband cannot bring a claim under the Act because the grant of representation was issued more than six months ago. There is a time limit for bringing a claim under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975. An application must be made within six months of the issue of the grant of representation to the personal representatives. Here, the grant of representation was issued seven months ago, so the time limit for a claim has expired. (A), (C), (D), and (E) are incorrect because they do not accurately state the relevant time limit.

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21
Q

A trustee transfers trust funds into the name of his sister in breach of trust. The sister has spent the money on general living expenses. The beneficiaries wish to bring a personal claim in equity against the trustee’s sister.

What must the beneficiaries establish in order to hold the sister personally liable in equity?

That the sister was aware of the breach of trust.

That the trustee acted fraudulently.

That the sister did not act as an honest person would in the circumstances.

That the sister’s conscience was affected.

That the sister had notice of the breach of trust.

A

(D) The beneficiaries must establish that the sister’s conscience was affected in order to hold her personally liable in equity. A person who receives trust property is personally liable in equity if their state of knowledge was such as to make them liable as if they were a constructive trustee. This applies where the recipient had sufficient knowledge as to make it unconscionable for them to retain the property-that is, where they knew of the breach or where they were suspicious but chose not to ask questions. (A) is incorrect because a recipient may be liable even though they were not aware of the nature of the breach. (B) is incorrect because a recipient may be liable even where the trustee committed no fraud; it is the conscience of the recipient which is at issue. (C) is incorrect because this is the test for accessory liability. (E) is incorrect because the conscience of a recipient is not necessarily affected by constructive notice of a breach of trust.

22
Q

A testator died leaving a will in which he appointed trustees to hold the residue of his estate on trust for his niece provided she attains the age of 25. The niece is 20 years old. The will does not contain any express powers.

Which of the following best describes the position of the trustees in relation to the income of the fund?

They must pay the income to the niece.

They must accumulate the income until the niece is 25.

They may pay the income to the niece for her maintenance, education, or benefit and must accumulate the surplus.

They may pay or apply the income for the niece’s maintenance, education, or benefit and must accumulate the surplus.

They must pay it to the niece’s parents for her maintenance, education, or benefit and accumulate the surplus.

A

(A) The trustees must pay the income to the niece. Where a beneficiary over the age of 18 has an interest in the income of a trust fund, the trustees must pay the income to the beneficiary until the beneficiary’s interest vests or fails. (B) is incorrect because once the beneficiary is 18 the trustees no longer have any power or duty to accumulate the income. (C), (D), and (E) are all incorrect because once a beneficiary is 18 the trustees’ discretion to use income for the beneficiary’s maintenance, education, or benefit ceases, and the trustees’ duty is simply to pay the income to the beneficiary.

23
Q

A woman died recently. Her will leaves her art collection to her friend and the remainder of her estate to her son. The woman’s friend is not knowledgeable about art and would prefer for her adult niece to receive the art collection.

Which of the following is the best method for the woman’s friend to achieve this outcome?

The friend should make a lifetime gift of the art collection to her niece once she inherits the collection.

The friend should disclaim her right to the art collection.

The friend should execute a new will, leaving the art collection to her niece.

The friend should make a written variation passing the art collection to her niece.

The friend should tell the executors to transfer the art collection to her niece instead.

A

(D) The friend should make a written variation passing the art collection to her niece. A variation allows a beneficiary to change who receives their inheritance. To be effective for tax purposes, a variation must be made in writing, made within two years of death, and not made for monetary consideration. (A) is incorrect. A lifetime gift would not be the best method because it would be a potentially exempt transfer, which would become taxable if the friend were to die within seven years. (B) is incorrect. When a beneficiary disclaims a gift, the gift falls into the residue. So here, a disclaimer would not pass the art collection to the friend’s niece, and instead the art collection would pass to the woman’s son as part of the residuary estate. (C) is incorrect because the will would not become effective until the friend’s death, and she wants her niece to receive the art collection now. (E) is incorrect. For the variation to be read back to the date of death as if the deceased had left the asset to the new beneficiary, the variation must be in writing. A verbal variation is not effective.

24
Q

A man and a woman who are neither married nor in a civil partnership purchased a house together which was conveyed into their joint names. The woman provided all the purchase money, while the man provided none of the purchase money. There is no express declaration regarding the equitable interest in the house.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Because only the woman contributed to the purchase price, there is a trust of the equitable interest solely in favour of the woman.

There is a presumption that the equitable interest is held jointly and equally by the man and the woman.

Although the house was conveyed into the parties’ joint names, the woman owns the full legal and equitable interests.

Because the parties did not declare how the equitable interest is held, the purchase of the house is unenforceable.

Because the property was conveyed into joint names, the parties conclusively hold both the legal and equitable interests jointly and equally.

A

(B) There is a presumption that the equitable interest is held jointly and equally by the man and the woman. When legal title is registered in the name of both parties, they hold legal title as joint tenants. If there is no express declaration regarding the equitable interest, it is presumed that the equitable interests in the property, like the joint interests, are joint and equal. However, a party can rebut this presumption by proving that both parties intended otherwise. (A) is incorrect because it does not matter that only the woman contributed to the purchase price; the fact that the property was conveyed into joint names is key to determining the interests. (C) is incorrect. Because the house was conveyed into the parties’ joint names, they own the legal interest jointly and equally, and it is presumed that they own the equitable interest jointly and equally as well. (D) is incorrect. The parties’ failure to declare how the equitable interest is held does not make the purchase of the house unenforceable. (E) is incorrect because it is not conclusive that the equitable interest is held jointly and equally; it is a rebuttable presumption.

25
Q

A woman died intestate. She was divorced and had three daughters. The daughters are age 25, 17, and 14. The 17-year-old recently got married. The woman adopted the 14-year-old when she was a baby.
Which of the following best describes the beneficiaries’ interests in the woman’s estate?

The 25- and 17-year-old daughters have vested interests in half of the estate each.

The 25- and 17-year-old daughters have vested interests in one-third of the estate each. The 14-year-old daughter has a contingent interest in one-third of the estate.

The 25-year-old daughter has a vested interest in one-third of the estate. The 17- and 14-year-old daughters have contingent interests in one-third of the estate each.

The 25-year-old daughter has a contingent interest in one-third of the estate. The 17- and 14-year-old daughters have vested interests in one-third of the estate each.

The 25-year-old daughter has a contingent interest in half of the estate, and the 17-year-old daughter has a vested interest in the other half of the estate.

A

(B) The 25- and 17-year-old daughters each have vested interests in one-third of the estate, and the 14-year-old daughter has a contingent interest in one-third of the estate. When a person dies intestate without a spouse or civil partner, the intestacy rules’ strict order of entitlement applies to determine who will inherit the estate. As the woman was unmarried at the time of her death, her estate will pass to her issue on statutory trusts. The woman’s issue are her three daughters. This includes the adopted daughter, as adopted children are treated as the issue of their adoptive parents under the intestacy rules. Therefore, the woman’s estate will be shared so that each daughter is entitled to one-third of the estate. The 25-year-old daughter has a vested interest because she is over 18. The 17-year-old daughter also has a vested interest, since whilst she is under 18, she is married. The 14-year-old daughter has a contingent interest as she is under 18 and unmarried. She will receive her share of the estate when she reaches age 18 or marries at an earlier age. (A), (C), (D), and (E) are incorrect because they do not, therefore, accurately reflect the application of the intestacy rules to this estate.

26
Q

A settlor transfers property to two trustees to hold on trust for her two children in equal shares provided they attain the age of 21. The trust deed contains no express powers dealing with the appointment of trustees. The children are aged 18 and 20, and they do not agree with the trustees’ investment policies. They would like to replace the trustees.

Which of the following best describes the power of the beneficiaries?

They may together direct the trustees to retire and appoint new trustees of the beneficiaries’ choice.

They have no power to control the trustees because the trustees were selected by the settlor.

They have no power to control the trustees because their interests are contingent.

They may direct the trustees to retire and appoint new trustees of their choice provided the settlor agrees.

They have no power to control the trustees unless the trustees have committed a breach of trust.

A

(C) The beneficiaries have no power to control the trustees because their interests are contingent. In the absence of special provisions in the trust instrument, the usual rule is that the existing trustees have the power to appoint new trustees and the beneficiaries do not have control over the composition of the trusteeship. However, if all the beneficiaries are of full age and capacity and between them absolutely entitled, the beneficiaries may by agreement direct the trustees to retire and appoint new trustees of their choice. (A) is incorrect because, although the children are both of full age, they are not together absolutely entitled as their interests are contingent. If they both died before the age of 18, their interests would both fail and the property would pass to any substitutional beneficiary or revert to the settlor on resulting trust. (B) is incorrect because the beneficiaries would have this power if their interests were vested. (D) is incorrect because the settlor retains no powers over the composition of the trusteeship unless they are expressly reserved in the trust instrument. (E) is incorrect because there is a statutory power for beneficiaries to control the trustees in the circumstances outlined above.

27
Q

A solicitor meets a new client who wants to make a will. During the meeting, the client also discusses the interests of her husband and provides the solicitor with details of his estate. The size of each estate appears to be identical and the client intends to leave her assets to her husband and says that he will want to do the same and leave everything in his will to her. She asks the solicitor to draft not only her will but a will in identical terms for her husband.

Should the solicitor accept the client’s instructions?

Yes, because the wife is entitled to speak on behalf of her husband.

Yes, because the will is not valid until executed.

No, because the wife is not authorised to give instructions on behalf of her husband.

Yes, because there is no conflict in these instructions.

No, because the husband is owed a duty of confidentiality by the solicitor.

A

(C) The SRA Codes provide that a solicitor can only act for a client on instructions from the client or from someone properly authorised to provide instructions on their behalf. Whilst the wife has shared information about her husband’s estate with the solicitor, the solicitor has not confirmed with the husband that he gives his wife authority to provide the instructions. (A) is incorrect because the wife is not automatically entitled to provide instructions just because of her married status. (B) is incorrect because the regulatory breach occurs at the point the solicitor acts on the instructions and not when the will becomes a legally binding document. (D) is incorrect; even if there is no conflict of interest, there is still a breach because the solicitor does not have proper authority to act. (E) is incorrect because the solicitor does not owe a duty of confidentiality to an individual until the instructions are agreed. The husband is not the solicitor’s client at this point

28
Q

A man makes a will in the presence of two witnesses: the man’s nephew and the man’s friend. Both witnesses are present when the man signs the will. The nephew then signs the will and leaves the room, and then the friend signs the will. The nephew’s spouse is a beneficiary of the will. The friend is illiterate.

Which of the following best describes the legal position regarding the validity of the will?

The will has been validly executed.

The will is invalid as one of the witnesses lacks capacity.

The will is invalid as the nephew was not present when the friend signed the will.

The will is invalid as the spouse of the nephew is a beneficiary of the will.

The will is invalid as the friend is illiterate.

A

(A) The will has been validly executed. To be valid, a will must be in writing and signed by or on behalf of the testator in the presence of two or more witnesses present at the same time who each sign the will in the presence of the testator. On the facts, it appears that these requirements have been met. (B) is incorrect. There is no suggestion that a witness lacks capacity – being illiterate does not mean that an individual lacks capacity. (C) is incorrect. The witnesses must sign in the presence of the testator, but they do not have to sign in the presence of each other. The nephew not being present when the friend signed does not impact on the validity of the will. (D) is incorrect. A beneficiary or their spouse also acting as a witness does not invalidate the will. Instead, any gifts to the beneficiary or their spouse will fail. (E) is incorrect. An illiterate person is capable of acting as a witness, provided that the person is aware that the testator is signing the will.

29
Q

A man dies, leaving a valid will under which his wife is appointed as his executor. The will leaves most of the man’s estate to his son and daughter as residuary beneficiaries. His wife obtains a grant of probate and begins administering the man’s estate. However, she dies shortly after beginning the process, leaving a will appointing her daughter as executor. The daughter has now obtained a grant of probate for the wife’s estate.

Which of the following best describes how the administration of the man’s estate can be progressed?

The daughter is required to administer the man’s estate

The daughter and son equally are entitled to administer the man’s estate.

Any will beneficiary can apply for a new grant of probate for the man’s estate.

A grant de bonis non is needed to complete the administration of the man’s estate.

The son can apply for a new grant of probate for the man’s estate.

A

(A) The daughter is required to administer the man’s estate. When the sole executor of an estate dies and that executor’s executor takes a grant of probate for the deceased executor’s estate, the executor automatically becomes the executor of the original estate. This is known as a chain of representation. Because the daughter has taken a grant of probate for the wife’s estate, she is also required to administer the man’s estate as well. She cannot refuse to be executor by representation of the man’s estate. (B) is incorrect. The son does not have an equal entitlement to administer the man’s estate, as he is not administering the wife’s estate. (C) is incorrect. The daughter automatically becomes executor of the man’s estate when she takes a grant of probate for the wife’s estate. (D) is incorrect. A grant de bonis non is needed when there is no chain of representation between executors. This would occur if the wife’s estate was being handled by an administrator, not an executor. (E) is incorrect. The son is not entitled to apply for a new grant of probate for the man’s estate, as a chain of representation exists.

30
Q

A firm of solicitors is working on a commercial property transaction for its client. It is holding £3,000 on account and has made five payments on its client’s behalf. The firm’s policy is to always use client funds if available.

Which one of the following payments will be recorded on the client side of the client ledger?

A company search fee of £100.

A photocopying bill paid using petty cash.

An agent’s fee of £500 plus VAT, addressed to the firm.

A taxi fare of £10 (to visit the client), paid using petty cash.

A surveyor’s fee of £1,000, plus VAT, paid with a cheque from the client and made out to the surveyor herself.

A

(A) The company search fee can be paid directly from the client account itself, which is in funds and would therefore require a debit entry on the client side of the client ledger. (B) and (D) cannot be recorded on the client side of the client ledger, as petty cash must always be paid using business money. (C) is incorrect because the invoice is addressed to the firm and so under the principal method business money must be used. (E) is incorrect because the cheque is addressed to the surveyor herself; therefore, the firm must simply pass it on and cannot process it in any way.

31
Q

In a property transaction, a law firm has received an interim invoice from a surveyor for £750. The invoice has already been paid by the firm, and a bill has been issued to the client. The client makes a bank transfer of £750.

Which of the following entries would be the most appropriate entry to record this receipt?

Debit Client ledger - Client Side; Credit Cash Account - Client Side

Debit Client ledger - Client Side; Credit Cash Account - Business Side

Credit Client ledger - Client Side; Debit Cash Account - Client Side

Debit Client ledger - Business Side; Credit Cash Account - Business Side.

Credit Client ledger - Business Side; Debit Cash Account - Business Side

A

(E) This receipt is business money because the disbursement has been invoiced and is already paid by the law firm. It should therefore be shown as a credit entry on the business side of the client ledger, and the corresponding entry would be debit on the cash account, business side, as it is money that the client owes to the law firm. All the other options are incorrect as this is not client money because the law firm has incurred the liability and properly billed the client for them, and therefore it should not be shown on the client side of the cash account or client ledger

32
Q

A firm receives a £20,000 cheque from a client to reimburse the firm for Barrister’s fees incurred in an ongoing litigation matter. The firm has already received the Barrister’s bill.

Which of the following correctly describes how the cheque should be dealt with by the firm?

The firm should pay the cheque into its client bank account.

The firm should send the cheque to the Barrister.

The firm should return the cheque and ask for a cheque made payable to the Barrister.

The firm should pay the cheque into a separate stakeholder account.

The firm should pay the cheque into its business bank account.

A

(A) The firm should pay the cheque into its client bank account as this payment comes within the definition of client money under the SRA Accounts Rules. The firm has not yet billed the client for this sum, so it cannot transfer any amount to the business account yet. (B) is incorrect as the solicitor will need to deal with the cheque via its accounts. (C) is incorrect as the solicitor can place the cheque in its bank account and then pay the Barrister. (D) is incorrect as a stakeholder account is not appropriate here, as it is not stakeholder money (a person for whom the firm is holding funds in trust). (E) is incorrect as this is client account not business account money.

33
Q

In breach of trust, a trustee removed £25,000 from the trust bank account and deposited in his own personal bank current account. The bank account had a nil balance before the deposit. The trustee then transferred £25,000 of his own money from his savings account to his current account, producing a balance of £50,000. The trustee then withdrew £40,000 from the account and gambled it at the local casino where he lost all the money. A few days later, he won £40,000 on the lottery which he deposited in his personal bank current account. A beneficiary instructs a solicitor to advise the beneficiary as to their rights.

What advice should the solicitor give the beneficiary?

The beneficiary has a claim to the full £25,000 misappropriated from the account since there are sufficient funds to cover the amount.

The beneficiary has a claim of £10,000 on the funds deposited in the account and a personal action to recover the balance of £15,000.

The beneficiary has no proprietary claim against the trustee but has a personal claim for breach of trust.

The beneficiary has no proprietary or personal claim against the trustee.

The beneficiary has a claim to £10,000 in the account and a personal claim against the casino as a knowing recipient of trust funds.

A

(B) The beneficiary has a claim of £10,000 on the funds deposited in the account and a personal action to recover the balance of £15,000. When a trustee places trust funds into a bank account with the trustee’s own money, the beneficiaries may claim a charge over the account for the amount of the trust funds in it. If the trustee has drawn money out of the account, the basic rule is that the trustee is treated as withdrawing their own money first. If the trustee dissipates the trust money and then subsequently receives their own money, the limit of the beneficiary’s claim is the lowest intermediate balance, which is the balance after the last payment out but before the next payment in. Here, when the trustee gambled and lost the £40,000, he is treated as spending £25,000 of his own money and £15,000 of the trust’s money, leaving £10,000. This was the lowest intermediate balance before the trustee received the lottery winnings. Therefore, the beneficiary is limited to a claim of £10,000 on the funds in the bank account and must bring a personal action to recover the remaining £15,000. Accordingly, (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. (E) is incorrect because a knowing recipient is a third party that received trust money with knowledge of the breach of trust, and it is highly unlikely the casino would have had any knowledge about the breach.

34
Q

A woman made a will several years ago, including the following provisions:

(1) I give my XYZ plc shares to my son.
(2) I give my jewellery to my sister.
(3) I give the remainder of my estate to my husband.

There are no other relevant clauses. The woman, her sister, and her son all died recently in a car accident. The son and sister died immediately, and the woman died in hospital a few weeks later. The son is survived by his wife, who is pregnant with their fourth child, and three other children of his own. The sister had a daughter.

Who is entitled to share in the woman’s estate?

The husband will inherit the entire estate.

The son’s wife will inherit the XYZ plc shares, and the husband will inherit the remainder of the estate.

The XYZ plc shares will be divided equally between the son’s four children, including the new baby when born. The woman’s husband will inherit the rest of the estate.

The shares will be divided equally between the son’s three children. The woman’s husband will inherit the rest of the estate

The shares will be divided equally between the son’s three children, including the new baby when born. The jewellery will pass to the sister’s daughter. The husband will inherit the rest of the estate.

A

(C) The XYZ plc shares will be divided equally between the son’s four children, including the new baby when born. The woman’s husband will inherit the rest of the estate. If a beneficiary has predeceased the testator, the gift to them will lapse. However, if a gift is made to the testator’s issue who die before the testator and who leave living issue of their own, the living issue will receive the gift. This includes children who are conceived but unborn. Here, the woman’s son predeceased her. Therefore, the gift of the shares will pass to the son’s four children in equal shares, assuming that the baby is born. This principle applies only to issue of the testator and not to other beneficiaries. Therefore, the gift of jewellery to the sister does not pass to her daughter and instead lapses. The jewellery will pass to the husband as part of the residuary estate. (A) is incorrect because, as explained, the son’s children are entitled to inherit the shares, and the husband will not receive them as part of the residuary estate. (B) is incorrect because the shares are inherited by the son’s issue, not the son’s wife. (D) is incorrect. Conceived but unborn children are considered ‘living children’ who can receive a gift that was intended for their predeceased parent, and so the shares will be divided between the son’s four (rather than three) children. (E) is incorrect. The gift of jewellery does not pass to the sister’s daughter because the rule that saves lapsed gifts applies only to the testator’s issue. A sister is not within the definition of issue; issue are the testator’s children or remoter lineal descendants only.

35
Q

A solicitor holds £50,000 of money belonging to a client in its client account.

In what circumstances would the SRA Accounts Rules require the solicitor to pay interest to the client?

The amount calculated exceeds £10.

The money is held in the client account in excess of 10 days.

The money is held in the client account in excess of one month.

The money is held in the client account in excess of one week.

After the client has been provided with sufficient information to give informed consent, the client and the solicitor agree in writing how much interest will be paid.

A

(E) No specific circumstance requires interest to be paid. When a solicitor holds money in a client account for a client, they must account to the client for a fair sum of interest unless a separate written agreement has been made and the firm has provided the client with sufficient information to enable them to give informed consent. (A)–(D) are incorrect because there are no stipulations in the SRA Accounts Rules regarding payment of interest based on the time period over which the money is held or the amount of money held. However, each firm must have a written policy on the payment of interest that should be presented to the client at the outset of the transaction.

36
Q

In his will, a man left the residue of his estate to trustees on trust to invest and use the income to encourage young people in the Newtown area to play football.

Is the trust likely to be found valid?

Yes, as a charitable trust.

No, because it breaches the inalienability rule.

No, because it does not have ascertainable beneficiaries.

No, because it lacks public benefit.

Yes, as a trust for a private purpose.

A

A) The trust is valid as a charitable trust. To be charitable, the purposes of the trust must be of a charitable nature (as defined in the Charities Act 2011), it must be for the public benefit, and its objects must be exclusively charitable. The advancement of amateur sport is one of the listed charitable purposes. The inhabitants of a particular area limited by reason of age form an adequate cross-section of the public, and the purpose is exclusively charitable because there is no extra non-charitable purpose. Therefore this is a valid charitable trust. (B) is incorrect because the inalienability rule does not apply to charitable trusts. (C) is incorrect because the requirement for beneficiaries to be certain does not apply to charitable trusts. (D) is incorrect because there is adequate public benefit even where a charity’s objects are limited by age and geographical area. (E) is incorrect because the purpose is for the benefit of the public

37
Q

In his will, a man appointed two trustees to hold all his estate on trust for his sister for life with remainder to her children in equal shares. The sister wishes to raise a capital sum, and one of the trustees has offered to purchase the sister’s life interest.

Which of the following statements best describes the position of the trustee?

She may purchase the sister’s interest under any circumstances.

She may purchase the sister’s interest provided she pays more than the full market value.

She may purchase the sister’s interest if her co-trustee consents.

She may purchase the sister’s interest provided she pays the full market value and makes full disclosure of all material facts.

She may purchase the sister’s interest provided she pays the full market value and the sister’s children consent.

A

(D) The trustee may purchase the sister’s interest provided she pays the full market value and makes full disclosure of all material facts. The ‘fair dealing rule’ applies to the purchase by a trustee of a beneficiary’s interest. A trustee may purchase the interest of a beneficiary provided that the price is fair and full disclosure of all material facts is made. (A) is incorrect because it ignores the rule stated above. (B) is incorrect because the trustee need only pay the full market value, not more. (C) and (E) are incorrect because the consent of a co-trustee or other beneficiaries is not relevant to the purchase of a beneficiary’s interest.

38
Q

One of four trustees of a trust set up in 2014 has reached the age of 70 and wishes to retire from the office of trustee. The three co-trustees are fine with the trustee’s retirement but do not want to have to find a replacement. The trust instrument is silent as to who has the power to appoint new trustees.
Can the trustee retire without being replaced?

Yes, if the trustee obtains the consent by deed of all the co-trustees.

Yes, if the trustee obtains court approval.

No, because the statutory retirement age for trustees is 75.

No, because the co-trustees are required to replace any retiring trustee.

No, because the trustee’s retirement would leave too few trustees in office.

A

(A) The trustee can retire without being replaced if: (1) the trustee obtains the consent by deed of all the co-trustees and the person (if any) given power to appoint new trustees by the trust instrument, and (2) the trustee leaves in office at least two trustees or a trust corporation. (B) is incorrect because court approval is not required. (C) is incorrect because there is no statutory retirement age for trustees. (D) is incorrect because co-trustees are not required to replace a retiring trustee. (E) is incorrect because three trustees would be left in office, and only two are required

39
Q

A client left an instruction with their solicitor to set up a testamentary trust leaving £20,000 for the care of their only pet, their dog, for the rest of its days. The solicitor drafted the trust in those terms. The client has died, and the executor of the will now wishes to know whether the trust, as drafted, is valid.
Is the trust valid?

Yes, because caring for animals is a valid charitable purpose.

Yes, because trusts for the maintenance of animals are valid.

No, because £20,000 is too large a sum to leave for the care of a pet.

No, because it does not provide a valid perpetuity period.

No, because a trust must have human beneficiaries.

A

(D) The trust is not valid. While it is possible to create a valid noncharitable purpose trust for the maintenance of an animal, the trust needs a valid perpetuity period. If the trust may continue for longer than 21 years, it fails. The court will not take judicial notice of the likely lifespan of the animal, so a gift for an animal’s maintenance will fail unless specific provisions are made limiting its duration. (A) is incorrect because a trust for the maintenance of a specific animal is a noncharitable purpose trust, not a charitable trust. (B) is incorrect because, although trusts for the maintenance of animals are valid, they must have limited duration. (C) is incorrect because there is no monetary limit on noncharitable purpose trusts. (E) is incorrect because noncharitable purpose trusts can have beneficiaries that are not human.

40
Q

A man died recently, and his executors are now dealing with his estate. The man’s estate includes a business, which the man previously ran as a sole trader, and which the executors now plan to run until they can sell it. The man also owned a rental property. The tenant of the rental property has just moved out, and the executors plan to find a new tenant.

Which of the following statements about the administration of the man’s estate is correct?

The executors have no power to re-let the rental property following the departure of the tenant.

The executors have the power to carry on running the man’s business.

The executors have the power to sell the rental property but not to re-let it.

The executors have no power to re-let the rental property or sell the business.

The executors have no power to sell the business.

A

(B) The executors have the power to carry on running the man’s business. Personal representatives have a variety of powers to support the administration of an estate. The personal representatives generally have no authority to carry on the deceased’s sole trade, but they can do so in order to sell the business as a going concern, as in this case. (A) is incorrect. Personal representatives have the power to lease estate property. (D) is therefore incorrect. (C) is incorrect. Personal representatives have the power to sell and lease estate property. (E) is incorrect. Personal representatives have the power to sell assets, including a business.

41
Q

A man died in March 2020. Prior to June 2019, the man had made no disposals. In June 2019, he gave £25,000 to a registered charity. He paid his son’s school fees of £4,500 in September 2019 and has paid these regularly for many years. He gave £18,000 to his sister on the occasion of her marriage in January 2020.

What amount (if any) is chargeable to inheritance tax in respect of these events on the man’s death?

11000
18000
9500
15500

A

(A) £11,000. We must first determine what gifts are chargeable to tax. Gifts to charity are not, and the September 2019 gift will be treated as a normal expense out of income (maintenance of family) which is exempt. That leaves only the £18,000 wedding present, which was a potentially exempt transfer when made, but that failed. The £18,000 amount can be reduced by the £1,000 under the gift to marriage exemption for gifts to others. The facts indicate that the man made no other gifts, so the annual gift exemption of £3,000 for the year of the gift and the preceding year can also be applied. Thus, altogether we can reduce the £18,000 gift by £7,000, leaving only £11,000 chargeable to IHT

42
Q

A shopkeeper has owned his own business for 10 years. It sells imported products from the United States. He sells the business for £800,000 to a large multinational Internet firm. The shopkeeper’s employment income is £50,000. The capital gains tax allowance is £12,300. The personal allowance is £12,500. The higher and additional rate thresholds are, respectively, £37,500 and £150,000.

What is the shopkeeper’s capital gains tax liability?

0
80,000
78,770
150.000
220,724
A

(C) £78,770. Ordinarily, to calculate capital gains tax, we would subtract the annual exempt amount from the chargeable gain to arrive at the taxable gain (£56,200 - £12,300 = £43,900 taxable gain). We then would apply a 10% rate to the amount of the taxable gain that is still within the taxpayer’s basic rate band above the taxpayer’s other income and apply a 20% rate to amounts in excess of the basic rate band. However, we would not do that here because Business Asset Disposal Relief (formerly called Entrepreneurs Relief) is available when all or part of a trading business carried on by a sole trader or a partnership for at least two years is disposed of. Here, the shopkeeper sold a business that he carried on for 10 years. Under the relief, a 10% rate applies to the taxable capital gain. Thus, the man would owe (£800,000 - £12,300) x 10%; that is, £787,700 x 10%, which equals £78,770.

43
Q

In his will, a man left the residue of his estate to trustees on trust to invest and to use the income at their discretion to promote health and wellness in the village in which he was living at his death.

Did the man’s will create a valid trust?

Yes, it created a valid private discretionary trust.

No, because it breaches the inalienability rule.

Yes, it created a valid charitable trust.

No, because the beneficiaries are not defined.

Yes, it created a valid trust for a private purpose.

A

(C) The trust is valid as a charitable trust. A charitable trust is a type of purpose trust which is created for the benefit of an indefinite class of persons or the public in general. In order to be charitable, the purposes of the trust must be of a charitable nature (as defined in the Charities Act 2011), it must be for the public benefit, and its objects must be exclusively charitable. A charitable trust is enforceable on behalf of the public at large by the Attorney General, and it may continue indefinitely. Looking at the trust in this case, the advancement of health is one of the listed charitable purposes. The inhabitants of a particular area form an adequate cross-section of the public, and the purpose is exclusively charitable because there is no extra non-charitable purpose. Therefore, this is a valid charitable trust. (A) is incorrect because this is a trust for a purpose, not a discretionary trust. A discretionary trust is a private trust where a class of beneficiaries is defined and where the trustees have discretion as to how the fund is distributed among them. (B) is incorrect because the inalienability rule does not apply to charitable trusts. Private trusts must comply with the inalienability rule, which means that the capital of the fund must not be tied up for longer than the perpetuity period. (D) is incorrect because the requirement for beneficiaries to be certain does not apply to charitable trusts. (E) is incorrect because the trust’s purpose is for the benefit of the public.

44
Q

A statute made it an offence to obstruct a member of the armed forces ‘in the vicinity’ of Buckingham Palace. A man inside (rather than ‘in the vicinity’ of) Buckingham Palace obstructed a member of the armed forces as part of a protest. At trial, the court found the man’s actions to be guilty of the offence.
On which of the following rules of interpretation was the court most likely relying on?

The golden rule.

The literal rule.

The mischief rule.

The purposive approach.

The ejusdem generis doctrine.

A

(A) Occasionally, applying ordinary meanings to words under the literal rule can lead to absurd results. When that happens, under the golden rule, courts may use something other than a word’s ordinary meaning to avoid the absurd result. (B) is incorrect as under the literal rule, when interpreting statutes, courts will give words their ordinary meaning. In other words, the court will apply the dictionary meaning to the words to resolve any ambiguity. Here, using a dictionary definition would lead to an absurd result; a person in the vicinity of a place could be punished but a person actually in the place could not be. (C) and (D) both work in a similar fashion, but would not be applied in this situation as the golden rule would be the first route taken when the literal rule fails. (E) is incorrect because this doctrine is a rule of language interpretation providing that when a general word follows more specific words, the court should give the general word a similar meaning as the specific words.

45
Q

A company owns land next to the claimant’s garden. It has left the land derelict and a pernicious weed not native to the area has become established there. The company was aware of the presence of the weed and knew that the weed spreads rapidly and its roots cause damage. However, it did not take any action to remove or control the weed even though it could have done so early on without significant expense. The weed has now spread into the claimant’s garden and is preventing her from developing her garden as she wishes.

In an action by the claimant against the company for damages, which of the following statements is correct?

The claimant is not likely to have a successful claim based on private nuisance because the weed infestation was an act of nature for which the company cannot be held responsible.

The claimant is likely to have a successful claim based on private nuisance because the company failed to take reasonable steps to prevent the spread of the weed.

The claimant is likely to have a successful claim based on trespass to land because the weed has spread physically into the claimant’s garden.

The claimant is likely to have a successful claim based on the rule in Rylands v Fletcher because the weed was not native to the land in that area and escaped into the claimant’s garden.

The claimant is likely to have a successful claim in private nuisance because the company was obliged to take whatever steps were necessary to stop the weed spreading once it became aware of the threat, regardless of cost.

A

(B) The claimant is likely to have a successful claim. The encroachment of the weed is causing a substantial interference with the claimant’s use of his land. The company did not create the nuisance; it has arisen by an act of nature. However, the company is still liable for the nuisance arising on its land if it knows or ought to know about it and fails to take reasonable steps to deal with it. (In these circumstances the company is said to ‘continue’ the nuisance.) On the facts, the company did know about the weed and the nature of the risk it posed, and the company failed to take reasonable steps to prevent the spread of the weed even though it could have. So, the claimant is likely to have a successful claim in private nuisance provided he can show that the company continued the nuisance by failing to take reasonable steps to prevent the spread of the weed. (A) is not correct. The company can be held responsible for a nuisance created by an act of nature, as explained above. (C) is not correct. Trespass to land deals with intentional and direct interference with the claimant’s possession of land. In contrast, the tort of nuisance covers damage which is indirect, such as the harm that occurred here. (D) is not correct. Liability under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher requires showing that: (1) the defendant brought onto his land something likely to cause harm if it escapes; (2) the defendant was engaged in a non-natural use of the land; and (3) the thing gathered on the land did escape and caused damage. To establish the second element, the defendant must be engaged in a special use of the land which carries an increased risk of danger to others. Here, the company was not engaged in a non-natural use of the land; in fact, it was not using the land at all. Thus, the company is not liable under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. (E) is not correct. The company did not create the nuisance so its liability rests on having failed to take reasonable steps to deal with it, as explained above. The company is only obliged to do what is reasonable, not to remove the nuisance whatever the cost.

46
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a client to act in relation to the sale of some of the shares in the client’s company to a competitor. The competitor intends to buy 75% of the issued share capital in the company from the client for £800,000. The solicitor advises the client on the sale, including preparing the relevant contract and stock transfer forms. Neither the solicitor nor her firm is authorised by the Financial Conduct Authority to carry on a “regulated activity” as defined in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 and related secondary legislation.
Has the solicitor breached the general prohibition against carrying on a regulated activity?

No, because the solicitor may rely on the takeover exclusion.

No, because the exemption for Designated Professional Bodies applies.

No, because the transaction involves the sale of shares in a private company.

Yes, because no exclusion applies.

Yes, because the solicitor is not authorised by the Financial Conduct Authority.

A

(A) The solicitor has not breached the general prohibition against carrying on a regulated activity because she may rely on the takeover exclusion. A regulated activity is defined as an activity specified in the Regulated Activities Order relating to an investment specified in the Order, which is carried out in the course of business, and to which no exclusions apply. Under the takeover exclusion, a solicitor can deal as an agent, arrange, or advise with respect to a client who is buying or selling 50% or more of the voting shares of a company. Here, the solicitor is advising (a specified activity) in relation to shares (a specified investment). However, the advice is in relation to a competitor buying 75% of the shares in the client’s company. Thus, the takeover exclusion applies and the solicitor is not carrying out a regulated activity. (B) is incorrect because, as explained above, there is no regulated activity so the solicitor has no need to rely on the Designated Professional Bodies exemption. (C) is incorrect because shares in private companies are still specified investments which may result in a regulated activity. (D) is incorrect because, as explained above, the takeover exclusion is available. (E) is incorrect because the solicitor is not carrying out a regulated activity and therefore does not need to be authorised.

47
Q

A woman hired a solicitor to issue a nuisance claim against her neighbour, alleging the neighbour repeatedly played music so loud that the woman could no longer enjoy her garden. The solicitor attempted to settle the dispute amicably, but the parties refused. As the claim was for only £2,000, had taken up a lot of the solicitor’s time, and was of very questionable merit, the solicitor pushed the matter aside until the woman called to ask how the claim was progressing. The solicitor then discovered the limitation period had expired.

The solicitor informed the woman that the limitation period had expired. In response, the woman instructed a different solicitor to issue proceedings against her former solicitor for negligence. The claim specifically alleges that (i) the defendant was negligent in missing the limitation period, (ii) but for the negligence, the woman would have won her case, and (iii) her losses are £25,000 damages exclusive of interest and costs.

The woman’s former solicitor hires you to defend the claim. The former solicitor admits to you that they forgot about the limitation period but is adamant that the nuisance claim was speculative and highly unlikely to succeed.

What should the solicitor do?

You should issue a blanket denial of the woman’s case.

You should specifically deny each of the three allegations listed in the facts.

You should admit liability for negligence, but deny the allegations of causation and damages.

You should admit liability for negligence, neither admit nor deny causation, and deny the allegation of damages.

You should indicate that you neither admit nor deny each of the three allegations and leave it for the claimant to prove her case.

A

(D) You should admit liability for negligence, neither admit nor deny causation, and deny the allegation of damages. A defendant may defend a claim by asserting a procedural defence (such as lack of jurisdiction or expiration of the limitation period), negating one of the elements of the cause of action, or disputing the damages. In any case, the defence must be truthful - they must admit allegations that are true, but may deny allegations they believe are false, and say that they neither admit nor deny (that is, issue a non-admission regarding) allegations that are not within their personal knowledge. Here, the defendant has admitted that they were negligent in missing the deadline. Therefore, there is no choice but to admit that in the defence. However, as the defendant believes causation is speculative (that is, they think the former client’s claim was unlikely to succeed in any case), it is not advisable to deny this allegation as it is a hypothetical fact and the defendant cannot therefore categorically say that it is incorrect. On the other hand, the defendant can deny the allegation that the claimant suffered £25,000 damages exclusive of interest and costs, as the original claim was for only £2,000. (A) is incorrect because it is never appropriate to issue a blanket denial - allegations must be admitted or denied individually. (B) is incorrect because, as just explained, the allegation regarding negligence and causation cannot properly be denied. Similarly, (C) is incorrect because it states that the allegation of causation should be denied. (E) is incorrect because, as explained above, a defendant can use a non-admission (that is, neither admit nor deny) only when the allegation goes to a matter not within the defendant’s knowledge. The defendant knows that they were negligent, so at the very least, that must be admitted

48
Q

A man tells his friend that he wants to buy a cheap second-hand car for his daughter. The friend tells the man that he is in luck because his colleague is currently selling his car. The man gets in touch with the colleague who offers to sell him the car for £5,000. The man is tempted, but the car is more expensive and fancier than he was ideally looking for, so he asks the colleague if he can think about it and get back to the colleague in a few days. The colleague agrees. The next evening the man goes for a drink with his friend and tells him that he has fallen in love with the colleague’s car and is going to buy it. The friend tells the man that the colleague has changed his mind about selling his car. In a panic the man calls the colleague immediately and says that he will buy the car.

Is there a binding contract for the sale of the car between the man and the colleague?

Yes, because the colleague was required to communicate to the man the fact that he had changed his mind.

No, because the colleague’s offer had been revoked.

Yes, because the colleague had promised to keep the offer open for a few days so could not go back on his word.

Yes, because there was no counteroffer.

No, because the man’s request to the colleague to keep the offer open was not supported by consideration.

A

(B) The colleague’s offer had been revoked so there is no contract. Revocation must be communicated to the offeree, but this can be done by a reliable third party, which in this case was the man’s friend, so (A) is not correct. (C) is incorrect, as an offer can be revoked at any time, even if there has been a request to keep it open, provided the rules as to communication of revocation have been complied with, which was the case in this scenario. Whilst a counteroffer will terminate an offer, and it is correct that there was no counteroffer in this scenario, (D) is incorrect as the offer had been validly revoked. If a request to keep an offer open is supported by consideration, this creates a separate collateral contract. If the offer is revoked, it is then this separate collateral contract that is breached and the man might be able to claim damages for breach of that collateral contract if he can show loss. However, it would not entitle the man to accept the original offer to sell the car, so (E) is not correct

49
Q

A clothing company wants a solicitor to act for them in an employment discrimination matter. However, a conflict check reveals that a partner at a different branch office of the firm has acted for the clothing company’s main competitor in property matters for many years.

Which of the following statements best describes whether the solicitor should act for the clothing company in the employment discrimination matter?

The solicitor should not act because there is a conflict of interest between the clothing company and its competitor.

The solicitor should not act because whilst there is no actual conflict of interest between the clothing company and its competitor, there is a significant risk of conflict.

The solicitor is not prohibited from acting because the firm acts for the competitor in unrelated matters. However, the firm may choose to decline to act for the clothing company due to professional embarrassment.

The solicitor is not prohibited from acting because the partner who acts for the competitor is at a different branch office of the firm.

The solicitor is not prohibited from acting because the clothing company and the competitor are competing for the same objective.

A

(C) A conflict (or significant risk of conflict) relates to the same matter or a related matter. A general business interest is not sufficiently ‘related’ to create a conflict situation. A firm of solicitors could therefore act for two companies whose main business was the same, provided that it was on unrelated issues. So, the firm here could act in an employment discrimination matter for the clothing company and in conveyancing matters for the competitor without a conflict arising. However, even if there is no significant risk of conflict, the solicitor or firm may decline to act in any event due to professional embarrassment. (A) and (B) are incorrect because there is no conflict or significant risk of conflict in this situation. (D) is incorrect because it is irrelevant that the partner who acts for the competitor is in a different branch office. Even if the partner were in the same branch office, there would be no conflict. (E) is incorrect because the concept of ‘competing for the same objective’ is relevant only when there is a conflict of interest (for example, when two companies who are competing for the same asset want the same firm to act for them in their separate bids for that asset). As discussed, there is no conflict of interest between the clothing company and its competitor because the firm would be acting for the clients in unrelated matters.

50
Q

A woman has a will in which, because of a family quarrel, she left all her wealth to charity and nothing to her two daughters. She then becomes reconciled with her daughters. She instructs her solicitor to draw up a new will which revokes the old one and instead leaves all her wealth to the daughters. The solicitor negligently fails to act on the instructions with sufficient speed, and the woman dies before a new will has been drawn up. The old will remains valid and her daughters do not inherit any of her wealth.
In an action by the daughters against the solicitor to recover damages for their lost inheritance, which of the following best states the likely outcome?

The daughters are not likely to recover because it would not be fair, just, and reasonable to impose a duty of care on the solicitor towards the daughters in the circumstances.

The daughters are likely to recover because solicitor to client is an established duty situation.

The daughters are not likely to recover because they did not instruct the solicitor.

The daughters are not likely to recover because they have suffered pure economic loss.

The daughters are likely to recover because, in drafting the will, the solicitor undertook a responsibility towards them.

A

(E) The daughters are likely to recover. The daughters’ claim will be in the tort of negligence to recover their loss of legacies under the will. This loss is pure economic loss, which generally is not recoverable in the tort of negligence. However, an exception applies where a person providing a service, such as drafting a will, has undertaken a responsibility towards those benefiting from it, such as the beneficiaries under the will. So, a duty of care was owed by the solicitor to the daughters. The facts say that the solicitor was negligent by failing to act, and this breach of duty caused the daughters’ loss. (A) is not correct. Whether it would be ‘fair, just, and reasonable’ to impose a duty of care is one of the factors to be applied in a novel duty situation. However, this is not a novel duty situation because, in the case of negligent provision of services causing pure economic loss, there are already established rules for when a duty of care will be owed. (B) is not correct. It is true that solicitor to client is an established duty situation. However, the facts here do not relate to a solicitor to client relationship because the daughters are not the solicitor’s clients. The duty in question here is solicitor to beneficiary. (C) is not correct. The daughters did not instruct the solicitor, but that is not the factor which determines whether a duty of care was owed to them, as discussed above. (D) is not correct. It is true that the daughters have suffered pure economic loss, but they are likely to be owed a duty of care, as explained above.