m choice Flashcards by Ryan Gavigan

Non setting calcium hydroxide paste, used as an inter-appointment dressing, in endodontic treatment has a pH of around

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Which material has the highest Knoop hardness value

a) Ceromer

b) Feldspathic porcelain

c) High copper amalgam

d) Posterior composite

e) Resin modified glass ionomer

High copper amalgam

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Which piece of legislation is applicable to the design and access layout for all dental practices

a) Adults with incapacity act

b) Equality act

c) Health and safety at work act

d) Mental capacity act

e) Mental health act

Equality act

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Which of the following materials has a thermal expansion similar to tooth enamel

a) Glass ionomer cement

b) Hybrid composite resin

c) Titanium

d) Silver amalgam

e) Setting calcium hydroxide cement

Glass ionomer cement

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When planning periodontal treatment for a patient during pregnancy, you should:

a) As a minimum provide supportive care until after the baby is born

b) To avoid causing the patient anxiety you should not discuss the risks of periodontitis whilst the patient is pregnant

c) Treat as a normal patient, as long as you provide antibiotic cover

d) Wait until the third trimester before carrying out non surgical treatment

e) Wait until the third trimester before carrying out surgical treatment

As a minimum provide supportive care until after the baby is born

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A class II AP skeletal relationship is defined as

The mandible is 2-3mm behind the maxilla

The mandible is 2-3mm in front of the maxilla

The mandible is less than 2-3mm behind the maxilla

The mandible is less than 2-3mm in front of the maxilla

The mandible is more than 2-3mm behind the maxilla

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What is the shape of the preparation for 21 endo treatment

Triangular where the triangle base in closer to incisal edge and the apex is at the cingulum

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Stainless steel benefits from cold working. Which of the following definitions and material benefits best explains this. Cold working….

a) Causes a change in the type of solid solution, making stainless steel stronger under tension

b) Causes precipitation hardening, making stainless steel more corrosion resistant

c) Causes re-arrangement of atoms into an ordered grain structure giving stainless steel greater impact strength

d) Pushes lattice dislocations to the grain boundary, making stainless steel stronger under compression

e) Produces fibrous grains, making stainless steel stronger under flexural loading

Pushes lattice dislocations to the grain boundary, making stainless steel stronger under compression

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Concerning prenatal facial and skull growth, which of the following statements is true?

a) Both the maxilla and mandible develop by endochondral ossification and are preceded by a cartilaginous facial skeleton

b) Meckel’s cartilage and the nasal capsule are considered secondary cartilages

c) Ossification of the face and skull commences at about 8-9 weeks intra uterine

d) The neurocranium encases the brain and the viscerocranium forms the face

e) The vault of the skull is formed by endochondral ossification

The neurocranium encases the brain and the viscerocranium forms the face

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Which combination of properties best describes a dental ceramic:

High compressive strength and brittle

High compressive strength and flexible

Low compressive strength and brittle

Low compressive strength and ductile

Low tensile strength and flexible

High compressive strength and brittle

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In orthodontics for which purpose is a buccal canine retractor used:

To correct the position of a palatally displaced canine

To mesialise a canine in the line of the arch

To move a canine buccally

To retract a buccally positioned canine and move it palatally

To retract a canine into a buccal position

To retract a buccally positioned canine and move it palatally

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Which of the following best describes the work flow in a Local Decontamination Unit

Clean, inspect, pack, sterlization

Clean, inspect, pack, sterilization, decontamination

Decontamination, clean, pack, sterlisation

Decontamination, sterilization, clean, pack

Inspect, clean, sterilisation, pack

Clean, inspect, pack, sterlization

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The ideal detergent for use in a washer disinfector should have a pH closest to:

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Due to a power outage your ultrasonic bath has lost its programmed cycle time and reset to default. How do we find out how long the cycle should be;

a) Check guidance documentation to see what time is recommended

b) Check printouts for a previous cycles and use the average cycle time

c) Check the validation document for the machine to see what the cycle time was previously validated at when the machine was setup and installed

d) Phone a biomedical engineering company and ask somebody what it should be

e) Process some instrumentation and inspect it afterwards to see if it is free from biological matter

Check the validation document for the machine to see what the cycle time was previously validated at when the machine was setup and installed

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If treating a patient with a 7mm overjet and deep traumatic overbite, what instructions should be included on the laboratory prescribtion

FABP 4mm wide

FABP 7mm wide

FABP 10mm wide

Inclined anterior bite plane 7mm wide

Inclined anterior bite plane 10mm wide

FABP 10mm wide

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What concentration of chlorine is commonly used in the cleaning of a blood spillage

500

1000

5000

10000

15000

10000

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What is the main purpose of hand hygiene

Decontamination of hands prior to surgical extractions

Elimination of all microorganisms and cleaning of soiled hands

Removal of resident microflora

Removal of transient microorganisms and cleaning of soiled hands

To show patients we take hand hygiene seriously

Removal of transient microorganisms and cleaning of soiled hands

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The role of the Local Decontamination Unit is to decontaminate:

Complex medical devices

Dental uniforms

Endodontic instruments

Reusable medical devices

Steel burs

Reusable medical devices

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Where is our knowledge of radiation risks to humans primarily derived from?

Computer simulations

Mathematical models

Studies of dental radiology patients

Studies of persons exposed to low dose levels

Studies of persons exposed to high dose levels

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The personnel involved in a dental radiographic examination occur in the following order

Operator, practitioner, referrer

Practitioner, operator, referrer

Practitioner, referrer, operator

Referrer, operator, practitioner

Referrer, practitioner, operator

Referrer, Practitioner, Operator

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In terms of medical devices, which statement best defines sterility

a) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a thousand

b) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in 10 thousand

c) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in 100 thousand

d) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million

e) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 10 in a million

An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million

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Which of the following anatomical features is the most radiolucent on a dental radiograph

Air in the maxillary sinus

Air in the pharynx

Inferior alveolar canal

Incisive fossa

Pulp canal or chamber

Air in the maxillary sinus

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What can be used to minimize the dose to patients during intra oral examinations

Circular collimators

D speed film instead of E speed film

Film instead of digital detector

Longer exposure times

Rectangular collimators

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What frequency is recommended for bitewing radiographs for a high risk adult patient

3 monthly

6 monthly

9 monthly

Annually

Two years

6 monthly

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Which fault will result in an intraoral radiograph being too dark Beam aiming ring not being close to face Excessive time in fixer Increased focus to skin distance Too long an exposure time Too short an exposure time

Too long an exposure time

A 23 year old female with Type 1 Von Willebrand's disease requires the extraction of 3 molar teeth. Which of the following medications will she require prior to removing these teeth Desmopressin (DDAVP) Factor eight inhibitor bypassing activity (FEIBA) Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) Platelets Vitamin K

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

A 68 year old female is taking alendronic acid for osteoporosis. This is the only medication she is prescribed and otherwise she is fit and well. She attends the General Dental Services and requires a non-surgical tooth extraction. How should this patient be managed? Extract the tooth Extract the tooth and review the patient 4 weeks later Extract the tooth, prescribe post operative antibiotics and review the patient 4 weeks later Prescribe antibiotics to be taken 1 week prior to the extraction, extract the tooth and review the patient 4 weeks later Refer the patient to a secondary care service

Extract the tooth and review the patient 4 weeks later

Which of the following statements is true in relation to the Ionizing Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations 2017 IR(ME)R 2017: A member of one of the DCPs (other than the dentist) may act as the referrer Exposures may be carried out without justification The employer must justify every exposure The operator refers only to one person The practitioner must justify every exposure

The practitioner must justify every exposure

The purpose of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 is: Access an Independent mental capacity advocate for people who lack capacity Allow dentists to undertake any treatment they feel is necessary for people who lack capacity Facilitate a best interest meeting to discuss the necessary dental treatment for people who lack capacity Protect and safeguard the welfare and finances of adults who lack capacity Protect dentists from legal challenge when providing treatment for people who lack capacity

Protect and safeguard the welfare and finances of adults who lack capacity

To maximise the skills of all dental team members and deliver an efficient and effective dental service the delivery of supportive periodontal maintenance for individuals resident in a care home with severe impairment and disability is best facilitated by: Dental nurse Dental technician General dental practitioner service dentist Hygiene/therapist Specialist in special care dentistry

Specialist in special care dentistry

In the most common form of dementia, which protein is thought to have a key pathological role? Collagen Elastin Fibrin Tau Protein Tubulin

Tau protein (Alzheimer's)

A 24 year old female presents to your general dental practice complaining of generalized sensitivity from all her teeth. On clinical examination, there is a significant level of erosion affect the palatal and lingual aspects of the incisors. There are also multiple abrasions affecting the soft palate and xerostomia. Which medical disease might these oral finding suggest? Anorexia nervosa Autistic spectrum disorder Bipolar affective disorder Obsessive compulsive disorder Schizophrenia

Anorexia nervosa

A 31 year old male with cerebral palsy requires two restorations. He uses a wheelchair and is unable to weight bear. To facilitate his access to a dental chair which would be the most suitable adjuvant to use: Banana board Sling and hoist Sling and stand aid Treat the patient in his own wheelchair Turn table

Sling and hoist

A patient with a diagnosis of head and neck cancer attends your general dental practice. He was treated 2 years ago with radiotherapy and chemotherapy. He presents with a periapical periodontitis associated with tooth 17. The tooth was in the primary field of radiation. The most appropriate management of this tooth is to: Do nothing Extract the tooth Primary orthograde endodontics Provide antibiotics and review Retrograde endodontic

Primary orthograde endodontics

A 54 year old has completed a course of hygiene phase therapy following a diagnosis of chronic generalised periodontitis. He has a responded poorly to the treatment with no improvement in clinical loss of attachment. He has a BMI of 32 and glaucoma. Which test would be most informative to your further clinical assessment and management Full blood count (FBC) Fasting glucose test (FGT) Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1C) International Normalised Ratio (INR) Liver function test (LFT)

Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1C)

Following dental trauma the most likely place to find a missing tooth fragment is: Out of body In left main bronchi In right main bronchi In soft tissues In stomach

In soft tissues

A 29 year old male with renal failure who requires haemodialysis attends your dental surgery. He requires dental treatment which includes restorations and extractions. When would be the most appropriate time to provide dental treatment following his haemodialysis 2 hours after haemodialysis 24 hours after haemodialysis 48 hours after haemodialysis 72 hours after haemodialysis 1 week after haemodialysis

24 hours after haemodialysis

It is important to modify your behavior as a dentist when treating children with autism. Which of the following modifications should be made: Beware of how you describe things as speech is taken for its literal meaning Have lots of movement in the surgery to make them feel comfortable Only talk to the child's parent Provide lots of appropriate physical contact, hand on shoulder etc. Rapid exposure to new instruments and procedures

Beware of how you describe things as speech is taken for its literal meaning

Which of the following is defined to be a 'Key Principle' of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act? Do not harm Encourage residual capacity Liaise with medical staff Refer to specialists Treat as quickly as possible

Encourage residual capacity

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis can have difficulty in holding a toothbrush due to the destruction of the: Cuneonavicular joint Distal interphalangeal joints Metacarpophalangeal joints Metatarsophalangeal joints Proximal interphalangeal joints

Metacarpophalangeal joints

What dental problem is specifically associated in children with severe cerebral palsy Bruxism Good manual dexterity Hypodontia Laxity of the masticatory muscles Smaller than average tooth size

Bruxism

Drug dosages must often be reduced in the elderly. The most common reason for this is: Drug interactions Increased first pass metabolism Poor drug elimination Poor GI absorption Rapid drug elimination

Poor drug elimination

Weakness of the lower facial muscles and upper limb on the same side starting suddenly during dental treatment would suggest that the patient has had a: Bell's palsy Hypoglycaemic episode Myocardial infarction Transient ischaemic attack Vasovagal attack

Transient ischaemic attack

The above picture shows an extrusion injury in the primary dentition. What is the recommended treatment in this case: Extract the tooth Reposition the tooth with forceps and splint for 2 weeks Reposition the tooth with forceps and splint for 4 weeks Reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 4 weeks Reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 4 weeks

Extract the tooth

If all three lower incisors are displaced lingually and the alveolar bone is mobile what injury would this be? Avulsion injury Dentoalveolar fracture Extrusion injury Root fracture Luxation injury

Dentoalveolar fracture

Which of the following is the most downstream approach that could help reduce dental caries in the child population a) Delivery of dental practice based one to one chairside advice and clinical prevention b) Development of nursery and school based healthy food policies c) Development of universal nursery and school based toothbrushing programmes d) Introduction of sugar sweetened beverage taxation e) Supporting the establishment of community based parenting groups supporting healthy eating and brushing behavior

Delivery of dental practice based one to one chairside advice and clinical prevention

Which sociodemographic factor is associated with the greatest burden of oral diseases in the population across the UK Ethnicity Gender Rurality of residence Sexuality Socioeconomic status

Socioeconomic status

Which of the following is a planned sequential introduction of environment, people, instruments and procedure? Acclimatisation Desensitisation Distraction Positive reinforcement Tell show do

Acclimatisation

What is the MOST suitable for occlusal analysis Fixed condylar Fully adjustable Plasterless Semi-adjustable Simple hinge

Fully adjustable

When the mandible is in its most reproducible relationship to the maxilla during closure, the point at which the teeth contact is called Centric relation Habitual position Intercuspal position Rest position Retruded contact position

Retruded contact position

During root canal treatment of the maxillary first molars, where is an 'extra' canal often situated Distobuccal root In the furcation region Mesiobuccal root Mesiopalatal root Palatal root

Mesiobuccal root

Which of the following options describes a tooth guidance scheme in lateral excursion in which a number of posterior teeth on the working side contact but there is disocclusion of the teeth on the non working side Anterior guidance Balanced articulation Balanced occlusion Canine guidance Group function

Group function

During root canal treatment, which one of the following is normally used as a reference point for the working length A graduated 'seeker' file A rubber stop Cusp or incisal tip Level of access cavity The floor of the pulp chamber

Cusp or incisal tip

In which of the following types of periodontal defect is bone regeneration most likely to occur following successful treatment: Circumferential intrabony defect Horizontal bone loss One walled interproximal intrabony defect Through and through furcation defect Two walled interproximal bone defect

Two walled interproximal bone defect

If a site has a probing depth of 7mm and the gingival margin is located 2mm coronal to the ACJ the attachment loss is equal to 2mm 3mm 5mm 7mm 9mm

5mm

At re-evaluation under what circumstances would periodontal surgery be indicated Excellent oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm Excellent oral hygiene, pockets of 3-4mm and increased tooth mobility Poor oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm Pockets of greater or equal to 7mm, irrespective of oral hygiene Poor oral hygiene, pockets of 3-4mm and increased tooth mobility

Excellent oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm

A CPITN score of 3 indicates that: There is loss of attachment There is no inflammation There is no pocketing There is pocketing of between 3.5 and 5.5mm There is pocketing in excess of 5.5mm

There is pocketing of between 3.5 and 5.5mm

Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of tooth discoloration Chromogenic bacteria Iron supplements Smoking Tannins Tetracycline

Tetracycline

Which of the following describes the shape of an access cavity for an upper central incisor An oval, wider mesiodistally than gingivoincisally, just incisal to the cingulum An oval, wider gingivoincisally than mesiodistally, just incisal to the cingulum A diamond shape extending from the cingulum to the incisal edge A triangle with its apex above the cingulum and its base towards the incisal edge A triangle with its base above the cingulum and its apex close to the incisal edge

A triangle with its apex above the cingulum and its base towards the incisal edge

Which of the following statements about success of endodontic treatment is true a) An obturation that extends all the way to the radiographic apex of the tooth is essential for success b) Apical seal is more important than coronal seal in determining outcome c) Overextension of gutta percha does not have an impact upon outcome d) Root canal obturation extending to within 2mm of the radiographic apex contributes to success e) Sealer extrusion has a detrimental effect on outcomes

Root canal obturation extending to within 2mm of the radiographic apex contributes to success

When undertaking root canal treatment, what inter-visit regimen should generally be utilised within the root canal Gutta percha point Hard setting calcium hydroxide Non setting calcium hydroxide Paper point with sterile saline Zinc oxide and eugenol

Non setting calcium hydroxide

A fit and healthy patient attends your practice for the first time. He presents with poor plaque control, generalised gingival erythema and bleeding on gentle probing. There is no evidence on attachment loss. The most appropriate first line of treatment would be Oral hygiene instruction Prescribe chlorhexidine mouthwash Prescribe metronidazole Root surface debridement Scale and polish

Oral hygiene instruction

When restoring an endodontically treated upper first molar, which cusps should be covered by the restoration: Full cuspal coverage Functional cusps Mesiobuccal cusp and marginal ridges Palatal cusps Unsupported cusps

Full cuspal coverage

In healthy teeth, the biological width, comprising the supra-alveolar connective tissue attachment and junctional epithelium has an approximate dimension of: 0.5mm 1mm 2mm 3mm 3.5mm

2mm

In the new periodontal classification, staging and grading of disease refers to Distribution and progression respectively Distribution and severity respectively Progression and extent respectively Progression and severity respectively Severity and progression respectively

Severity and progression respectively

Which from the list below is a local risk factor for periodontal disease Calculus Diabetes HIV infection Rheumatoid arthritis Smoking

Calculus

With regards to the luxator instrument, which of the following statements is correct: It is classified as an elevator just like the Coupland's elevator It is designed to cut the PDL around a root It is often used to elevate a fractured tooth root It should be used with heavy force when luxating a tooth Its tip is flat and blunt to avoid damaging dental tissues

It is designed to cut the PDL around a root

What would be the most appropriate post surgical advice to give a to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off Heavy manual work can be performed on the day Pain killers will always be required Smoking has no significant effect on the healing process Start rinsing within six hours of the extraction with warm salty water

Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off

You are about to extract multiple teeth on a fit and healthy 40 year old male. What is the maximum safe dose of Articaine 4% with adrenaline 1:100,000 that you can administer? 3mg/kg 5mg/kg 7mg/kg 9mg/kg 11mg/kg

7mg/kg

You are about to extract multiple teeth on a fit and healthy 70 year old male who weighs 52kgs. How many standard 2.2mL cartridges of lignocaine 2% with adrenaline 1:80,000 can you safely administer 4 5 6 7 8

Which of the following would be described as a rare complication following a routine tooth extractions Dry socket Infected socket Osteomyelitis Pain Trismus

Osteomyelitis

Which of the following could be described as a perioperative complication Dry socket Ecchymosis Fracture of the alveolar plate Oedema Trismus

Fracture of the alveolar plate

A patient returns to the clinic one week following removal of a lower wisdom tooth. They describe a sharp, shooting, painful sensation affecting their lower lip. Which of the following terms is used to describe this Anaesthesia Dysaesthesia Hyperaesthesia Hypoaesthesia Parasthesia

Dysaesthesia

The lingual nerve usually sits deep within the lingual mucosa adjacent to the posterior molar teeth. In what percentage of cases does it sit above the level of the lingual bone that can be hazardous when thinking of raising a flap to remove a lower wisdom tooth 1-3% 5-8% 10-13% 15-18% 20-23%

15-18%

Which of the following drugs has been described by the BNF as 'ineffective to relieve dental pain' and therefore would not be routinely prescribed? Cocodamol Diclofenac Dihydrocodeine Ibuprofen Paracetamol

Dihydrocodeine

What is the maximum safe dose of paracetamol that a fit and healthy patient can take over a 24 hour period? 1g 2g 3g 4g 5g

Which of the following substances is active against bacteria, fungi and yeasts Amoxicillin Chlorhexidine Hydrated silica Metronidazole Stannous fluoride

Chlorhexidine

Which of these bacteria is associated with periodontitis Escherichia coli Pasteurella multocida Porphyromonas gingivalis Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus oralis

Porphyromonas gingivalis

Which of these bacteria are associated with dental caries Streptococcus gordonii Streptococcus mitis Streotococcus mutans Streptococcus oralis Streptococcus pyogenes

Streotococcus mutans

Where do positively charged molecules (RNH+) which are the active molecules of the local anesthetic salt, bind in sensory nerves to block impulse conduction Activation gate Inactivation gate Outer surface receptor Receptor within the sodium channel Within the cell membrane

Receptor within the sodium channel

The future trends for edentulous rates in the UK are projected to be A decrease in all age groups A decrease only in younger age groups An increase in all age groups An increase in only younger age groups No change

A decrease in all age groups

Which of the following can be defined as 'an individual's belief that they can succeed at a particular task or behaviour' Compliance External locus of control Reasoned action Self efficacy Subjective norms

Self efficacy

Which of the following community fluoride delivery initiatives are currently in place in Scotland Fluoridated nursery and school milk schemes Fluoridation of nursery and school water supply Fluoridation of public water supply Fluoride mouth rinsing schemes in nurseries and schools Fluoride varnish schemes in nurseries and schools

Fluoride varnish schemes in nurseries and schools

Which of these candida species are inherently resistant to intraconazole? Candida albicans Candida dubliniesis Candida glabrata Candida parapsilosis Candida tropicalis

Candida glabrata

Which of the following statements is true Candida glabrata biofilms are sensitive to intraconazole Candida albicans biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin P. gingivalis biofilms are sensitive to fluconazole P. intermedia biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin Streptococcus mutans biofilms are sensitive to itraconazole

Candida albicans biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin

When subjects are randomly allocated to different interventions, followed up and outcomes assessed, the most appropriate study design is: Case control Case series Cohort Cross sectional Randomized controlled trial

Randomized controlled trial

In relation to the research finding 'Among those who have never drunk alcohol, cigarette smoking was associated with an increased risk of head and neck cancer (odds ratio for ever versus never smoking = 2.13, 95% CI = 1.52 to 2.98)' which of the following is true: a) Cigarette smoking doubles the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol b) Cigarette smoking halves the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol c) Cigarette smoking is not associated with increased risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol d) Drinking alcohol is not associated with increased risk of head and neck cancer in those who smoke cigarettes e) Never drinking alcohol halves the risk of head and neck cancer among those who smoke cigarettes

Cigarette smoking doubles the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol

When well/healthy participants are recruited to a study, followed up over time and exposures and diseases are measured prospectively, the most appropriate study design is: Case control Case series Cohort Cross sectional RCT

cohort

Which of the following is a lifestyle behavior Age Alcohol consumption Gender Household income Hypertension

Alcohol consumption

A 44 year old male reports that he consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. This is consumed over two days. What advice should you give him? a) He is consuming less than the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and does not require cessation advice b) He is consuming less than the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and should be encouraged to reduce his consumption c) He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and does not require cessation advice d) He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread out these over five days with two alcohol free days

He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread out these over five days with two alcohol free days

The inverse care law proposed by Dr Julian Tudor Hart is used to describe Area level of healthcare needs but is unrelated to access to care Areas least in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it Areas most in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it Areas most in need of good healthcare are most likely to receive it Level of access to care but is unrelated to area level of healthcare needs

Areas most in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it

When epidemiologists judge the evidence to establish possible cause of a disease from an exposure they consider: Evidence from one study is sufficient to establish causality Evidence of the strength of association between exposure and disease Evidence that the exposure of interest appeared after the disease Evidence showing that increase in the exposure reduced the risk of the disease Evidence showing that reduction in exposure has no effect on the risk of the outcome

Evidence of the strength of association between exposure and disease

Which of the following anatomical statements is the best explanation for numbness of the tongue after administering an inferior alveolar nerve block: The lingual nerve is related to the mandible at the third molar tooth The lingual nerve lies between the medial pterygoid muscle and the mandible The tongue and the floor of the mouth have the same sensory innervation The tongue is innervated by the hypoglossal nerve The tongue is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve

The lingual nerve lies between the medial pterygoid muscle and the mandible

A dental radiograph shows the pterygoid hamulus. Of which bone is the pterygoid hamulus a component? Maxilla Palatine Sphenoid Temporal Vomer

Sphenoid

Which of the following is the most powerful predictor of future caries experience Caries in primary teeth Frequent intakes of sugar Low socioeconomic status Medically compromised Poor oral hygiene

Caries in primary teeth

Which of the following would you recommend while undertaking dietary analysis in a young child with caries in their primary teeth Acidic drinks should be restricted to meal times An overnight bottle can contain water or milk Drinks containing soy formula are OK between meals Grazing on sugary foods is OK if you brush your teeth afterwards Sucrose free stick snacks are OK for your teeth

Acidic drinks should be restricted to meal times

The process of blinding or masking the outcome assessor in a Randomized Controlled Trial helps to minimize: The confidence intervals The risk of bias The risk ratio The sample size Variation between individuals

The risk of bias

Which study design is most appropriate for the following research question 'What is the incidence of implant failure in smokers?' Case control Cohort Cross sectional Randomized controlled trial Systematic review and meta analysis of RCTs

Cohort

Which facial syndrome has the following features: deformity of 1st and 2nd branchial arches with anti-mongoloid slant palpebral fissure, colobomas of lower eyelid outer one third, hypoplastic or missing zygomatic arches, hypoplastic mandible with antegonial notch, deformed pinna and conductive deafness Acrosyndactyly Hemifacial microsomia Foetal alcohol syndrome Craniofacial dysostosis (Crouzon's) Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)

Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)

Which of the following is a possible sign of physical child abuse: Child taken for care soon after injury occurred History of injury consistent with development age of child Injuries consistent with developmental age of child Multiple injuries round the mouth Parent concerned about possible long term consequences of injury

Multiple injuries round the mouth

Which of the following is an indication for primary molar endodontics Age (12 and over) Cardiac disease Cellulitis Good cooperation Pus in pulp chamber

Good cooperation

The property of occlusal forces that the dentist is most able to influence through careful design of occlusal surfaces is Direction Duration Frequency Velocity Magnitude

direction

Which percentage of phosphoric acid is normally used to etch enamel prior to placing composite restorations 17% phosphoric acid 27% phosphoric acid 37% phosphoric acid 47% phosphoric acid 57% phosphoric acid

37% phosphoric acid

In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of jaw registration is: To determine the intermaxillary relationship in intercuspal position To determine the intermaxillary relationship in retruded contact position To record the denture space To record the freeway space

To determine the intermaxillary relationship in retruded contact position

In the development of dentinal caries, which one of the following is the earliest observed event: Beading of tubules Initial demineralisation Invasion of pioneer bacteria Liquefaction foci Pulpal necrosis

beading of tubules

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest: Atrial fibrillation Congestive heart failure Deep vein thrombosis Left heart failure Ventricular fibrillation

Atrial fibrillation

For epidemiological purposes periodontal health can be measured by which index: CPITN dmft/DMFT IOTN PAR TF

CPITN

You are examining the neck of a patient who has had a recent throat infection. Which of the following observations on the lymph nodes is most likely to be consistent with this diagnosis Enlarged deep cervical nodes only Enlargement of the parotid nodes only Enlargement of the submandibular nodes only Enlargement of the submental, submandibular and deep cervical nodes Generalised lymph node enlargement

Enlargement of the submental, submandibular and deep cervical nodes

In relation to the Spaulding classification for medical devices: a) Critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and must be serilized b) Critical devices are those that contact only intact skin and must be sterilized c) Non critical devices are those that contact only intact skin and must be sterilized d) Semi critical devices are those that contact normally sterile tissue and must be sterilized e) Semi critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilized

Semi critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilized

Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which of the following sugars is present within the diet Fructose Glucose Lactose Mannose Sucrose

Sucrose

Which statement is true for the role of the glycocalyx in biofilms It aids diffusion of antibiotics It increases natural killer cell function It is composed of proteins It is prone to desiccation It provides a protective barrier

It provides a protective barrier

Deamination of amino acids a) Generates the corresponding keto acids b) Only occurs when amino acid concentration is low c) Occurs at low pH d) Produces amines e) Produces CO2

Generates the corresponding keto acids

When thinking about the potential of post operative bleeding following a tooth extraction, which of the following would be regarded as a systemic haemostatis agent that could be provided to help alleviate prolonged bleeding Adrenaline containing local anaesthetic Fibrin foam Oxidised regenerated cellulose Thrombin paste and powder Tranexamic acid

Tranexamic acid

What is the documented incidence of permanent neuro-sensory damage to the inferior alveolar nerve following extraction of a low risk wisdom tooth? <1% <5% <10% <15% <20%

<1%

In orthodontics anterior bite planes are used for: Facilitating correction of an anterior crossbite Increasing the overbite Protecting brackets of a fixed appliance on lower incisors from the occlusal force of upper incisors Reducing the overbite Reducing the overjet

Reducing the overbite

Which of the following statements is true of childhood Leukaemia? 40% are acute lymphoblast leukaemia (A.L.L) Female more than male May be present with gingival bleeding Peak age is 9-12 years Presents with primary herpes

May be present with gingival bleeding

During root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal, which one of the following provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier: Acidulated fluorophosphate (APF) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) Sodium hypochlorite Sterile saline Water

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

Osteoporosis is a common finding in the elderly and can result in: An increase in the risk of lower vertebral fractures An increase in the risk of maxillary fractures Antlanto-occipital instability Calcification of the bones leading to stress fractures The inability to walk without a stick

An increase in the risk of lower vertebral fractures

Osteoarthritis is frequently a problem in the elderly. The main supplement or drug taken to reduce the disability associated with this is: Bisphosphonates Calcium supplements Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories Prednisolone Vitamin D

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories

In radiographic localisation, the acronym SLOB stands for Same Lingual Opposite Buccal Simply Lingual Or Buccal Some Lingual Others Buccal Stay Lingual Or Buccal Sure Lingual Or Buccal

Same Lingual Opposite Buccal

The probability of photoelectric absorption effects occurring in radiography is proportional to: Atomic number^3 (Z^3) Film speed Kilovoltage^3 (kV^3) Patient size X ray technique

Atomic number^3 (Z^3)

What is the correct color of Rinn film holder to use when taking a conventional periapical radiograph of tooth 26 Black Blue Green Red Yellow

Yellow

You are treating a patient who has a satisfactorily root-treated lower molar and you intend to place a crown. Which of the following is the best method of retaining a core a) Placing a direct prefabricated post b) Use of adhesion only c) Use of dentine pins d) Using an indirect cast post e) Using the pulp chamber and coronal root canal morphology to retain a plastic material

Use of adhesion only

Which of the following spaces would be the most common for an acute abscess to track from an upper lateral incisor tooth Buccal Infraorbital Palatal Parapharyngeal Submental

Palatal

An elderly patient feels faint when made to sit rapidly from lying flat in the dental chair. The most likely reason in the ageing patient for this is: Angiotensin II insensitivity Increased baroreceptor response Poorly maintained blood glucose during dental treatment Reduced baroreceptor response Reduced renal renin release

Reduced baroreceptor response

A 25 year old male with severe intellectual disability, attends your practice, accompanied by his carers. He needs several restorations and an extraction. Under current SCOTTISH legislation who can consent on his behalf Assignee Carer Either parent Welfare guardian Welfare power of attorney

Welfare guardian

Which difference is NOT a cause of varying temperature regulation in children compared to adults Brown fat metabolism Immature responses to hypothermia Large head surface area and heat loss Low surface area to body weight ratio Require a higher temperature for thermoneutral environment

Low surface area to body weight ratio

When preparing an upper first permanent molar for a metal ceramic crown, a functional cusp bevel is placed on which cusp Cusp of carabelli Disto buccal Disto palatal Mesio buccal Mesio palatal

Mesio palatal

The correct degree of axial taper in an ideal crown preparation is: 1 7 12 15 20

The fit surface of a porcelain laminate veneer is prepared with the following acid: Citric acid Hydrochloric acid Hydrofluoric acid Phosphoric acid Nitric acid

Hydrofluoric acid

A patient, who is an older person, attends his general practitioner because he has been losing weight and getting increasingly breathless. The GP takes a blood sample to check for the presence of anaemia. Which (first line) blood test does a GP request Full blood count (FBC) Intrinsic factor Liver function tests (LFT) Thyroid function tests (TFT) Urea and electrolytes (U and E)

Full blood count (FBC)

Haemophilia A is caused by deficiency of: Factor V Factor VIII Factor IX Factor X Vitamin K

Factor VIII

Which study design provides the highest level of evidence for the following research question: is ibuprofen an paracetamol more effective than paracetamol alone in pain relief after surgical removal of lower wisdom tooth? Case control Cohort Cross sectional Matched pair RCT

RCT

You are a dentist in general practice and are required to provide a new upper denture for an 80 year old female with dementia who lacks capacity to consent for treatment. You have attended an additional Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Course allowing you complete Section 47 (AWI) forms. How would you best proceed a) Complete a Section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment b) Consult the continuing power of attorney, complete a section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment c) Consult the welfare power of attorney and provide treatment d) Consult a welfare power of attorney, complete a section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment e) Provide treatment

Consult a welfare power of attorney, complete a section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment

A 42 year old female with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, who is dependent upon a wheelchair wants to attend your dental practice for her oral healthcare. You work in a practice which is situated on the third level up from the ground which is only accessible by stairs. How should you manage this situation a) Install a lift in order to facilitate access to the practice b) Refer the patient to another practice or the public dental service (PDS) which has access for wheelchair users c) Tell a colleague in your practice that she must go and visit the patient as a domiciliary visit d) Tell the patient she will have to climb the stairs if she wishes to attend the practice e) Tell the patient that your practice would not be suitable for her

Refer the patient to another practice or the public dental service (PDS) which has access for wheelchair users

A 60 year old male attends your dental practice 6 months following completion of radiotherapy for his left tonsillar tumour. He is attending complaining of dry mouth. He wears a maxillary complete denture and has 10 mandibular teeth remaining. You decide to prescribe a saliva substitute. Which of the following saliva substitutes should not be prescribed to him Biotene Oralbalance gel BioXtra gel Glandosane aerosol spray Saliva orthana spray Xerotin oral spray

Glandosane aerosol spray

Hypothyroid patients will usually be found to have A high T4 and high TSH A high T4 and low TSH A low T3 and low TSH A low T4 and high TSH A low T4 and low TSH

A low T4 and high TSH

When positioning a patient for a panoramic radiograph (OPT), which anatomical reference should be horizontal Ala tragus line Corner of mouth angle of mandible Corner of mouth tragus line Frankfort plane Lower border of the mandible

Frankfort plane

How often should a test film be exposed and processed in general dental practice for quality assurance Twice daily Daily Every two days Weekly Every two weeks

Daily

The primary aim of a clinical audit is to: Ensure clinical practice is based on traditional techniques Gather information on clinical care Improve health economics Improve patient care and outcomes Obtain evidence for use in disciplinary procedures

Improve patient care and outcomes

When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which anatomical reference is used to assess the occlusal plane? Ala-tragus line Corner of mouth angle of mandible Corner of mouth tragus line Frankfort plane Interpupillary line

Ala-tragus line

Elastomers can reproduce surface features of width: 1 micrometers 2 micrometers 5 micrometers 10 micrometers 20 micrometers

20 micrometers

A 76 year old woman has fallen in her garden and sustained minor head injury. Twelve days later she has become increasingly confused and unable to walk. Clinical imaging reveals an intracranial haemorrhage. Which of the following vessels is most likely to have bled? Cavernous sinus Middle cerebral artery Middle meningeal artery Ophthalmic vein Superior cerebral vein

Superior cerebral vein

A class III AP skeletal relationship is defined as: The mandible is 2-3mm behind the maxilla The mandible is 2-3mm in front of the maxilla The mandible is less than 2-3mm in behind the maxilla The mandible is less than 2-3mm in front of the maxilla The mandible is more than 2-3mm behind the maxilla

The mandible is less than 2-3mm in behind the maxilla

Which statement is correct regarding children with cystic fibrosis a) Diabetes is an early complication of the condition b) Obstruction of the pancreatic duct prevents the movement of amylase into the intestine c) They have a lower than average risk of developing dental erosion d) They should not eat a carbohydrate rich diet e) Thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract

Thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract

A 17 year old man has sustained deep cut over the posterior part of the body of the mandible on the left side of his face. The facial artery and submandibular salivary gland were not damaged. The wound has been sutured. Which of the following clinical tests would be the most appropriate to carry out? Elevate shoulders Protrude tongue Say 'Ahhh' Test sensation of the face Whistle

Test sensation of the face

What is the Christensen's phenomenon A gap that appears between anterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded A gap that appears in between posterior teeth in the retruded contact position A gap that appears in the natural dentition between anterior teeth when the mandible is protruded A gap that appears in the natural dentition between posterior teeth when the mandible is protruded

A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded

A lateral cephalometric radiograph is taken for a patient requiring the following orthodontic treatment: A simple removable appliance Correcting a unilateral crossbite Functional appliance therapy Moving a buccally placed canine into the arch Moving an upper lateral incisor over the bite

Functional appliance therapy

A patient, previously prescribed warfarin has now been prescribed a medication which directly inhibits thrombin. He requires extraction of teeth 44, 45, 46 and 47. He has an appointment on Monday at 0900 to have all these teeth removed. What instructions would you give him in relation to his medication? Delay your scheduled morning dose of apixaban until 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved then take your normal evening dose Delay your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran until 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved and then take your normal evening dose Delay your scheduled morning dose of rivaroxaban and take the medication 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved Miss your scheduled morning dose of apixaban and take the medication as normal in the evening Miss your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran and take the medication as normal in the evening

Miss your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran and take the medication as normal in the evening

Which of the following would be considered an intravenous bisphosphonate drug that may cause complications following routine dental extraction Alendronic Acid Disodium Etidronate Risedronate Sodium Sodium Clodronate Zoledronic acid

Zoledronic acid

Which of the following applies to flap design Smaller flaps should be used as they heal quicker The apex of the flap should be wider than the base The base of the flap should be wider than the apex The height of the flap should always exceed that of the base There should always be two vertical incisions

The base of the flap should be wider than the apex

What is the correct color of Rinn film holder to use when taking a bitewing radiograph Black Blue Green Red Yellow

Red

All healthcare workers (HCWs) including members of the dental team, should be immunized against Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Herpes zoster virus (HZV)

Hepatitis B

In addition to using a mercury vapor suppressant, how would you safely dispose of waste amalgam Aspirate into the central suction unit Dispose of in yellow sharps container Double wrap and place in clinical waste bag Flush down the sink or toilet Place in spill proof, leak proof container

Place in spill proof, leak proof container

Select the statement that best describes alcohol hand rubs/gels Are effective against spores of C. difficile Can be used as a substitute for glove wearing Commonly cause adverse reactions Has no effect on transient microorganisms Only effective when hands are visibly clean

Only effective when hands are visibly clean

Which of the following microorganisms is commonly responsible for venous cannula related infections Herpes simplex virus Salmonella typhimurium Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus aureus Streptococcus mutans

Staphylococcus epidermidis

In dental panoramic radiography, which of the following statements is true A protective lead apron should be worn by the patient Horizontal distortion of the teeth is not influenced by patient positioning Patient positioning is facilitated by ear rods The X ray beam is aimed upwards at approximately 8 degrees The X ray tube head passes around the front of the patients head

The X ray beam is aimed upwards at approximately 8 degrees

Intra oral charge coupled device (CCD) digital X ray sensors: Are less sensitive to X rays than F speed film Are more sensitive to X rays than F speed film Must always be protected by red safelight Must always be protected from white light Typically demonstrate wide latitude

Are more sensitive to X rays than F speed film

A 60 year old male presents to your general dental practice. He has been living with a diagnosis of myeloma for 3 years. He presents to your clinic with an area of exposed bone in the lower right posterior aspect of the mandible which has been present for 10 weeks, following a tooth extraction. What is the most likely diagnosis Medication induced oral ulceration Medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) Odontogenic keratocyst Osteomyelitis of the mandible Radiation induced osteonecrosis of the jaw (ORN)

Medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ)

An 83 year old woman was eating salmon and thinks that a fish bone has been stuck in her throat. She is able to speak, and no bone is visible on oral examination. At which site is the fishbone most likely to have lodged Glottis Opening of the auditory tube Pharyngeal recess Piriform fossa Tonsillar fossa

Piriform fossa

What is the most important factor for long term success of a crown

Coronal seal 2-3mm from apex

Which is the best articulator for registering occlusion

Fully adjustable articulator

What is the length of biological width

Space that exists between the bottom of the gingival sulcus and the underlying bone. Connective tissue + junctional epithelium (2mm)

What is the most common child physical impairment

Cerebral palsy 1 in 600.

What is the angulation of the vertical beam in a panoramic radiograph

vertical beam up 8 degrees

What is an irregular pulse called

Atrial fibrillation

What should be recorded in a maxillary definitive denture impression

Complete denture bearing area Width and depth of sulcus Make sure tori are included

What muscle is found medial to the zygomatic arch

Temporalis

What is used for cleaning blood spillages

Sodium hypochlorite Dichloroisocyanurate

What is the concentration of chlorine for a blood spillage

10,000ppm of chlorine

For how long should the label be kept for waste disposal and what is this label called

3 years consignment note

What are the products of glycolysis

Glucose --> 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

What sugar produces more lactate

Sucrose

Where do local anesthetics bind to

Voltage gated sodium channels and block the influx of sodium.

Why decrease drug dosage in the elderly

Reduced excretory capacity in the kidney

How much fluoride is found in mouthwash

225ppmF

What are fluoride tablets UK guidelines for high risk children

6m-3yr: 0.25mg 3-6yrs: 0.5mg >6yrs: 1.0mg

Name the 6 steps of how a traditional film X ray image is produced

Developing - Rinsing - Fixation - Removing - Washing - Drying

What joints are most commonly affected by rheumatoid arthritis

MCP (metacarpophalangeal) and PIP (proximal interphalangeal)

What does kVp refer to

Kilovoltage peak, Also known as peak potential difference or voltage

What is the scatter effect responsible for on radiographic image

Photons scattered backwards: do not affect image Photons scattered obliquely may still reach the image but will interact with the wrong area: causes darkening of image in the wrong place, results in fogging of image which reduces image contrast/quality

Patient with erythematous and poor oral hygiene shows up to your practice for the first time. What would you give him?

OHI and chlorhexidine mouthwash

What is the function of a buccal canine retractor

To retract buccally erupted canine palatally

Patient with overbite and overjet of 7mm, would you give an anterior or posterior occlusal bite plane and what width would it be

Flat anterior bite plane with a width of the overjet + 3mm 7mm + 3mm = 10mm

Which occlusal bite plane would you use for an anterior crossbite

Flat posterior bite plane

What is the greatest danger for elders with osteoporosis

Vertebral fracture 50% and most dangerous

What study design gives the most reliable results

Randomized control trial

What is the index tool for periodontal problems what what does it stand for

CPITN probe Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs

Which material has the best mechanical properties gold or porcelain

Gold

In crown prep of anterior teeth, how many planes should the prep be

2 plane

What is it called when the mandible moves to the right and the posterior teeth on the left do not contact

Canine guidance

What is it called when the mandibular condyles are in their most posterior position and the teeth are in contact

Retruded contact position

What should the minimum thickness of the aluminum on the X ray filtration be

<70kV = 1.5mm 70kV or more = 2.5mm

What medication/advice to give with an OAF

No to nose blowing, using straws, smoking and using a steam inhaler Give antibiotics

In bacteria, phosphorus is used in the form of inorganic phosphate to produce what

ATP through cellular respiration

A 25-year-old patient, who is otherwise fit and healthy, presents with 6-7 mm pocketing throughout the mouth and associated bleeding on probing. There is no gingival enlargement. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Acute Periodontitis B. Generalised aggressive periodontitis C. Localised aggressive periodontitis D. Generalised chronic periodontitis E. Localised chronic periodontitis

B) Generalized aggressive periodontitis

Who is at greater risk for heart disease and hypertension

Old people

Out of the following options which are you always going to refer to a specialist -Organ transplant and severe hemophiliac patient -Warfarin patient -Prosthetic limb patient

Organ transplant patient and severe hemophiliac

Patients who have Hemophilia A are deficient in what clotting factor

Factor VIII

What is the line of reference for upper oblique occlusal radiographs. What is it for the lower?

Upper: Ala tragus line Lower: corner of mouth to tragus

What does the curve of monson represent

An imaginary curve that follows the occlusal plane of teeth and represents the relationship between the upper and lower arches

What does the quality of photons depend on

Distance (fsd) 100mm for <60kV 200mm for 60kV or more

If the radiograph is too dark what could be the problem

Overexposure. Developer left on for too long

What color is the holder for anterior periapical

Blue

What color is the holder for bitewings

Red

What color is the holder for posterior periapicals

Yellow

What does the sphere of monson tell us about the inclination of upper and lower teeth

Maxillary teeth tilt buccally Mandibular teeth tilt lingually

Where is the dot on the side of the X ray film orientated for periapicals and bitewings

Periapical: dot on bottom of film holder Bitewings: dot on top of film holder

How often should the radiology equipment be tested

Process test film daily

What is the indication on a radiograph of chronic occlusal trauma

Widened PDL

What is a luxator used for

Sever the periodontal ligament

What is the most important measurement for full dentures design

OVD

What is a type of cerebral palsy Alzheimers Dementia Lewy body Ataxic Ischaemic

Ataxic

What acid etch is used in dentistry

35% phosphoric acid

Deamination of amino acids gives off

Ketone acid and ammonia

How do you make a veneer more adhesive

Lab with 10% HF acid

What is usually used as a reference point in endo

Posterior teeth: cusp tip Anterior teeth: incisal edge

Which material is used for canals between visits

Non setting calcium hydroxide

A recent randomised controlled trial (Clarkson et al., 2009) conducted in Scotland, used psychological models to frame the delivery of an intervention to improve dental hygiene. Having utilised Social Cognitive Theory to improve the patients' perceptions of their competence at tooth brushing, which model was utilised to ensure that the patients brushed their teeth regularly? A. Social support B. Theory of Reasoned Action C. Implementation Intentions D. Locus of Control E. Stanton's Model of Adherence

C. Implementation intentions

Which toothpaste concentration for high risk 2 year old kid

1350-1500ppmF

What is the primary aim of an audit?

Improve healthcare - ensure standards are being met

What is the first line blood test for anaemia?

Full blood count

What method is used to spot novelty in microorganisms

PCR and 16S rRNA amplification and cloning

Alcohol based hand rub (ABHR) is NOT useful against what particular bacteria

Clostridium Difficile

What is the definition of viscoelasticity

ability to demonstrate viscous and elastic properties

How much of the damage to nerves with lower 8 removal is temporary and how much is permanent

Temporary (10-20%) Permanent (<1%)

What is it called when a patient experiences abnormal pain sensation as a result to damage to nerves

Dysaesthesia

60kV what is the most use photons: 8 18 48 58 68

58kV

What is the most important piece of information to tell the radiographer

Clinical findings and radiographic view

What is cystic fibrosis?

Thick mucus which impedes cilias movement

What is an oral complication of cerebral palsy

Bruxism

What drug is often used as a first line to treat osteoarthritis

NSAIDs

What drug is often used to treat candida albicans

Fluconazole

What is the definition of a anteroposterior skeletal class III

Mandible in front of maxilla

How could you reduce trauma to the pulp during restorative procedure

Use a coolant (water)

Following restoration of a single tooth under LA, how would you appropriately determine occlusal contacts?

Use thin articulating paper

Dose reduction in intraoral radiography is best achieved by which collimation and by how much is the reduction

Rectangular collimation reduces dose by 50%

What is the speed film that would give the patient a reduction in exposure time and dose and by how much

F speed film F is 20% faster than E (E is twice as fast as D) This would result in 20% reduction in exposure time & dose

Prescribing medication for children requires alteration from an adult prescription. The most important change to make is?

Dose of the drug

Diabetes is a common disorder in the elderly. Complications of this condition that lead to difficulty in being independent. The complication is most likely?

Maculopathy Diabetic maculopathy

Patient who is a 45 year old male with significant oral ulceration may have an underlying anaemia what is another possible underlying medical condition that may cause oral ulceration and anaemia

Peptic ulcer disease

In a patient with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth gives rise to

Widening of the PDL and increased mobility

The retruded axis is

Dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis

What is chroma?

Intensity of color

You perform an extraction on a patient. The patient comes back 3 hours later bleeding. What is the preferential immediate treatment?

Bite on gauze with firm and even pressure

Under conditions of high sugar supply, what is formed under anaerobic conditions?

Lactate

What are facultative anaerobes?

Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

During root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal, what provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier?

EDTA 17%

Bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest that the patient has what?

Congestive heart failure

Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by?

Disorganised liver repair

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest the patient has?

Atrial fibrillation

Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of what?

Crohn's disease

What strength of daily fluoride mouthwash is recommended for a 9 year old child

225ppmF

Where are emergency airways located

Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages

What pair of muscles retains dentures in their correct position

Buccinator and orbicularis oris

When planning the construction of a bridge, a facebow is used, what is the function of a facebow

Records the relationship of the maxillary arch to the mandibular condyles

In dental panoramic radiography, horizontal magnification of all anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error

The patient is too far back from the X ray source

With regard to intra oral xray film and film packet, where should the embossed dot or identification dot be

The embossed dot should ALWAYS face towards the Xray beam

Why is porcelain crown better than Ceromer crown, if retention preparation not good

Better bond

What is dysarthria?

Speech disorder that affects the muscles used for speech production

What is the max root length safely left in an obturation

1-2mm for obturation 3-5mm for post

In cystic fibrosis what is wrong

thick mucus that clogs the airways in the lungs

What is the percentage of dry socket and osteonecrosis

Dry socket: 2-3% (20-30% for lower 8s) Osteonecrosis: <1%

How can you affect crown forces

Direction

Loss of sensation in left face and right upper limb what could be the cause

Multi-ischaemic event

Where is the lingual nerve position

Between medial pterygoid and mandible

What does glycocalyx offer

Protection

What is niche

Role of an organism in ecological environment

What is the maximum number of electrons that M can hold in its shell

2n^2 K L M N O P 2(3)^2 = 18

When would you use microabrasion as a form of tooth whitening To remove staining caused from poryphyria To remove intrinsic staining like tertracycline To remove extrinsic staining from consuming coffee After fixed appliance orthodontics to remove demineralisation spots To remove tetracycline grey stains

After fixed appliance orthodontics to remove demineralisation spots

What do you give for virus, bacteria and fungi

Chlorhexidine

Is the rotation of the condyle on the working side in horizontal or vertical axis

Vertical

What is a Class I anteroposterior skeletal relationship

Maxilla 2-3 mm in front of mandible

What property do elastomers have that alginate does not

Can store because of dimensional stability. Alginate absorbs/releases moisture which causes it to change dimensions Elastomers have higher elastic recovery while alginate exhibits more permanent deformation

What etch is normally used for porcelain

10% Hydrofluoric acid (HF)

Person with osteoarthritis has poor manual dexterity which of the bones are affected

Metacarpals: DIP

What happens when caries is at dentine

Beaded or tubular dentine formation

What is the difference between zinc phosphate cement and zinc polycarboxylate

Zinc phosphate has higher modulus and compressive strength In zinc polycarboxylate, phosphoric acid is replaced by polyacrylic acid.

Patient had injury on left side of mandible. Facial artery and submandibular are safe and intact, what test would to perform to test area?

Test sensation of the face

Person is 65 year old, had submandibular swelling, no signs of pain, what kind of metastasis is it?

Posterior of the tongue

What happens at the anode and what type of spectrums does it produce

Electrons from the filament of the cathode made of tungsten bombard the metal block made of tungsten of the anode to produce photons characteristic and continuous spectrum.

Which act is to do with changing the practice layout to cater to disabled people

Equality act 2010

Which bacteria is most likely found in periodontal disease

Porphyromonas gingivalis

What are indications for periodontal surgery

Excellent OH Pocket of 5mm or greater

Which virulence factor has contribution with P. gingivalis to cause periodontal disease

Gingipains and fimbriae

In the principles of flap design which one is appropriate -Do not cut deep -Base is wider than the apex -Do not cut the papilla and leave it intact -The flap must be small

Base is wider than the apex

Which tooth is likely to have an extra canal

First mandibular molar

What is the color of the rims you would use for endo radiograph

Green

What Hepatitis do dentists have to be vaccinated against

Hepatitis A and B

If 60kVp, what would the kV be?

60kV

Which family member of the child can automatically consent for treatment under general anaesthetic

Mother of the child

Which of the following is true about investment materials -They should ideally be porous to allow gas to escape -They have a contraction of about 7% -They are heated at 1400C for 3 hours

They should ideally be porous to allow gas to escape

Which of the following is considered dental neglect -Child attended first time at 7 years old -Fails to respond to recommended treatment plan -Sibling had multiple extractions under general anesthetic

Fails to respond to recommended treatment plan

What is good diet advice for someone who enjoys the consumption of acidic drinks

Consume acidic drinks at meal times

Which syndrome is associated with maxillary hypoplasia, class III occlusion, AOB and parrot's beak note

Apert's syndrome (acrosyndactyly)

Which syndrome is characterized by unilateral mandibular hypoplasia and deafness on that side

Hemifacial microsomia

What is the probability in finding one viable microorganism in sterilized items

1 in 1,000,000

A patient attend with a resistance to opening of the mouth and sore right temporomandibular joint. What muscle is responsible

Lateral pterygoid

What concentration of toothpaste would you give someone who is 12 years old and high risk

2800ppmF

How does Childsmile contribute to fluoride delivery

Fluoride varnish in nurseries and schools

What is the best way to provide evidence of a study or treatment

Randomized control trial

Which splint-trauma is correct -4 weeks flexible splint extrusion -2 weeks flexible splint intrusion -2 weeks flexible splint luxation -2 weeks flexible splint avulsion

2 weeks flexible splint avulsion

What should the pH be for the washer disinfector

pH 7

A prospective study where individuals were observed over period of time to measure frequency of occurrence of disease, what is this type of study known as

Cohort study

What drug would reduce morbidity of osteoarthritis

Analgesics

What are bisphosphonates that are administered intravenously

Zoledronic acid

Loss of sensation of lower face and upper limb on the same side.

Transient ischemic attack

What is the individual behavior that gives them belief they can succeed in a task

Self efficacy

Which of the following is the most appropriate post operative advice to stop bleeding -Rinse with saline water -Bite on damp gauze for 30 minutes -Use mouthwash to clean the area -Take Ibuprofen and paracetamol -Call the contact number as soon as bleeding occurs

Bite on damp gauze for 30 minutes

Which post operative advice is most applicable following an extraction -Analgesics is recommended and don't eat until anesthesia worn off -Drink cold drinks to help with the pain -Do not smoke but you can consume alcohol in moderation -Smoke in moderation but limit alcohol to 14 units a week

Analgesics is recommended and don't eat until anesthesia worn off

What BPE score is a depth of <3.5mm with bleeding on probing and no plaque retentive factors

Score 1

What is a flat anterior bite plane used for

Correct overbite

Which one affects radiographic technique -Curve of monsoon tilts up posteriorly, curve of monsoon affects vertical angulation -Curve of spee tilts down posteriorly, curve of spee affect vertical angulation -Curve of spee and monsoon are synonyms

Curve of spee tilts down posteriorly, curve of spee affect vertical angulation

Which enzyme produces glucans

Glucosyltransferylase

What is a very important paediatric indication for RCT

Good patient cooperation

What is the intrinsic factor of staining

Tetracycline

What is the maximum concentration of carbamide peroxide that is legal

16% Carbamide peroxide equates to 6% hydrogen peroxide

What sinus drains to the submandibular nodes

Maxillary sinus

What is the most powerful predictor of future caries

Caries in the primary dentition

Select the best option incompetent lips seal -Can contribute to end of treatment instability following orthodontic treatment -Are lips that meet at rest and relaxed mentalis muscle -Are lips that do not have sufficient thickness -May procline upper incisors -May lead to relapse of overjet if persists at the end of treatment

Can contribute to end of treatment instability following orthodontic treatment

The pterygoid hamulus is part of which bone

Sphenoid bone

What are the dental aspects of systemic sclerosis

Involvement of perioral tissues -limited mouth opening and tongue movement

For a lower molar, how do you retain core after endodontic treatment

Adhesive

Which film is the fastest -E speed -D speed -F speed -Digital

Digital

Which of the following increases fear/anxiety in a paediatric patient -Not taking patients thoughts into consideration -Using a high speed handpiece -Doing an invasive procedure on the child -Any procedure involving pain or some discomfort -Listening to the patients wishes

Not taking patients thoughts into consideration

Frequency of bitewing radiographs for high risk adults

Every 6 months

What is the FGDP guidelines for taking radiographs for low, moderate and high risk adults and children

High risk: primary and permanent every 6 months Moderate risk: once a year Low risk: primary every 12-18 months, permanent every 2 years

What is the percentage of temporary damage to the IAN

1-10%

Calculate the loss of attachment for a probing depth of 7mm and the ACJ being 2mm above the gingival margin

7mm + (-2mm) = 5mm

In the reproducibility of elastomers what is the narrowest notch in the ISO norm standard test

20 microns

What is a risk factor for atherosclerosis

Genetics

What is a semi critical device

A device that comes into contact with non intact skin or mucous membrane, but does not penetrate soft tissue or make contact with the bloodstream, bone or normally sterile tissue The device must be cleaned and subject to high-level disinfection. Steam sterilization preferred.

How many maximum cartridges of lidocaine would you give a 70kg adult

7 cartridges

For someone with learning difficulty who can make dental treatment decisions for them

Welfare guardian

Which of the following is a suspicious indicator of child abuse or neglect -Delayed presentation of dental trauma -Parent shows interest in the treatment of their child -All dental appointments kept -There is a loving relationship between the parent and child

Delayed presentation of dental trauma

Your adult patient attend their appointment heavily under the influence of drugs or alcohol. You realize that they have also brought a child along with them who is sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate course of action -Call the duty social worker at the local social services department to see if they can look after the child as the parent is unfit to do so -Find out if another family member or friend can pick up the child and care for them until the parent is able to do so -Contact the local police station to help deal with the situation -Let the child leave with the intoxicated parent. After all they are not your patient

Let the child leave with the intoxicated parent. After all they are not your patient

From when should a parent be using a toothbrush for their child -When their first tooth erupts -When they start consuming sugars -When they are born -When they start eating solid foods

When their first tooth erupts

For a 6 month old child at low risk of caries, which of the following brushing regime would you recommend? -Small pea size amount of 1000ppm for twice daily brushing -Small pea size amount of 500ppm for twice daily brushing -Smear of 500ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing -Smear of 1000ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing

Smear of 1000ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing

What age would you recommend pea size of toothpaste

Smear of paste (approx. 0.1ml) for children under 3 Pea-sized amount (approx. 0.25ml) for children age 3 and over

A parent calls your surgery to advise that their child has ingested some toothpaste. Which of the following is not an essential question for you to ask -Age/weight of the child -Color of toothpaste -Strength of toothpaste -Amount of toothpaste

Color of toothpaste

What is the strength of fluoride in Duraphat varnish

22,600ppmF

The Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act has NOT made it illegal to: -Hit a child with any kind of object -Hit a child anywhere on the head -Smack a child -Shake a child

Smack a child: smacking is not illegal in Scotland but the other three answers are

Who are the main agency concerned with coordinating child protection procedures? -Police -General medical practitioners -Health visitors -Social services

Social services

Which of the following in isolation would NOT be a suspicious indicator of child abuse/neglect -A torn upper labial frenum -Multiple injuries in different locations -Late presentation of an injury -A child who is clearly dirty and smells of unwashed clothes first thing on a monday

A torn upper labial frenum

When should topical fluorides (other than toothpaste) be taken? -With a drink of milk -At a different time from toothbrushing -Along with meals -Instead of toothbrushing

At a different time from toothbrushing

Which is the correct drug information that should be written on a prescription to allow a tube of Duraphat 2,800ppM toothpaste be dispensed -Duraphat toothpaste 5mg/kg -Duraphat toothpaste 2,800ppm -Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste -1.1% Sodium Fluoride toothpaste

Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste (1.1% Sodium Fluoride toothpaste is 5000ppmF)

What is the least amount of fluoride in toothpaste that you should recommend for a 2 year old child -1450ppm -1000ppm -500ppm -225ppm -1350ppm

1000ppm

Which of the following is not one of the take home messages from the Marimho 2008 review of the evidence for topical fluoride -The higher the caries rate, the greater the preventive effect of topical fluorides -Additional topical fluorides (e.g. mouthwash, varnish, tablets) used as well as toothpaste further reduce the occurrence of caries -Fluoride varnish is the most important method of delivering topical fluoride -Fluoride toothpaste prevents dental caries

Fluoride varnish is the most important method of delivering topical fluoride

Which of the following is not suitable for a 10 year old child -22,600 fluoride varnish -1mg fluoride tablet -1,450ppm fluoride toothpaste -5,000ppm fluoride toothpaste

5,000ppm fluoride toothpaste

How much fluoride would provide a probable toxic dose? -5mg/kg -2mg/kg -6.5mg/kg -1mg/kg

5mg/kg

On undertaking a CPITN examination with a CPITN probe, the coloured band remains completely visible in all pockets. However, there is bleeding after probing but there are no identifiable calculus or plaque retentive factors. What is the CPITN score for this sextant? 0 1 2 3 4

One large glass (250 ml) of white wine (12% strength) contains how many UK units of alcohol A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 3 E. 3.5

Formula: volume in mL x strength / 1000 = Units of alcohol 250 x 12 / 1000 = 3

Which of the following should be used to correct a buccally positioned canine on an orthodontic laboratory prescription? A. Palatal finger spring HSSW 0.5 mm B. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.5 mm tubing C. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.7 mm tubing D. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.7 mm in 0.7 mm tubing E. Labial bow HSSW 0.7 mm tubing

B. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.5 mm tubing

When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which external line or plane is used to assess the occlusal plane? A. Frankfort Plane B. Ala-tragus line C. Corner of mouth-tragus line D. Interpupillary line E. Corner of mouth-angle of mandible

B. Ala-tragus line

Dose reduction in intra-oral radiography is best achieved by which combination? A. Circular collimation, E speed film B. Circular collimation, F speed film C. Rectangular collimation, D speed film D. Rectangular collimation, E speed film E. Rectangular collimation, F speed film

E. Rectangular collimation, F speed film

Diabetes is a common disorder in the elderly. Complications of this condition may lead to difficulty in independent living. The complication most likely to produce this issue is: A. Glove and stocking sensory loss B. Atherosclerosis C. Renal failure D. Poor wound healing E. Maculopathy

E. Maculopathy

Patients with significant oral ulceration may have an underlying anaemia. The medical problem most likely to produce this problem in a 45 year old male is: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Asthma C. Renal transplantation D. Coeliac disease E. Colon cancer

A. Peptic ulcer disease

The retruded axis (centric relation): A. Is dependent upon the relationship of the teeth B. Occurs with the mandible in its most protruded position C. Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis D. Is a non-border movement E. Is a position that can always be achieved unaided by the patient

C. Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis

With relation to shade prescription for an indirect tooth-coloured restoration the term "Chroma" refers to which element of the restoration's colour? A. Lightness B. The intensity of the colour C. The actual colour D. Tone E. Luminance

B. The intensity of the colour

You performed an extraction 3 hours earlier on a fit and healthy patient. The patient has returned to the surgery, complaining of bleeding from the extraction site. What is your preferred immediate management? A. Lie the patient flat B. Pack the socket with Alvogyl C. Loosen the patient's tight clothing D. Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack E. Take the patient's blood pressure

D. Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack

Under conditions of high sugar supply, which of the following are preferably formed under anaerobic conditions? A. Acetate B. Ethanol C. Lactate D. Acetaldehyde E. Butyrate

C. Lactate

Facultative anaerobes: A. Grow in the presence of oxygen only B. Grow in the presence of carbon dioxide only C. Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen D. Grow in the presence or absence of carbon dioxide E. Grow under any atmospheric conditions

C. Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

Following restoration of a single tooth under local anaesthesia, which of the following is the most appropriate to determine suitable occlusal contacts? A. Assess using a facebow registration B. Ask the patient to bite and determine if the occlusion feels fine C. Direct vision to assess tooth-tooth contact D. Listen to hear if there is audible tooth contact E. Use thin articulating paper

E. Use thin articulating paper

The zygomatic process of the maxilla is partly seen as a vertical radiopaque line on a panoramic radiograph. With which bony margin of the maxillary sinus can it be confused? A. Inferior B. Superior C. Anterior D. Posterior E. Media

D. Posterior

Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which one of the following sugars is present within the diet? A. Glucose B. Mannose C. Fructose D. Sucrose E. Xylitol

D. Sucrose

Which of the following describes the endodontic file movement when performing "Balanced Force" instrumentation as described by Roane? A. A 60o turn clockwise followed by a 60o turn anticlockwise, repeated B. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated C. A 120o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated D. A 60o turn clockwise followed by a 120o turn anticlockwise, repeated E. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 90o turn anticlockwise, repeated

B. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated

In root canal treatment, what is the recommended shape for the access cavity for maxillary and mandibular premolars? A. Triangular B. Ovoid C. Round D. Oblong E. Trapezoid

D. Oblong

Bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest that the patient has: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Left heart failure D. Congestive heart failure E. Hyperproteinaemia

D. Congestive heart failure

Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by: A. Hepatitis C infection B. Liver cell destruction C. Disorganised liver repair D. Enhanced drug metabolism E. Enhanced gall stone formation

C. Disorganised liver repair

Which of the following statements is correct? a. Stone has the densest mass of the gypsum materials used for dental casts b. Densite has densest mass of the gypsum materials used for dental casts c. Stone has a less dense mass than plaster and densite gypsum materials used for dental casts d. Plaster has the densest mass of the gypsum materials used for dental casts e. Plaster has a less dense mass than stone and densite gypsum materials used for dental casts

e. Plaster has a less dense mass than stone and densite gypsum materials used for dental casts

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Left heart failure D. Congestive heart failure E. Hyperproteinaemia

A. Atrial fibrillation

Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of: A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Coeliac disease D. Crohn's disease E. Diverticulitis

D. Crohn's disease

What strength of once daily Fluoride mouthwash would you recommend for a nine-year-old child? A. 100 ppm B. 225 ppm C. 250 ppm D. 500 ppm E. 650 ppm

B. 225 ppm

What would be the most appropriate post-surgical advice to give to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction? A. Start rinsing as soon as possible with warm salty water B. Smoking has no significant effect on the healing C. Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off D. Pain killers will not be required E. Heavy manual work can be performed on the day

C. Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off

Which of the following pairs of muscles is particularly important in retaining dentures in their correct position? A. Buccinator and masseter B. Buccinator and mylohyoid C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris D. Digastric and genioglossus E. Hyoglossus and mylohyoid

C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris

When planning the construction of a bridge, the purpose of a face-bow is? A. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the lower arch B. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles C. To record the relationship of the lower arch to the mandibular condyles D. To enable lateral and protrusive movements to be visualised E. To ensure that the cusp inclines on the restoration are correct

B. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles

Which if the following materials has the best mechanical properties for the restoration of occlusal surfaces? A. Amalgam B. Composite C. Glass Ionomer D. Porcelain E. Gold

E. Gold

In dental panoramic radiography horizontal magnification of all the anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error: A. The patient is too far forward in the machine (closer to the cassette) B. The patient's chin is tilted up C. The patient's chin is tilted down D. The patient is rotated E. The patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the X-ray source)

E. The patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the X-ray source)

With regard to the intra-oral X-ray film and film packet which of the following statements is true?: A. The white side of the film packet always faces away from the x-ray tube-head B. The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the X-ray source C. Lead foil is present in the film packet to prevent x-rays exposing the film D. The film has emulsion on one side only E. The film packet contains black paper to protect the film from scattered x-rays

B. The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the X-ray source

Select the correct statement about facial development -Neurocranium covers the vault and viscerum the face -Vault is produced by endochondral ossification -Meckels and nasal cartilage are secondary cartilages -Mandible and maxilla produced by endochondral ossification -Ossification of skull begins at week 8-9

Neurocranium covers the vault and viscerum the face

How many number of buccal planes for an upper central crown 1 2 3 4

Upper lateral incisor where does it drain -Palatal -Infraorbital -Buccal

Palatal

A cut to the deep part of the body of mandible has occurred. Which of the following tests would you carry out -Whistle -Protrude tongue -Sensation of the face

Sensation of the face

Damage to Inferior alveolar nerve on extraction of lower 3rd molar is <1% 1-10% 10-20% 20-30%

10-20%

Vertical relationship of the teeth to the condyle and the movement of the condyle forward

Sagittal condylar guidance angle

What is porcelains brittle strength -0.1% -0.5% -1% -1.5% -2%

0.1%

Which syndrome is characterised by shallow orbits, Class III malocclusion and vertical shortening of midface

Crouzon's

For extraoral radiographs, such as panoramic radiographs, the beam aiming device should be positioned -Less than 1cm from skin -1-2cm from skin -More than 2cm from skin

1-2cm from skin

How much of a retained root can be left safely in the socket of a patient 1mm 2mm 3mm 5mm 7mm

3mm

What fluoride tablet concentration would you give a 1 year old with high caries risk

0.25mg/day

Rate of edentulous people are -increasing in all age groups -decreasing in all age groups -staying the same in all age groups -are expected to rise in the elderly -are expected to rise in the younger population

Decreasing in all age groups

Pattern of caries risk in children is -decreasing in all areas -decreasing in some areas -increasing in areas with poverty and lack of education -decreasing in deprived areas -increasing in areas where dental care is hard to access

Decreasing in all areas

What is the best way to identify a patient arriving at radiology -Get them to tell you their details -Check their identification -Ask them to confirm details that you read out loud

Get them to tell you their details

What structures must be captured on the maxillary load bearing areas impression: Tori Hamuli Sulci Alveolar ridge Incisive papilla

Alveolar ridge

What is the most appropriate study type to find the incidence in implant failure in smokers -Case control -Cohort -Cross sectional -RCT -Systemic review RCT

Cohort

What is the most appropriate study type to find the prevalence of disease in a population -Case control -Cohort -Cross sectional -RCT -Systemic review RCT

Cross sectional study

What is the best way to provide evidence of the treatment of a disease -Case control -Cohort -Cross sectional -RCT -Systemic review RCT

RCT

Why do randomized controlled trials randomly assign patients to the different interventions rather than letting the patients choose which intervention they prefer also known as blinding?

To avoid bias

While extracting a upper 8 the maxillary tuberosity fractures. What is the best course of action -Surgically extract the 8 then splint for 8 weeks -Splint for 4 weeks then surgically extract the 8 -Splint for 8 weeks then surgically extract the 8 -Surgically extract the 8 then splint for 4 weeks -Remove the fractured tuberosity fragment and the 8

Splint for 8 weeks then surgically extract the 8

What is the probing depth for a BPE score of 3

3.5-5.5mm

What pocket depth in teens can indicate early periodontitis -1mm -2mm -0.5mm -3mm

3mm

How do you determine the anteroposterior skeletal relationship in a patient

Visual assessment Palpate skeletal bases

What type of etch is used for paediatric fissure sealant placement

38% phosphoric acid

Which sugar produces glucans

Sucrose

What should the minimum thickness of the aluminum on the X ray filtration be for 70kV

2.5mm

When would you use micro abrasion as a form of tooth whitening -tetracycline brown stain -tetracycline grey stain -Poryphyria -To remove demineralisation once fixed orthodontic appliance removed

To remove demineralisation once fixed orthodontic appliance removed

Trauma has occurred to primary central incisor, which of the following is NOT appropriate -Replant and splint -Soft diet advice -Review monthly until permanent successor erupts -Do not brush area until soft tissue heals

Replant and splint

What does the R in ARAB stand for

Retention

Difference between alginate and elastomers

Contact angle is higher in alginate

Which type of LA should you avoid for pregnant woman Articaine Citanest Lidocaine Bupivacaine Mepivacaine

Citanest

Where is the extra canal in upper first molar

Mesiobuccal root

What is the general virulence factor for all periodontal disease

Endotoxin

Lying patient back in chair makes the patient feel light headed what is the cause of this

Decreased baroreceptor

The term 'Boxing-in' refers to: a. a method of preserving the outline and functional integrity of primary and definitive casts b. a method of preserving the outline of definitive casts c. a method of preserving the outline of primary casts d. a method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus using rubber moulds e. a method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus

A method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus using rubber moulds

Where should the post dam be cut for a maxillary denture a. Approximately 2mm distal to the palatine fovea on the definitive cast b. Approximately 2mm in anterior to the palatine fovea on the definitive cast c. On the soft palate distal to the hard palate to provide compression of the soft tissue d. On the compressible tissue at the distal of the hard palate indicated by the vibrating line e. At the junction of the hard and soft palate indicated by the vibrating line on the definitive cast

At the junction of the hard and soft palate indicated by the vibrating line on the definitive cast

The purpose of the split-cast technique used when mounting casts on an articulator is to check the occlusal vertical dimension following processing of the denture. a. False, as this technique is only used when a facebow has not been used to mount casts b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded c. . False, since the incisal post indicates the occlusal vertical dimension d. True when the incisal post is located on the incisal table. e. True, when casts have appropriate locations grooves cut in the base

True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded

When prescribing special trays for complete dentures which statement is the most appropriate? a. Edentulous trays with perforations for complete dentures enable a more through decontamination process. b. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material. c. Edentulous trays with perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material. d. Edentulous trays without perforations are stronger that perforated trays. e. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures assist in estimating a peripheral seal.

b. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material.

If the occlusal vertical dimension is reduced by 2mm, what effect might this have for the complete dentures? a. It will reduce the free-way space b. No effect if the teeth used are set in balanced occlusion c. It will increase the free-way space d. The resting face height will be increased e. The resting face height will be decreased

It will increase the free-way space

When considering the design of special trays which of the following statements is most applicable? a. The depth of a special tray should be to the depth of the primary cast vestibular sulcus when an alginate impression or composition primary impression was used. b. The width of special trays depends on the type of material used. c. The width of a special tray is determined by the using greenstick impression compound when making a definitive impression. d. The width of a special tray should be approximately 3mm from vestibular sulcus depth when making a definitive impression. e. The depth of the tray should be approximately 3mm from the crest of the alveolar ridge.

The width of a special tray should be approximately 3mm from vestibular sulcus depth when making a definitive impression.

In a monoplane occlusal scheme the posterior teeth are set? a. with a compensating curve in harmony with the condylar guidance angle b. to eliminate the effect of Christensen's phenomena c. in a cusp to fossa relationship. d. with a compensating curve in harmony with the cusp angle e. in a cusp to marginal ridge relationship

b. to eliminate the effect of Christensen's phenomena

The purpose of the stub tray handle is: a. To enable the correct positioning of the tray on the alveolar ridges. b. To enable manipulation of the soft tissues in the anterior region. c. To enable the insertion and removal of the tray. d. To enable the correct location of the incisive papilla in relation to the alveolar ridge. e. To enable the handle to rest on the opposing alveolar ridge while the impression material sets

To enable the insertion and removal of the tray.

When setting artificial teeth which cusp on the maxillary first molar occludes with the central fossa of the mandibular first molar in a class I relationship? a. mesial - buccal b. mesial - palatal c. distal - buccal d. The second premolar occludes with the mandibular first molar e. distal - palatal

mesial - palatal

Which of the following is a property of dental ceramic Ductile Flexible Brittle High strength Tensile

Brittle

Which primary denture bearing area should be recorded in a mandibular impression Mandibular tori Functional sulcus Buccal shelf Mylohyoid ridge Lingual pouch

Buccal shelf

What is the 'Neutral Zone'? a. The space between the OVD and resting face height b. The space between the canine teeth and lips when smiling c. The space between the anterior teeth in balanced occlusion d. The space between the vestibular sulcus of the maxilla and mandible e. The space between the muscles of the lips, cheeks and tongue

The space between the muscles of the lips, cheeks and tongue

When mounting casts using an arbitrary mounting technique, how should the casts be positioned on the articulator? a. The occlusal plane is parallel to Camper's plane. b. The occlusal plane is set to an equilateral triangle with the condylar spheres c. The occlusal plane is parallel to the Frankfurt plane. d. The occlusal plane is set at 10 degrees to the condylar guidance angle. e. The occlusal plane is set to a horizontal position

The occlusal plane is set to a horizontal position

What nerves are anaesthetised when an upper canine tooth is extracted? A. Inferior alveolar and long buccal nerve B. Nasopalatine & greater palatine nerves, anterior & middle superior alveolar nerves, infraorbital nerve C. Long buccal nerve and mental nerve D. Nasopalatine nerve and infraorbital nerve E. Lingual nerve and nerve to mylohyoid

B. Nasopalatine & greater palatine nerves, anterior & middle superior alveolar nerves, infraorbital nerve

In a patient with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth may give rise to: A. Gingivitis but no loss of attachment B. Loss of attachment but no gingival inflammation C. Both gingivitis and loss of attachment D. Widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility E. Narrowing of the periodontal ligament and decreased mobility

Widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility

Which of the following is not an oral biofilm infection? A. Endodontic infection B. Oesophageal candidosis C. Thrush D. Periodontal infection E. Oral malodour

Oesophageal candidosis

A patient in anaphylaxis has developed sudden obstruction of the upper larynx. At which of the following sites is an emergency airway needle best inserted? A. At the level of the second, third and fourth tracheal rings B. Between the cricoid cartilage and the first tracheal ring C. Between the hyoid bone and the thyroid cartilage D. Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages E. Superior to the hyoid bone

D. Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages

A facebow registration -Transfers the relationship between the maxillary teeth and the axis of the mandibular rotation -Transfers the relationship between the mandibular teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation -Is used to mount the lower cast -Registers the relationship between the upper and lower teeth -Registers the position of the mandible in protrusion

Transfers the relationship between the maxillary teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation

Which of the following is one function of a facebow -Mounting of lower cast -registration of the interocclusal relationship -setting the condylar guidance angles -setting the inter-condylar distance -transferring the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane

Transferring the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane

Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the dentist is most able to influence is -direction -duration -frequency -velocity -magnitude

direction

The principle radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is -horizontal bone loss -vertical bone loss -root fracture -generalised widening of the PDL space -condensing osteitis

generalised widening of the PDL space

When viewed from the lateral aspect, the downward movement of the condyle during protrusion forms an angle to the horizontal plane known as -the horizontal condylar guidance angle -the bennet angle -the sagittal condylar guidance angle -side shift -the frankfort angle

The sagittal condylar guidance angle

In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is -to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position -to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the resting face height -to transfer the mandibular plane -to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the intercuspal position -to record freeway space

to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position

In the intercuspal position, ideally: -the incisors should meet edge to edge -the tips of the buccal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth -the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth -the tips of the lingual cusps of the lower posterior teeth should occlude with the marginal ridges of the opposing teeth -the tips of the lingual cusps of the lower posterior teeth should occlude with the fossae of the opposing teeth

the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth

During mastication, whilst chewing on the left molar teeth: -The left side is the non working side -There is bilateral downwards and forwards movement of the condylar heads -The right condylar head rotates about a vertical axis but does not move forwards onto the articular tubercle -The right condylar head moves downwards, forwards and medially -It is preferable for the mandible to be guided back into the intercuspal position by contact of as many teeth as possible

The right condylar head moves downwards, forwards and medially

Which articulator is suitable for use when constructing complete dentures? -simple hinge -fixed condylar -semi-adjustable -fully adjustable -all of the above

all of the above

The purpose of the split-cast technique used when mounting casts on an articulator is to check the occlusal vertical dimension following processing of the denture. a. True, when casts have appropriate locations grooves cut in the base. b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded c. True when the incisal post is located on the incisal table. d. False, as this technique is only used when a facebow has not been used to mount casts e. . False, since the incisal post indicates the occlusal vertical dimension

b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded

A simple hinge articulator can be used for the construction of complete dentures a. as a split cast mounting can be used b. using a functional generated path occlusal rim c. as the occlusal vertical dimension can be checked d. as non-working contacts can be checked for balanced articulation e. as it can be relied on to reproduce the centric relation position accurately

c. as the occlusal vertical dimension can be checked

What is Christensen's phenomenon? -A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when mandible is protruded -A gap that appears in the natural dentition between posterior teeth when the mandible is protruded -A gap that appears between anterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded -A gap that appears in the natural dentition between anterior teeth when the mandible is protruded -A gap that appears in between posterior teeth in the retruded contact position

A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when mandible is protruded

Which of the following is the most unlikely to be a consequence of adverse occlusal forces? -Fractured cusp -Attrition -Dislodged restorations -Chronic periodontitis -Increase tooth mobility

Chronic periodontitis

During closure along the retruded axis, the point at which the teeth contact is called -the intercuspal position -the retruded contact position -centric relation -the rest position -the habitual position

The retruded contact position

During lateral excursion the predominant movement of the working condyle is -Forward translation -Medial translation -Rotation about a vertical axis -Rotation about a horizontal axis -Vertical movement away from the fossa

Rotation about a vertical axis

The retruded axis is a mandibular position dependent on the presence of teeth -True -False

False

The retruded axis is a border movement -True -False

True

When the condylar heads are in their most superior position within the mandibular fossa the mandible is in protrusion -True -False

False

At the end of the chewing cycle the mandible aims for the intercuspal position -True -False

True

Forces on teeth are greater during parafunction than function -True -False

True

In canine guidance there should be some contact between teeth on the non working side -True -False

False

Anchorage may be reinforced by: -Using thinner archwires on fixed appliances -Using a transpalatal arch with a fixed appliance -Using thicker wire to construct springs on a removable appliance -Increasing the number of teeth which require tipping movements -Decreasing the number of teeth in the anchor unit

Using a transpalatal arch with a fixed appliance

Fixed appliances are efficient at -Correcting vertical skeletal discrepancies -Correcting anterior crossbites -Correct multiple tooth malpositions -Treating malocclusions in the early mixed dentition -Treating moderate to severe sagittal skeletal discrepancies

Correct multiple tooth malpositions

Functional appliances are mainly used to -Treat long face syndromes -Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class II division 1 cases -Correct multiple tooth malpositions -Treat adults with no growth potential -Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class I cases

Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class II division 1 cases

Removeable appliances are effective at -Torquing roots -Extruding teeth -Correcting rotations -Moving teeth bodily -Tipping teeth

Tipping teeth

Removable appliances are useful for: -Retraction of canines using bodily movement -Correction of underbites -Correction of rotations -Maintaining space -Increasing overbites

-Maintaining space

Which of the following may be used to assess the antero-posterior skeletal pattern clinically -molar relationship -mandibular unit length -incisor relationship (BSI) -maxillo-mandibular planes angle (MMPA) -Palpation of the skeletal bases

Palpation of the skeletal bases

Which of the following would represent moderate crowding -4mm-8mm -2mm-6mm -8mm-10mm -3mm-5mm -0mm-4mm

4-8mm

What is the definition of a class II division 1 incisor relationship -The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined -The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a decreased overjet and the incisors are usually retroclined -The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a decreased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined -The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a increased overjet and the incisors are usually retroclined

The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined

Which of the following can be used to assess the vertical skeletal pattern clinically -Frankfort-maxillary planes angle (FMxPA) -Total anterior face height/upper anterior face height x 100 -Lower anterior face height/upper anterior face height x 100 -The Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA) -Lower anterior face height + upper anterior face height x 100

The Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA)

The histological response for 'light forces' generated during orthodontic treatment include which of the following -Apposition of osteoid on pressure side (osteoblasts) -Resorption of the lamina dura from tension side (osteoclasts) -Frontal resorption -Undermining resorption -Occlusion of nerves of periodontal ligament on pressure side

Frontal resorption

How much force is required to tip a tooth 90-120 grams (mN) 65-90 grams (mN) 120-135 grams (mN) 35-60 grams (mN) 10-35 grams (mN)

35-60 grams (mN)

Light continuous forces

Which of the following are the deleterious effects of orthodontic treatment? -Immediate pain -Ankylosis -Increased deposition of secondary dentine -Root resorption -Loss of sensitivity

Root resorption

What is the average optimal rate of tooth movement -1.5mm a month -1.7mm a month -2.0mm a month -0.5mm a month -1.0mm a month

1.0mm a month

The meaning of the term 'anchorage' is -resistance to removal of the appliance -resistance to the force exerted by the retentive component -resistance to unwanted mesial drift -resistance to unwanted tooth movement -resistance to over-eruption of the teeth in contact with an upper removable appliance

resistance to unwanted tooth movement

Anterior bite planes are used for -Reducing overjet -Reducing overbite -Protecting brackets of fixed appliance on upper incisors from the occlusal force of lower incisors -Can be used in adults -Facilitating correction of an anterior crossbite

Reducing overbite

An Adams crib is formed of: -0.6mm Hard SS wire -0.5mm Hard SS wire -0.7mm Hard SS wire -0.8mm Hard SS wire -0.9mm Hard SS wire

0.7mm Hard SS wire

The standard temperature banding for steam sterilisation is a. 115 - 118 b. 121- 124 c. 137 - 139 d. 134 - 137 e. 122 - 126

d. 134 - 137

If chemical residue was being removed from the instrumentation, what stage would the washer-disinfector be at a. Rinse b. Detergent wash c. Prewash d. Disinfection e. Disinfection rinse f. Flush g. Wash h. Drying

a. Rinse

Put these in order Wash Disinfection Rinse Drying Flush

Flush (least temp) Wash (2nd highest temp) Rinse (least temperature, most time) Disinfection (highest temp) Drying (high temp, least time)

A Bowie-Dick is carried out a daily basis, What is it testing for a. Steam penetration b. Air removal c. Temperature d. Steam dryness e. Presence of air

a. Steam penetration

What colour does the transport box for contaminated instruments have to be a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Doesn't matter as long as it is easily distinguishable e. Yellow

d. Doesn't matter as long as it is easily distinguishable

Any kind of instrumentation can be processed in a Type - N steriliser True False

False

The first stage of a vacuum capable or Type - B steriliser is a. Steam penetration b. Heat up c. Negative pulsing d. Air removal e. Positive pulsing f. Equilibration

d. Air removal

What chemical would I use within an Ultrasonic Bath a. Low alkaline b. Enzymatic c. pH neutral d. Detergent e. High alkaline

b. Enzymatic

What one of the following can I process wrapped instrumentation through a. Type - S b. Type - N c. Type - D d. Type - A e. Type - B

e. Type - B

What is the recommended PPE for manually washing instruments Select one: a. gown, visor mask, gloves b. apron, gown, heavy duty gloves, mask c. apron, heavy duty gloves, visor d. mask, gown, heavy duty gloves e. apron, gloves, visor, mask

apron, heavy duty gloves, visor

The standard disinfection temperature banding within our washer-disinfector is a. 85 - 90 b. 90 - 95 c. 80 - 85 d. 65 - 75 e. 75 - 85

b. 90 - 95

Which method of fluoride delivery does the patient not administer? A. Fluoride toothpaste B. Fluoride supplements C. Fluoride varnish D. Fluoride mouthrinse

C. Fluoride varnish

When reading clinical guidelines what does the strength of a strong key recommendation convey? Select one: 1. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option. 2. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, the majority of individuals would choose this option. 3. Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, not all individuals would choose this option. 4. Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, some individuals would choose this option.

1. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.

Which of the following is an aim when providing dental care for children: Select one: 1. To keep the permanent dentition mainly free from disease 2. To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety 3. For the child to grow up feeling positive about their oral health but for medical health to be a priority 4. To safeguard dental neglect only and not to consider wellbeing

2. To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety

A comprehensive assessment of the child does not include the following element for an effective plan to improve oral health: Select one: a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only b. Patient history c. Clinical examination d. Caries Risk Assessment

a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only

An assessment of lesion activity is essential for providing the appropriate level of caries prevention this includes: Select one: 1. On one occasion using clinical assessment 2. On one occasion using radiographic assessment 3. Progression over time using clinical photographs 4. Using lesion colour as an indicator

3. Progression over time using clinical photographs

The broad contact points of the primary dentition make diagnosis of proximal caries difficult using clinical examination alone.At what age should bitewing radiographs start to be taken as an adjunct to visual diagnosis? Select one: 1. Age three and above 2. Age four and above 3. Age five and above 4. Age six and above

2. Age four and above

At what age can mouthwash be used by a child 3 years 6 years 8 years 10 years 12 years

6 years

When assessing toothbrushing and recording visible plaque levels at each examination, a score of eight out of ten indicates: Select one: 1. Perfectly clean tooth 2. Plaque line around the cervical margin 3. Cervical third of the crown covered 4. Middle third covered

2. Plaque line around the cervical margin

Motivational Interviewing is used to translate knowledge into behaviour change, this process involves: 1. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective learning, Summarising 2. Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising 3. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising 4. Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising

3. SEEK permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective LISTENING, Summarising

Standard prevention for all children includes the following at least once a year: 1. Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice 2. Spit, don't rinse and information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old 3. Brush thoroughly twice daily, including first thing in the morning and appropriate amount of toothpaste 4. Information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old and spit, don't rinse

1. Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice

When can a child carry out unsupervised tooth brushing 4 years old 5 years old 6 years old 7 years old 8 years old

7 years old

Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following at each recall visit: 1. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child only at each recall visit 2. Standard prevention and 1350-1500 ppmF advice for children up to 9 years old 3. Standard prevention and 2800 ppmF advice for children aged 9-16 years old 4. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit

4. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit

Standard prevention for all children should include the following at least once per year: 1. Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x4 per day and drink only flavoured water or milk between meals 2. Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x3 per day and drink only water or milk between meals 3. Snack on sugar free foods such as digestive biscuits and be aware of hidden sugars in foods 4. Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks

4. Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks

Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following dietary actions: 1. Patients only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing 2. Carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing 3. Utilise community/home support for dietary change that is available locally 4. Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing

4. Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing

Enhanced prevention includes fissure sealant of the following tooth and surface if assessed as likely to be beneficial: a. Cs cusp tip b. 2's palatal pits c. Third permanent molar d. As & Bs palatal pits

b. 2's palatal pits

Standard prevention for All children includes the following: 1. Sodium fluoride varnish (3%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age 2. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 4 years of age 3. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 3 years of age 4. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age

4. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age

Which of the following do dental professionals who are registered with the general dental Council NOT have a responsibility of doing? a. Raise concerns about the possible abuse or neglect of children b. Know how to refer concerns about abuse or neglect. c. Know who to contact for further advice about abuse or neglect of children. d. Diagnose abuse or neglect in children

d. Diagnose abuse or neglect in children

Which of the following is the accepted definition of child protection? a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm b. Ensuring children grow up in a safe and caring environment. c. Measures taken to minimise the risk of harm to children d. Preventing the impairment of children's health

a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm

Which of the following are the biggest three parenting capacity concerns that are contributing factors in child abuse/neglect cases? a. Poverty, mental health problems, unemployment b. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, poverty c. Step parents, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems d. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems

d. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems

How many children in Scotland are killed by a parent/ parent substitute? a. 80 per month b. 10 per year c. 1 - 2 per week d. 52 per year

b. 10 per year

Why is it possible that 'neglect of neglect' might occur? a. Because neglect is rare b. Because neglect is less incident focused c. Because children don't die from neglect d. Because neglect does not damage children

b. Because neglect is less incident focused

Which of the following is NOT a long term effect for adults who were neglected as children? a. Greater incidence of diabetes b. Greater incidence of arrest c. Greater incidence of heart disease d. Greater incidence of epilepsy

d. Greater incidence of epilepsy

What 3 stages in managining dental neglect are suggested by "Child Protection and the Dental Team" website? a. Preventive dental team management, referral to local dental hospital, preventive multi-agency management b. Examination, diagnosis, review c. Referral to local dental hospital, speak to child protection advisor, child protection referral d. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral

d. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral

What proportion of serious head injuries in the first year of life are non-accidental? Select one: a. 5% b. 95% c. 10% d. 60%

b. 95%

What proportion of injuries in abuse cases are found on the head and neck areas? a. 60% b. 5% c. 10% d. 95%

a. 60%

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of dental neglect? a. Dental disease which has an impact on the child b. Obvious dental caries c. Children with dental disease where practical care has been offered and yet the child has not returned for treatment d. Occult dental caries

d. Occult dental caries

What factor is most likely to improve the oral health of all pre-school children? Select one: a. Use of 1450ppm toothpaste b. Water fluoridation c. Use of 1000ppm toothpaste d. Fluoridation of fizzy drinks

b. Water fluoridation

Which treatment is of the highest priority in the following plan? a. Restoration of pain free primary teeth b. Relief of pain c. Restoration of pain free permanent teeth d. Oral hygiene instruction

b. Relief of pain

When planning treatment which of the following should be carried out first? a. Anterior tooth restoration requiring LA b. Pulpotomy in the upper jaw c. Simple restorations requiring LA in the lower jaw d. Simple restorations requiring LA in the upper jaw

d. Simple restorations requiring LA in the upper jaw

What is not wanted from the parents/carers of a small child when treatment planning? a. Consent b. Showing the child that they are nervous c. Motivation toward appropriate dietary improvements d. Willingness to help aid good oral hygiene

b. Showing the child that they are nervous

Which factors do we not need to take into consideration when formulating a treatment plan for a child? a. Caries risk b. Medical history c. Social background d. Plan made for child's best friend

d. Plan made for child's best friend

Which of the following would not alter your treatment plan? Select one: a. Child has congenital cardiac disease b. Need for prevention c. Allergy to latex d. Need for General Anaesthetic

b. Need for prevention

Which of the following is not important in the social history of a child for dentistry? a. Year at school b. Age c. Siblings d. If they have a best friend

d. If they have a best friend

What factors do not need to be considered in the mixed dentition phase? a. Developing malocclusion b. Development of all permanent teeth c. Growth of the child d. Size of the maxillary sinuses

d. Size of the maxillary sinuses

What should form the first component of any treatment plan? Select one: a. Prevention b. Diet advice and oral hygiene instruction c. Restorative Treatment d. Relief of pain

d. Relief of pain

Which of the following is not a major factor in a preventive treatment plan for a child? a. Fluoride therapy b. Fissure sealing c. Oral hygiene instruction d. Water fluoridation

d. Water fluoridation

The safest local anaesthetic drug to use, utilising an infiltration technique, for a patient with advanced liver disease in order to remove tooth 35 is: a. Bupvicaine b. Halothane c. Lignocaine d. Prilocaine e. Articiane

e. Articiane

When providing instructions on first line simple analgesia for a patient with liver cirrhosis, which analgesic medication should be recommended Select one: a. Ibuprofen b. Naproxen c. Morphine d. Codeine e. Paracetamol

e. Paracetamol

The liver is responsible for the production of which clotting factors involved in the coagulation cascade? a. I, II, V, IX and X b. I,II,III, IV, V and X c. II, V, VIII, IX, XI,XI d. I,II,VII, IX, X and XI e. I, V, and X

d. I,II,VII, IX, X and XI

Other than clotting factors, which product of the liver is essential in achieving haemostasis? a. Thrombopoietin b. Thrombocytes c. Albumin d. Erythropoietin e. Erythrocytes

a. Thrombopoietin

What is the minimum UKELD score for an individual to be placed on a liver transplant list? a. 59 b. 39 c. 79 d. 49 e. 69

d. 49

An arcon articulator may be indicated for dental prostheses as it is more accurate that a non-arcon articulator as? a. inaccuracies when a protrusive record is being used to determine the articulator settings is reduced. b. it has the condylar track on the upper part of the articulator c. the condylar inclination is at a fixed angle to the maxillary occlusal plane. d. the condylar inclination changes as the articulator is open. e. The hinge axis permits a smaller axis of closure

a. inaccuracies when a protrusive record is being used to determine the articulator settings is reduced.

The Dane Particle is found in the serum of patients infected with

Hepatitis B

Characterized by liver cell necrosis and inflammation, followed by replacement with fibrotic tissue and regenerating nodules of hepatocytes, and vascular derangement. What is this describing

Cirrhosis

Strongly associated with obesity and diabetes type II

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

Has circular RNA

Hepatitis D

Sofosbuvir is a treatment given to clear the virus

Hepatitis C

Halothane can be responsible for

Drug induced hepatitis

Primary malignancy of the liver is known as

Hepatocellular carcinoma

The faeco-oral route is the main route of transmission for

Hepatitis A

An arteriovenous fistula is provided in which situations a. Above the elbow for haemodialysis b. Above the wrist for haemodialysis c. Above the elbow for peritoneal dialysis d. Above the wrist for peritoneal dialysis e. In the abdominal cavity for peritoneal dialysis

b. Above the wrist for haemodialysis

Match the renal anatomical structure with the most appropriate function Surplus or waste ions and molecules flow out as urine Water leaves by osmosis Na+ is reclaimed by active transport, with water loss by osmosis Actively reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, uric acid and inorganic salts

Collecting tubule Loop of Henle Distal convoluted tubule Proximal convoluted tubule

On which day of the week would it be best to schedule dental treatment for a patient who receives dialysis every Monday and Friday? Select one: a. Wednesday b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Monday

b. Tuesday

Which anticoagulant is commonly used in the management of patients who require renal dialysis? a. Apixaban b. Warfarin c. Aspirin d. Heparin e. Rivoroxiban

d. Heparin

Haemophilia A is a deficiency in which factor: a. XI b. VIII c. X d. VII e. IX

b. VIII

Apixaban inhibits which factor: Select one: a. Factor Xa b. Vitamin K c. Platelets d. Thrombin e. Factor VIII

a. Factor Xa

The extraction of a single tooth is a high risk procedure when assessing bleeding risk : True False

False

Takes the medications aspirin and clopidogrel following a STEMI two weeks ago and requires the extraction of two asymptomatic teeth What should you do?

Delay extractions until 6 month point

Takes the medication Apixaban and requires a single extraction What should you do?

Do not change drug regime

Takes the medication Rivaroxaban once a day in the morning and requires the extraction of 5 teeth at 0900 in the morning What should you do?

Delay the morning dose and take it 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved

Takes the medication Dabigatran and requires the surgical extraction of two teeth at 0900 in the morning What should you do?

Miss the morning dose of medication and take the evening dose as usual

Takes the medication Warfarin with associated blood testing every week and requires a single extraction

INR required within 24 hours

A person with Moderate Haemophilia has what percentage of normal factor in their blood? Select one: a. < 1% b. 5 -10% c. 1-5% d. >15% e. 10 -15%

c. 1-5%

Von Willebrand's Type 2 is normally managed with which product to mamage bleeding? a. Factor IX Concentrate b. Factor X Concentrate c. Factor VIII Concentrate d. DDAVP e. Von Willebrand's Concentrate

c. Factor VIII Concentrate

Augmentation of factor levels is required for which of the inherited bleeding conditions: a. Moderate Haemophilia B b. Mild Haemophilia A c. Type 2a Von Willebrand's Disease d. Type 3 Von Willebrand's Disease e. All of the above

e. All of the above

The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) would be deranged in

Haemophilia

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) measures:

Factors I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

The prothrobin time (PT) would be deranged in

Liver Disease or Warfarin Therapy

Protrhombin time (PT) measures: → Fcators VII,X,V prothrombin and fibrinogen

Factors I, II, V, VII, X

A patient with moderate Haemophilia A requires factor cover for supra-gingival scaling Select one: True False

False

Topical miconazole for the management of oral candidosis presents a risk for patients prescribed Warfarin by potentiating bleeding? Select one: True False

True

The purpose of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 is to: a. Provides a framework for safeguarding the finances of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate b. Provides a framework to promote equality and diversity in society c. Provides a framework for safeguarding the welfare of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate. d. Provides a framework for safeguarding the welfare and managing the finances of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate. e. Provides a framework to ensure vulnerable individuals and groups are not abused

d. Provides a framework for safeguarding the welfare and managing the finances of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate.

A 19-year-old male with Autism requires the extraction of 8 teeth including impacted mandibular 8s. He tolerates an examination but does not like to be touched as he finds it painful. What would be considered as the least restrictive option for him? a. Do nothing b. Intravenous sedation over multiple appointment c. Local anaesthetic over multiple appointments d. General Anaesthetic e. Inhalation sedation over multiple appointments

d. General Anaesthetic

A 22-year-old female with a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder attends your clinic. She is currently experiencing a period of manic depression. She reports having pain from an upper central incisor and advises you that the tooth is the reason for her current depression. The tooth is diagnosed as having a periapical periodontitis. There is a buccal swelling present. She maintains she wishes the tooth extracted. When you speak to the Consultant Psychiatrist in charge of her care, she is certain that the patient will return to having full capacity at some point in the near future. What is the most appropriate course of action? a. Do nothing b. Begin endodontic therapy c. Drain the swelling through incision and drainage and review when capacity returns d. Prescribe a course of antibiotics and then begin endodontic therapy when her capacity returns e. Remove the tooth as this is what the patient requests

b. Begin endodontic therapy

A Power of Attorney is: a. A person who is nominates themselves whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally then appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity b. A person who is nominated whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity c. A person who is legally appointed by the courts to make decisions on behalf of a person who lacks capacity d.A person who nominates themselves and is subsequently legally appointed by the courts to make the decision on behalf of a person who lacks capacity e.A person legally appointed to nominate healthcare professionals to look after the welfare of another individual

b. A person who is nominated whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity

An individual with an intellectual disability is unable to consent to 3rd molar surgery. He has the capacity to make decisions about all other aspects of his dental care including examination and restorations which will be required to establish dental health. He requires restorations and the removal of a 3rd molar. His Mother is his welfare guardian.What certification is necessary to facilitate his care? a.His Mother should be consulted as the Power of Attorney for 3rd molar surgery only and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for the surgical removal of a 3rd molar b.His Mother should be consulted as the Welfare Guardian for 3rd molar surgery only and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for the surgical removal of a 3rd molar c. This is an emergency and therefore the 3rd Molar can be removed without a certificate d.His Mother should be consulted as the Power of Attorney and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for examination, restorations and the surgical removal of a 3rd molar e.His Mother should be consulted as the welfare guardian and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for examination, restorations and the surgical removal of a 3rd molar

b.His Mother should be consulted as the Welfare Guardian for 3rd molar surgery only and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for the surgical removal of a 3rd molar

The Adult's with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 the term incapacity relates to a.Making decisions; or communicating decisions b.Acting; or making decisions; or communicating decisions; c.Acting; or making decisions; or communicating decisions; or understanding decisions or retaining the memory of decisions d.Acting; or retaining the memory of decisions e.Understanding decisions or retaining the memory of decisions

c.Acting; or making decisions; or communicating decisions; or understanding decisions or retaining the memory of decisions

Who can provide a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate for the provision of dental treatment a.A nurse with additional training b.A welfare guardian c.A doctor who has just graduated d.A dentist who has just graduated e.An optometrist with additional training

c. A doctor who has just graduated

A 32 year old female presents to your general dental practice. You make a clinical diagnosis of a symptomatic periapical periodontitis associated with tooth 11. Tooth 11 appears to have received a previous traumatic injury due to its colour. It is restorable. She has an otherwise unrestored dentition. She is currently being treated under a compulsory treatment order as she is experiencing acute psychosis. She believes the tooth is bewitched and the source of all her mental health problems. Te medical team are confident they will be able to get her psychosis under control relatively soon. In making your decision to manage the tooth which principle of the Adult's with Incapacity Act will be key to your decision on whether to extract the tooth or provide endodontic treatment? a.Consultation with relevant others b.Least restrictive option c.Encourage the person to use existing skills and develop new skills d.Benefit e.Take account of the wishes of the adult

b.Least restrictive option

A 34-year-old man presents with an enamel dentine fracture which has exposed the pulp of the tooth. He has a brain injury and is deemed to lack the capacity to consent. Although, he is cooperative for treatment. His mother tells you he has always been very keen to keep his teeth and felt they were one of his best features. Considering the Adults with Incapacity Act, what Is the most appropriate treatment option? a.Extract the tooth as this is the least restrictive option b.Attempt endodontics as this is the least restrictive option c.Extract the tooth as this is of benefit to him d.Attempt endodontics as this would have been his previous wish e.Extract the tooth as this would have been his previous wish

d.Attempt endodontics as this would have been his previous wish

A 40-year-old male with Motor Neuron Disease lacks the capacity to consent because he is unable to communicate his decisions. The most appropriate course of action to enable him to exercise his residual capacity would be to: a.Utilise his speech generating device b.He is unable to communicate so he does not have capacity c.Utilise a social story d.He cannot understand so he does not have capacity e.Utilise a picture board

a.Utilise his speech generating device

A 46-year-old male has fractured a front tooth when he fell during a Myocardial Infarct(MI). The fracture extends subginvally and the pulp can be seen clinically. The tooth is grade III mobile. He is currently sedated in an Intensive Care Unit and will not be woken by the medical team until the front tooth is sorted as they feel it is an aspiration risk. How would you manage this situation when considering the Adults with Incapacity Act ? a.Splint the tooth b.Attempt to extirpate the tooth as this is a reversible option c.Remove the tooth as this is an emergency following consultation with the family and medical team d.Advise the medical doctors there will be no issues and the tooth can be left as normal e.Leave the tooth in situ. as the individual is unable to make decisions about his own care Benefit

a.Splint the tooth

A 57-year-old male lacks capacity. His Mother and his brother hold joint welfare guardianship with regards to the care of his medical treatment. Who should you speak to to gain consent for treatment? a.Refer the decision to the courts for a decision b. His Brother has priority over his Mother c.His Mother has priority over his Brother d.His Mother and Brother have equal importance and therefore consent is required from both of them e.His Mother and Bother have equal importance but consent is required from only one of them

e.His Mother and Bother have equal importance but consent is required from only one of them

An 18-year-old male with a diagnosis of Autistic Spectrum Disorder attends your dental practice. He has no verbal communication and will not sit in the dental chair. His mother believes he is in a pain. He requires a full examination and multiple teeth removed. A general anaesthetic is justifiable under the adults with Incapacity Act because it is: a.The option which considers all 5 principles of the Adults with Incapacity Act b.The option which encourage the person to use existing skills and develop new skills c.The option which takes into account relevant others d.The option of benefit e.The option which takes account of the wishes of the individual

a.The option which considers all 5 principles of the Adults with Incapacity Act

An 85-year-old female is unable to remember a discussion you had with her one week ago regarding the prognosis of her dentition and the possible treatment options. Does she have the capacity to consent to treatment? a.No, she has failed to understand the information given b.No, she has failed to retain the information c. Yes, she has retained the information d.No, she has failed communicate the decision e.Yes, she has capacity she has understood the decision

b.No, she has failed to retain the information

An 85-year-old female lacks the capacity to consent. She has no living family. She has a carer, Alison, that has known her for over 10 years. Who should be consulted and in what role when decisions are made in relation to her healthcare a.Nobody requires to be consulted b.Alison as the next of kin c. Alison as the Welfare Guardian d.Alison as the personal carer e.Alison as nearest relative

d.Alison as the personal carer

How many principles are present in the Adult's with Incapacity(Scotland) Act 2000? a.Five b.One c.Three d.Nine e.Seven

a.Five

In the Adult's with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 a Welfare Guardian is a.A person who is nominated whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity b.A person who nominates themselves whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally then appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity c.A person who is legally appointed by the courts to make the decision on behalf of a person who lacks capacity d.A person who nominates themselves when an individual loses capacity and is subsequently appointed by the Mental Welfare Commission to make decisions on behalf of a person who lacks capacity e.A person who is legally appointed and oversees the welfare of the population have lost capacity

c. A person who is legally appointed by the courts to make the decision on behalf of a person who lacks capacity

In the emergency it may be permissible to act in the best interests of the patient and provide which of the following procedures within an Adult's with Incapacity, Section 47 Certificate. a.It is never possible to provide treatment without an AWI certificate in place b.Extract a carious tooth c.Undertake hygiene phase therapy d.Undertake a restoration e.Extract a tooth with a periapical periodontitis

e.Extract a tooth with a periapical periodontitis

In which of the following situations would you provide emergency treatment without having a Section 47 Adults with Incapacity Certificate in place a.Restoration of tooth 15 b.Never c.Hygiene Phase Therapy d.Oral Hygiene Instruction and Toothbrushing e.Spreading Dental Infection

e.Spreading Dental Infection

Kirsty a 22 year old female is currently an inpatient in a Psychiatric Unit. She is believed to have a reversible condition which will allow her to return to full capacity. She has an unrestored dentition other than a crowned 11 which she traumatised as a child. The tooth has become non-vital and there is a buccal abscess evident above the apex of tooth 11. Kirsty believes that a witch has put the infection inside her tooth and she wants you to take the tooth out. Considering the Adults with Incapacity Act, which would be the most viable treatment option Select one: a.Remove the tooth b.Ask the psychiatrist to increase her medication c.Begin primary orthograde endodontics d.Provide antibiotics e.Do nothing

c.Begin primary orthograde endodontics

The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 has a legislative purpose in the United Kingdom. In which countries in the UK does the act apply a.Scotland, England, Wales and Northern Ireland b.Scotland and England c.Scotland, England, Wales, Northern Ireland and The Republic of Ireland d.Scotland e. Scotland, England and Wales

d.Scotland

The consultation with the relevant others is best described as: a.Take account of the view of the courts in order to seek permission to treat the individual b.Take account of the view of another medical healthcare professional to ensure the treatment proposed is valid in the eyes of the law c.Take account of the views of others with an interest in the person's welfare. The Act lists those who should be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable. d.Take account of the views of others with an interest in the person's welfare. The Act lists those who should not be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable. e.Take account of the views of others with no interest in the person's welfare. The Act lists those who should be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable.

c.Take account of the views of others with an interest in the person's welfare. The Act lists those who should be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable.

The Piece of legislation relating to consent for vulnerable people in Scotland is: a. The Disability Discrimination Act b.The Mental Capacity Act c.The Equality Act d.The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 e.The Health and Social Care Act

d.The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000

The principle which considers benefit can be described as: Select one: a. Any actions undertaken would be beneficial financially b. Any action or decision taken must improve the life of the individual who lacks capacity c.Any actions undertaken must benefit the Power of Attorney or Welfare Guardian d.Any action or decision taken must benefit the person and only be taken when that benefit cannot reasonably be achieved without it e.Any action or decision taken must improve the life of the individual who has capacity

d.Any action or decision taken must benefit the person and only be taken when that benefit cannot reasonably be achieved without it

The principle which considers taking account of the wishes of the person is best described as: a. Account must be taken of the present and past wishes and feelings of the welfare guardian or power of attorney person, as far as this may be ascertained. b.Accounting for the wishes of the of adult's next of kin should be take priority c. Accounting for the wishes of the person are irrelevant once they have lost capacity d. Accounting for the wishes of the healthcare professional should take priority e. Account must be taken of the present and past wishes and feelings of the person, as far as this may be ascertained.

e. Account must be taken of the present and past wishes and feelings of the person, as far as this may be ascertained.

The principle which considers the least restrictive option can be described as: Select one: a. It should be the option that restricts the healthcare professional's ability to provide treatment b.It should be the option that allows for the greatest volume and quality of treatment to be provided c.Any action or decision taken should be the minimum necessary to achieve the purpose. It should be the option that restricts the person's freedom as little as possible. d.It should be the option that least restricts the individual who lacks capacity to show their distress e.It should be the option that least restricts the opportunity to change a treatment plan

c.Any action or decision taken should be the minimum necessary to achieve the purpose. It should be the option that restricts the person's freedom as little as possible.

The IADT definition of 'Concussion' is: A. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures with increased mobility but no displacement of the tooth and with pain to percussion B. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without mobility or displacement of the tooth, but with pain to percussion C. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures with displacement of the tooth and with pain to percussion D. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without increased mobility or displacement of the tooth and without pain to percussion

B. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without mobility or displacement of the tooth, but with pain to percussion

When examining a patient with dental trauma, which of the following is not a sign of brain injury requiring medical assessment? Select one: A. Nausea B. Dry mouth C. Amnesia D. Vomiting

B. Dry mouth

When considering avulsion of a primary tooth, which one of the following are true? Select one: A. The permanent successor is always damaged B. Suturing of the soft tissues is required C. The patient requires review until eruption of the permanent successor D. The avulsed tooth should be reimplanted

C. The patient requires review until eruption of the permanent successor

Following a subluxation injury a tooth will be Select one: A. non-vital B. displaced and have increased mobility C. tender to touch/light tapping and have increased mobility D. infraoccluded

C. tender to touch/light tapping and have increased mobility

Treatment guidelines for an avulsed permanent tooth with an open apex advise that: Select one: A. It should be splinted for 4 weeks B. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately at the scene of injury, milk is a suitable storage medium C. Extirpation should be undertaken within 2 weeks of the avulsion injury D. A tooth should only be replanted by a dentist/suitably trained healthcare professional

B. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately at the scene of injury, milk is a suitable storage medium

Following replantation of a permanent tooth after an avulsion injury, successful pulpal and periodontal healing are more likely if: Select one: A. The avulsed tooth has an open apex and is replanted within 30 minutes of avulsion B. The avulsed tooth has a closed apex and is replanted within 30 minutes of avulsion C. The avulsed tooth has an open apex and is replanted immediately/within 15 minutes of avulsion D. The avulsed tooth has a closed apex and is replanted immediately/within 15minutes of avulsion

C. The avulsed tooth has an open apex and is replanted immediately/within 15 minutes of avulsion

What radiographic finding would suggest loss of vitality following dental trauma Select one: A. Continuation in root maturation B.Intact lamina dura C. Pulp canal obliteration D. External inflammatory root resorption (EIRR)

D. External inflammatory root resorption (EIRR)

An 11-year-old child presents to your Practice 48 hours after sustaining a complicated crown fracture to tooth 21. Which of the following is true? Select one: A. A pulpotomy (Cvek or coronal) should be completed B. The definitive restoration must be placed at this visit C. The tooth should be extirpated within 2 weeks D. Ankylosis is the most likely long-term outcome

A. A pulpotomy (Cvek or coronal) should be completed

Following an intrusion injury of 3-7mm to tooth 11 in a 13-year-old child Select one: A. An ankylotic percussion note would not be detected until at least 2 weeks following the injury B. Pulpal necrosis is likely C. Surgical repositioning should be undertaken immediately D. Spontaneous pulp revascularisation is likely

B. Pulpal necrosis is likely

With respect to root fractures in permanent teeth following dental trauma: a. Apical root fractures have a hopeless long term prognosis b. Hard tissue healing may occur c. Loss of vitality of both the coronal and apical portions of the tooth is likely d. Cervical root fractures should be splinted for 4 weeks

b. Hard tissue healing may occur

Which of the following permanent tooth injuries has a splinting time of 4 weeks? Select one: a. Root fracture (cervical 1/3) b. Lateral luxation c. Avulsion d. Extrusion

b. Lateral luxation

Which of the following is true of teeth with pulp canal obliteration? Select one: a. It occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices b. Avulsion injuries have a high rate of pulp canal obliteration c. It occurs more frequently in tooth which have suffered a mild luxation injury d. It usually indicates the presence of necrotic tissue

a. It occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices

For a conventional light-cured resin fissure sealant which substance is used to etch the surface of the enamel prior to placement? Select one: A. Hydrogen Peroxide B. 10% Nitric Acid C. 18% Hydrochloric Acid D. 35%-37% Ortho-phosphoric Acid

D. 35%-37% Ortho-phosphoric Acid

How is isolation for moisture control best achieved whilst placing a fissure sealant? Select one: A. By use of rubber dam B. By use of a parotid shield C. By use of a saliva ejector D. By use of cotton wool rolls

A. By use of rubber dam

When is the ideal time to fissure seal a first permanent molar? Select one: A. As soon as the tooth begins to erupt B. Between the ages of 8 and 10-years-old C. When the tooth has erupted sufficiently to allow for adequate isolation/moisture control D. When caries develops in other primary or permanent teeth

C. When the tooth has erupted sufficiently to allow for adequate isolation/moisture control

Which of the following is not part of a preventive programme along with fissure sealing? Select one: A. Oral hygiene measures B. Dietary advice/monitoring C. Fluoride application D. Preventive resin restoration/sealant restorations

D. Preventive resin restoration/sealant restorations

Which is the most common material used for fissure sealant placement? Select one: A. BIS-GMA resins B. Glass ionomer cement C. Resin modified glass ionomer D. Amalgam

A. BIS-GMA resins

Which factor does not need to be taken into account when deciding to place a fissure sealant on a first permanent molar in a 6-year-old? Select one: A. Clinical findings B. Parental Dental Anxiety C. Patient's caries risk D. Radiographic findings

B. Parental Dental Anxiety

Which of the following patient groups require regular fissure sealant placement? Select one: A. Children with caries in their primary dentition B. Children with compromised medical histories C. Children at risk of caries development D. All of the above

D. All of the above

After placement, fissure sealants should be checked for: Select one: A. Air bubbles B. Flash C. Non-adherence D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How often should fissure sealants placed in a child of high caries risk be radiographically reviewed? Select one: A. Every 6 months B. Every 12 months C. Every 18 months D. Every 24 months

A. Every 6 months

What is the major advantage of using a glass ionomer fissure sealant? Select one: A. It is more aesthetic B. It sets quicker C. It does not releases fluoride D. It is easier to handle when moisture control is not ideal

D. It is easier to handle when moisture control is not ideal

Which of the following should be used to clean the tooth prior to fissure sealant placement? Select one: A. Air and water B. Pumice and water C. Diamond polishing paste D. Toothpaste

B. Pumice and water

How should the occlusal surface of the tooth appear after adequate acid-etching and drying? Select one: A. Smooth and shiny B. Mottled C. Blue D. Chalky-white/frosted

D. Chalky-white/frosted

Which instrument should be used to check the seal after placement? Select one: A. Flat plastic B. Micro-brush C. A sharp probe D. 3-in-1 tip

C. A sharp probe

What is the thickness of an active component in orthdontics

0.5mm HSSW

Class II skeletal jaw relationship is most commonly associated with which of the following? Select one: a. A prognathic maxilla. b. Mandibular prognathism. c. An increased lower anterior face height. d. A retrognathic mandible.

d. A retrognathic mandible.

Which of the following is most commonly associated with a Class III jaw relationship? Select one: a. Vertical maxillary excess. b. Mandibular prognathism. c. Anterior open bite. d. Anteroposterior maxillary deficiency. e. True mandibular asymmetry.

d. Anteroposterior maxillary deficiency.

Which of the following would you expect to find in a patient with long face syndrome? Select one: a. Backward growth rotation of the mandible. b. Increased maxillary posterior dentoalveolar height. c. An increased lower anterior face height percentage. d. Ante-gonial notching of the mandible. e. All of the above.

e. All of the above.

What is the likely cause of a left-sided unilateral posterior crossbite that is not associated with a lateral displacement of the mandible on closure? Select one: a. Mandibular prognathism. b. An anterior open bite. c. A narrow maxillary dental arch. d. A true asymmetry of the mandible with the chin point shifted to the left. e. Vertical maxillary deficiency.

d. A true asymmetry of the mandible with the chin point shifted to the left

What is the correct term used to describe a mismatch between the size of a patient's teeth and jaws? Select one: a. Dento-skeletal discrepancy. b. Dento-alveolar disproportion. c. Microdontia. d. Severe crowding. e. Odonto-alveolar disproportion.

b. Dento-alveolar disproportion.

When performing an intra-oral examination of a 9.5 year-old patient which of the following would not be considered a relevant feature to indicate the possibility of an unerupted ectopic canine? a.A palpable palatal elevation of the alveolar mucosa b.Mobility of the deciduous canine c.Discolouration of the deciduous canine d.Inclination/Angulation of the upper lateral incisor e.Presence of an upper midline diastema

e. Presence of an upper midline diastema

Which of the following can be caused by early loss of primary teeth? a.Crowding and dental centreline shifts b.Ankylosis of permanent teeth and loss of alveolar bone c.Drifting of adjacent teeth and caries in the permanent dentition d.Dental centreline shifts and loss of alveolar bone e.Space loss and ankylosis of permanent successor

a.Crowding and dental centreline shifts

Which of the following is not a recognised effect of a digit-sucking habit on the developing dentition? Select one: a.Anterior crossbite b.Retroclination of the lower incisors c.Unilateral posterior cross-bite d.Anterior open bite e.Proclination of the upper incisors

a.Anterior crossbite

Which two the following categories of supernumerary teeth are the most likely to erupt into the oral cavity? Select one: a.Compound odontome and tuberculate b.Supplemental and conical c.Conical and tuberculate d.Tuberculate and Supplemental e.Mesiodens and complex odontome

b.Supplemental and conical

Your child patient presents with a single grossly carious first permanent molar. The condition of the other three first permanent molars is reasonably good. Which of the following are the main factors that influence any decisions that need to be made regarding whether or not to balance or compensate the extraction of this grossly carious tooth? Select one: a.Age of patient, presence of bilateral crossbite, degree of crowding b.Presence of crowding, malocclusion type, presence of carious deciduous teeth c.Age of patient, degree of crowding, malocclusion type d.Presence of carious deciduous teeth, age of patient, Crowding e.Early loss of primary teeth, malocclusion type, age of patient

c.Age of patient, degree of crowding, malocclusion type

In order to promote eruption of an upper second premolar we are considering extracting the deciduous second molar. What would be the ideal stage of root development of the unerupted second premolar to produce an optimal result? Select one: a.Less than one third root formed b.Root formation not started but crown formation complete c.Less than one half root formed d.More than two thirds root formed e.One half to two thirds root formed

e.One half to two thirds root formed

With regards to the mechanism by which bodily orthodontic tooth movement takes place during fixed appliance treatment, which of the following statements is true: Select one: a. Bone is laid down in response to compression of the periodontal ligament on the same side of the tooth as the direction of intended tooth movement b. Bone is removed in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the same side of the tooth as the direction of intended tooth movement c. Bone is laid down in response to compression of the periodontal ligament on the same side of the tooth as the direction of intended tooth movement d.Bone is laid down in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement e. Bone is removed in response to compression of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement

d.Bone is laid down in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement

Which of the following force ranges would be most appropriate to apply when trying to intrude teeth with a fixed appliance? a.100-150g b.10-20g c.150-200g d.35g -60g e.50-100g

b.10-20g

Which of the following histological features is thought to play the biggest role in tooth eruption: Select one: a.Gubernacular cord b.Reduced enamel Epithelium c.Epithelial root sheath ( Hertwig's root sheath ) d.Epithelial cell rests (of Malassez) e.Dental Follicle

e.Dental Follicle

Which of the following is NOT a factor which can influence the rate of tooth movement? Select one: a.Anatomy of bone in the area b.Direction of force c.Age of the patient d.Magnitude of force e.Duration of force

b.Direction of force

When measuring overjet clinically which of the following applies? a. The patient should be in retruded contact position b. The patient's Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA) should be vertical c. The patient should be in intercuspal position d. The URA should be in the patient's mouth e. The patient should be prone

a. The patient should be in retruded contact position

The Aesthetic Component of IOTN: a. fulfils all the criteria of an ideal index b. is of use in rating dental attractiveness c. can only be used clinically on patients d. is used to assess treatment complexity e. uses a series of 10 photographs, with number 1 being the least attractive arrangement of teeth

b. is of use in rating dental attractiveness

The Dental Health Component (DHC) of IOTN: a. is a subjective assessment b. records the most favourable feature of the malocclusion c. can only be used on study models d. is assessed using the MOCDOO system e. is an indicator of treatment complexity

d. is assessed using the MOCDOO system

A patient whose worst occlusal feature is a unilateral unerupted ectopic canine would score with IOTN DHC? a. 5a b. 5i c. 4a d. 4h e. 5h f. 4i

b. 5i

The P.A.R. indexa. assesses 5 components of alignment b. scores pre treatment study models only c. stands for the Peer Assessment Rating index d. is designed to assess treatment difficulty from study models e. assesses the effect of orthodontic treatment on the facial profile f. has been a method of assessing treatment outcome for 30 years

c. stands for the Peer Assessment Rating index

When assigning the Dental Health Component of IOTN a. grades 3,4 and 5 are commonly grouped together b. once a grade 3 has been found the process is complete c. the patient's views are paramount d. the MOODOO system is an aide memoire e. an increased overjet of 12mm would score a grade 5i f. a traumatic overbite would score a grade 4f

d. the MOODOO system is an aide memoire