m choice Flashcards
Non setting calcium hydroxide paste, used as an inter-appointment dressing, in endodontic treatment has a pH of around
3
5
7
10
12
12
Which material has the highest Knoop hardness value
a) Ceromer
b) Feldspathic porcelain
c) High copper amalgam
d) Posterior composite
e) Resin modified glass ionomer
High copper amalgam
Which piece of legislation is applicable to the design and access layout for all dental practices
a) Adults with incapacity act
b) Equality act
c) Health and safety at work act
d) Mental capacity act
e) Mental health act
Equality act
Which of the following materials has a thermal expansion similar to tooth enamel
a) Glass ionomer cement
b) Hybrid composite resin
c) Titanium
d) Silver amalgam
e) Setting calcium hydroxide cement
Glass ionomer cement
When planning periodontal treatment for a patient during pregnancy, you should:
a) As a minimum provide supportive care until after the baby is born
b) To avoid causing the patient anxiety you should not discuss the risks of periodontitis whilst the patient is pregnant
c) Treat as a normal patient, as long as you provide antibiotic cover
d) Wait until the third trimester before carrying out non surgical treatment
e) Wait until the third trimester before carrying out surgical treatment
As a minimum provide supportive care until after the baby is born
A class II AP skeletal relationship is defined as
The mandible is 2-3mm behind the maxilla
The mandible is 2-3mm in front of the maxilla
The mandible is less than 2-3mm behind the maxilla
The mandible is less than 2-3mm in front of the maxilla
The mandible is more than 2-3mm behind the maxilla
The mandible is more than 2-3mm behind the maxilla
What is the shape of the preparation for 21 endo treatment
Triangular where the triangle base in closer to incisal edge and the apex is at the cingulum
Stainless steel benefits from cold working. Which of the following definitions and material benefits best explains this. Cold working….
a) Causes a change in the type of solid solution, making stainless steel stronger under tension
b) Causes precipitation hardening, making stainless steel more corrosion resistant
c) Causes re-arrangement of atoms into an ordered grain structure giving stainless steel greater impact strength
d) Pushes lattice dislocations to the grain boundary, making stainless steel stronger under compression
e) Produces fibrous grains, making stainless steel stronger under flexural loading
Pushes lattice dislocations to the grain boundary, making stainless steel stronger under compression
Concerning prenatal facial and skull growth, which of the following statements is true?
a) Both the maxilla and mandible develop by endochondral ossification and are preceded by a cartilaginous facial skeleton
b) Meckel’s cartilage and the nasal capsule are considered secondary cartilages
c) Ossification of the face and skull commences at about 8-9 weeks intra uterine
d) The neurocranium encases the brain and the viscerocranium forms the face
e) The vault of the skull is formed by endochondral ossification
The neurocranium encases the brain and the viscerocranium forms the face
Which combination of properties best describes a dental ceramic:
High compressive strength and brittle
High compressive strength and flexible
Low compressive strength and brittle
Low compressive strength and ductile
Low tensile strength and flexible
High compressive strength and brittle
In orthodontics for which purpose is a buccal canine retractor used:
To correct the position of a palatally displaced canine
To mesialise a canine in the line of the arch
To move a canine buccally
To retract a buccally positioned canine and move it palatally
To retract a canine into a buccal position
To retract a buccally positioned canine and move it palatally
Which of the following best describes the work flow in a Local Decontamination Unit
Clean, inspect, pack, sterlization
Clean, inspect, pack, sterilization, decontamination
Decontamination, clean, pack, sterlisation
Decontamination, sterilization, clean, pack
Inspect, clean, sterilisation, pack
Clean, inspect, pack, sterlization
The ideal detergent for use in a washer disinfector should have a pH closest to:
6
7
8
9
10
7
Due to a power outage your ultrasonic bath has lost its programmed cycle time and reset to default. How do we find out how long the cycle should be;
a) Check guidance documentation to see what time is recommended
b) Check printouts for a previous cycles and use the average cycle time
c) Check the validation document for the machine to see what the cycle time was previously validated at when the machine was setup and installed
d) Phone a biomedical engineering company and ask somebody what it should be
e) Process some instrumentation and inspect it afterwards to see if it is free from biological matter
Check the validation document for the machine to see what the cycle time was previously validated at when the machine was setup and installed
If treating a patient with a 7mm overjet and deep traumatic overbite, what instructions should be included on the laboratory prescribtion
FABP 4mm wide
FABP 7mm wide
FABP 10mm wide
Inclined anterior bite plane 7mm wide
Inclined anterior bite plane 10mm wide
FABP 10mm wide
What concentration of chlorine is commonly used in the cleaning of a blood spillage
500
1000
5000
10000
15000
10000
What is the main purpose of hand hygiene
Decontamination of hands prior to surgical extractions
Elimination of all microorganisms and cleaning of soiled hands
Removal of resident microflora
Removal of transient microorganisms and cleaning of soiled hands
To show patients we take hand hygiene seriously
Removal of transient microorganisms and cleaning of soiled hands
The role of the Local Decontamination Unit is to decontaminate:
Complex medical devices
Dental uniforms
Endodontic instruments
Reusable medical devices
Steel burs
Reusable medical devices
Where is our knowledge of radiation risks to humans primarily derived from?
Computer simulations
Mathematical models
Studies of dental radiology patients
Studies of persons exposed to low dose levels
Studies of persons exposed to high dose levels
Studies of persons exposed to high dose levels
The personnel involved in a dental radiographic examination occur in the following order
Operator, practitioner, referrer
Practitioner, operator, referrer
Practitioner, referrer, operator
Referrer, operator, practitioner
Referrer, practitioner, operator
Referrer, Practitioner, Operator
In terms of medical devices, which statement best defines sterility
a) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a thousand
b) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in 10 thousand
c) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in 100 thousand
d) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million
e) An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 10 in a million
An instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million
Which of the following anatomical features is the most radiolucent on a dental radiograph
Air in the maxillary sinus
Air in the pharynx
Inferior alveolar canal
Incisive fossa
Pulp canal or chamber
Air in the maxillary sinus
What can be used to minimize the dose to patients during intra oral examinations
Circular collimators
D speed film instead of E speed film
Film instead of digital detector
Longer exposure times
Rectangular collimators
Rectangular collimators
What frequency is recommended for bitewing radiographs for a high risk adult patient
3 monthly
6 monthly
9 monthly
Annually
Two years
6 monthly
Which fault will result in an intraoral radiograph being too dark
Beam aiming ring not being close to face
Excessive time in fixer
Increased focus to skin distance
Too long an exposure time
Too short an exposure time
Too long an exposure time
A 23 year old female with Type 1 Von Willebrand’s disease requires the extraction of 3 molar teeth. Which of the following medications will she require prior to removing these teeth
Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Factor eight inhibitor bypassing activity (FEIBA)
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
Platelets
Vitamin K
Desmopressin (DDAVP)
A 68 year old female is taking alendronic acid for osteoporosis. This is the only medication she is prescribed and otherwise she is fit and well. She attends the General Dental Services and requires a non-surgical tooth extraction. How should this patient be managed?
Extract the tooth
Extract the tooth and review the patient 4 weeks later
Extract the tooth, prescribe post operative antibiotics and review the patient 4 weeks later
Prescribe antibiotics to be taken 1 week prior to the extraction, extract the tooth and review the patient 4 weeks later
Refer the patient to a secondary care service
Extract the tooth and review the patient 4 weeks later
Which of the following statements is true in relation to the Ionizing Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations 2017 IR(ME)R 2017:
A member of one of the DCPs (other than the dentist) may act as the referrer
Exposures may be carried out without justification
The employer must justify every exposure
The operator refers only to one person
The practitioner must justify every exposure
The practitioner must justify every exposure
The purpose of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 is:
Access an Independent mental capacity advocate for people who lack capacity
Allow dentists to undertake any treatment they feel is necessary for people who lack capacity
Facilitate a best interest meeting to discuss the necessary dental treatment for people who lack capacity
Protect and safeguard the welfare and finances of adults who lack capacity
Protect dentists from legal challenge when providing treatment for people who lack capacity
Protect and safeguard the welfare and finances of adults who lack capacity
To maximise the skills of all dental team members and deliver an efficient and effective dental service the delivery of supportive periodontal maintenance for individuals resident in a care home with severe impairment and disability is best facilitated by:
Dental nurse
Dental technician
General dental practitioner service dentist
Hygiene/therapist
Specialist in special care dentistry
Specialist in special care dentistry
In the most common form of dementia, which protein is thought to have a key pathological role?
Collagen
Elastin
Fibrin
Tau Protein
Tubulin
Tau protein (Alzheimer’s)
A 24 year old female presents to your general dental practice complaining of generalized sensitivity from all her teeth. On clinical examination, there is a significant level of erosion affect the palatal and lingual aspects of the incisors. There are also multiple abrasions affecting the soft palate and xerostomia. Which medical disease might these oral finding suggest?
Anorexia nervosa
Autistic spectrum disorder
Bipolar affective disorder
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Schizophrenia
Anorexia nervosa
A 31 year old male with cerebral palsy requires two restorations. He uses a wheelchair and is unable to weight bear. To facilitate his access to a dental chair which would be the most suitable adjuvant to use:
Banana board
Sling and hoist
Sling and stand aid
Treat the patient in his own wheelchair
Turn table
Sling and hoist
A patient with a diagnosis of head and neck cancer attends your general dental practice. He was treated 2 years ago with radiotherapy and chemotherapy. He presents with a periapical periodontitis associated with tooth 17. The tooth was in the primary field of radiation. The most appropriate management of this tooth is to:
Do nothing
Extract the tooth
Primary orthograde endodontics
Provide antibiotics and review
Retrograde endodontic
Primary orthograde endodontics
A 54 year old has completed a course of hygiene phase therapy following a diagnosis of chronic generalised periodontitis. He has a responded poorly to the treatment with no improvement in clinical loss of attachment. He has a BMI of 32 and glaucoma. Which test would be most informative to your further clinical assessment and management
Full blood count (FBC)
Fasting glucose test (FGT)
Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1C)
International Normalised Ratio (INR)
Liver function test (LFT)
Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1C)
Following dental trauma the most likely place to find a missing tooth fragment is:
Out of body
In left main bronchi
In right main bronchi
In soft tissues
In stomach
In soft tissues
A 29 year old male with renal failure who requires haemodialysis attends your dental surgery. He requires dental treatment which includes restorations and extractions. When would be the most appropriate time to provide dental treatment following his haemodialysis
2 hours after haemodialysis
24 hours after haemodialysis
48 hours after haemodialysis
72 hours after haemodialysis
1 week after haemodialysis
24 hours after haemodialysis
It is important to modify your behavior as a dentist when treating children with autism. Which of the following modifications should be made:
Beware of how you describe things as speech is taken for its literal meaning
Have lots of movement in the surgery to make them feel comfortable
Only talk to the child’s parent
Provide lots of appropriate physical contact, hand on shoulder etc.
Rapid exposure to new instruments and procedures
Beware of how you describe things as speech is taken for its literal meaning
Which of the following is defined to be a ‘Key Principle’ of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act?
Do not harm
Encourage residual capacity
Liaise with medical staff
Refer to specialists
Treat as quickly as possible
Encourage residual capacity
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis can have difficulty in holding a toothbrush due to the destruction of the:
Cuneonavicular joint
Distal interphalangeal joints
Metacarpophalangeal joints
Metatarsophalangeal joints
Proximal interphalangeal joints
Metacarpophalangeal joints
What dental problem is specifically associated in children with severe cerebral palsy
Bruxism
Good manual dexterity
Hypodontia
Laxity of the masticatory muscles
Smaller than average tooth size
Bruxism
Drug dosages must often be reduced in the elderly. The most common reason for this is:
Drug interactions
Increased first pass metabolism
Poor drug elimination
Poor GI absorption
Rapid drug elimination
Poor drug elimination
Weakness of the lower facial muscles and upper limb on the same side starting suddenly during dental treatment would suggest that the patient has had a:
Bell’s palsy
Hypoglycaemic episode
Myocardial infarction
Transient ischaemic attack
Vasovagal attack
Transient ischaemic attack
The above picture shows an extrusion injury in the primary dentition. What is the recommended treatment in this case:
Extract the tooth
Reposition the tooth with forceps and splint for 2 weeks
Reposition the tooth with forceps and splint for 4 weeks
Reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 4 weeks
Reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 4 weeks
Extract the tooth
If all three lower incisors are displaced lingually and the alveolar bone is mobile what injury would this be?
Avulsion injury
Dentoalveolar fracture
Extrusion injury
Root fracture
Luxation injury
Dentoalveolar fracture
Which of the following is the most downstream approach that could help reduce dental caries in the child population
a) Delivery of dental practice based one to one chairside advice and clinical prevention
b) Development of nursery and school based healthy food policies
c) Development of universal nursery and school based toothbrushing programmes
d) Introduction of sugar sweetened beverage taxation
e) Supporting the establishment of community based parenting groups supporting healthy eating and brushing behavior
Delivery of dental practice based one to one chairside advice and clinical prevention
Which sociodemographic factor is associated with the greatest burden of oral diseases in the population across the UK
Ethnicity
Gender
Rurality of residence
Sexuality
Socioeconomic status
Socioeconomic status
Which of the following is a planned sequential introduction of environment, people, instruments and procedure?
Acclimatisation
Desensitisation
Distraction
Positive reinforcement
Tell show do
Acclimatisation
What is the MOST suitable for occlusal analysis
Fixed condylar
Fully adjustable
Plasterless
Semi-adjustable
Simple hinge
Fully adjustable
When the mandible is in its most reproducible relationship to the maxilla during closure, the point at which the teeth contact is called
Centric relation
Habitual position
Intercuspal position
Rest position
Retruded contact position
Retruded contact position
During root canal treatment of the maxillary first molars, where is an ‘extra’ canal often situated
Distobuccal root
In the furcation region
Mesiobuccal root
Mesiopalatal root
Palatal root
Mesiobuccal root
Which of the following options describes a tooth guidance scheme in lateral excursion in which a number of posterior teeth on the working side contact but there is disocclusion of the teeth on the non working side
Anterior guidance
Balanced articulation
Balanced occlusion
Canine guidance
Group function
Group function
During root canal treatment, which one of the following is normally used as a reference point for the working length
A graduated ‘seeker’ file
A rubber stop
Cusp or incisal tip
Level of access cavity
The floor of the pulp chamber
Cusp or incisal tip
In which of the following types of periodontal defect is bone regeneration most likely to occur following successful treatment:
Circumferential intrabony defect
Horizontal bone loss
One walled interproximal intrabony defect
Through and through furcation defect
Two walled interproximal bone defect
Two walled interproximal bone defect
If a site has a probing depth of 7mm and the gingival margin is located 2mm coronal to the ACJ the attachment loss is equal to
2mm
3mm
5mm
7mm
9mm
5mm
At re-evaluation under what circumstances would periodontal surgery be indicated
Excellent oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm
Excellent oral hygiene, pockets of 3-4mm and increased tooth mobility
Poor oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm
Pockets of greater or equal to 7mm, irrespective of oral hygiene
Poor oral hygiene, pockets of 3-4mm and increased tooth mobility
Excellent oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm
A CPITN score of 3 indicates that:
There is loss of attachment
There is no inflammation
There is no pocketing
There is pocketing of between 3.5 and 5.5mm
There is pocketing in excess of 5.5mm
There is pocketing of between 3.5 and 5.5mm
Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of tooth discoloration
Chromogenic bacteria
Iron supplements
Smoking
Tannins
Tetracycline
Tetracycline
Which of the following describes the shape of an access cavity for an upper central incisor
An oval, wider mesiodistally than gingivoincisally, just incisal to the cingulum
An oval, wider gingivoincisally than mesiodistally, just incisal to the cingulum
A diamond shape extending from the cingulum to the incisal edge
A triangle with its apex above the cingulum and its base towards the incisal edge
A triangle with its base above the cingulum and its apex close to the incisal edge
A triangle with its apex above the cingulum and its base towards the incisal edge
Which of the following statements about success of endodontic treatment is true
a) An obturation that extends all the way to the radiographic apex of the tooth is essential for success
b) Apical seal is more important than coronal seal in determining outcome
c) Overextension of gutta percha does not have an impact upon outcome
d) Root canal obturation extending to within 2mm of the radiographic apex contributes to success
e) Sealer extrusion has a detrimental effect on outcomes
Root canal obturation extending to within 2mm of the radiographic apex contributes to success
When undertaking root canal treatment, what inter-visit regimen should generally be utilised within the root canal
Gutta percha point
Hard setting calcium hydroxide
Non setting calcium hydroxide
Paper point with sterile saline
Zinc oxide and eugenol
Non setting calcium hydroxide
A fit and healthy patient attends your practice for the first time. He presents with poor plaque control, generalised gingival erythema and bleeding on gentle probing. There is no evidence on attachment loss. The most appropriate first line of treatment would be
Oral hygiene instruction
Prescribe chlorhexidine mouthwash
Prescribe metronidazole
Root surface debridement
Scale and polish
Oral hygiene instruction
When restoring an endodontically treated upper first molar, which cusps should be covered by the restoration:
Full cuspal coverage
Functional cusps
Mesiobuccal cusp and marginal ridges
Palatal cusps
Unsupported cusps
Full cuspal coverage
In healthy teeth, the biological width, comprising the supra-alveolar connective tissue attachment and junctional epithelium has an approximate dimension of:
0.5mm
1mm
2mm
3mm
3.5mm
2mm
In the new periodontal classification, staging and grading of disease refers to
Distribution and progression respectively
Distribution and severity respectively
Progression and extent respectively
Progression and severity respectively
Severity and progression respectively
Severity and progression respectively
Which from the list below is a local risk factor for periodontal disease
Calculus
Diabetes
HIV infection
Rheumatoid arthritis
Smoking
Calculus
With regards to the luxator instrument, which of the following statements is correct:
It is classified as an elevator just like the Coupland’s elevator
It is designed to cut the PDL around a root
It is often used to elevate a fractured tooth root
It should be used with heavy force when luxating a tooth
Its tip is flat and blunt to avoid damaging dental tissues
It is designed to cut the PDL around a root
What would be the most appropriate post surgical advice to give a to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction
Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
Heavy manual work can be performed on the day
Pain killers will always be required
Smoking has no significant effect on the healing process
Start rinsing within six hours of the extraction with warm salty water
Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
You are about to extract multiple teeth on a fit and healthy 40 year old male. What is the maximum safe dose of Articaine 4% with adrenaline 1:100,000 that you can administer?
3mg/kg
5mg/kg
7mg/kg
9mg/kg
11mg/kg
7mg/kg
You are about to extract multiple teeth on a fit and healthy 70 year old male who weighs 52kgs. How many standard 2.2mL cartridges of lignocaine 2% with adrenaline 1:80,000 can you safely administer
4
5
6
7
8
5
Which of the following would be described as a rare complication following a routine tooth extractions
Dry socket
Infected socket
Osteomyelitis
Pain
Trismus
Osteomyelitis
Which of the following could be described as a perioperative complication
Dry socket
Ecchymosis
Fracture of the alveolar plate
Oedema
Trismus
Fracture of the alveolar plate
A patient returns to the clinic one week following removal of a lower wisdom tooth. They describe a sharp, shooting, painful sensation affecting their lower lip. Which of the following terms is used to describe this
Anaesthesia
Dysaesthesia
Hyperaesthesia
Hypoaesthesia
Parasthesia
Dysaesthesia
The lingual nerve usually sits deep within the lingual mucosa adjacent to the posterior molar teeth. In what percentage of cases does it sit above the level of the lingual bone that can be hazardous when thinking of raising a flap to remove a lower wisdom tooth
1-3%
5-8%
10-13%
15-18%
20-23%
15-18%
Which of the following drugs has been described by the BNF as ‘ineffective to relieve dental pain’ and therefore would not be routinely prescribed?
Cocodamol
Diclofenac
Dihydrocodeine
Ibuprofen
Paracetamol
Dihydrocodeine
What is the maximum safe dose of paracetamol that a fit and healthy patient can take over a 24 hour period?
1g
2g
3g
4g
5g
4g
Which of the following substances is active against bacteria, fungi and yeasts
Amoxicillin
Chlorhexidine
Hydrated silica
Metronidazole
Stannous fluoride
Chlorhexidine
Which of these bacteria is associated with periodontitis
Escherichia coli
Pasteurella multocida
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus oralis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Which of these bacteria are associated with dental caries
Streptococcus gordonii
Streptococcus mitis
Streotococcus mutans
Streptococcus oralis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streotococcus mutans
Where do positively charged molecules (RNH+) which are the active molecules of the local anesthetic salt, bind in sensory nerves to block impulse conduction
Activation gate
Inactivation gate
Outer surface receptor
Receptor within the sodium channel
Within the cell membrane
Receptor within the sodium channel
The future trends for edentulous rates in the UK are projected to be
A decrease in all age groups
A decrease only in younger age groups
An increase in all age groups
An increase in only younger age groups
No change
A decrease in all age groups
Which of the following can be defined as ‘an individual’s belief that they can succeed at a particular task or behaviour’
Compliance
External locus of control
Reasoned action
Self efficacy
Subjective norms
Self efficacy
Which of the following community fluoride delivery initiatives are currently in place in Scotland
Fluoridated nursery and school milk schemes
Fluoridation of nursery and school water supply
Fluoridation of public water supply
Fluoride mouth rinsing schemes in nurseries and schools
Fluoride varnish schemes in nurseries and schools
Fluoride varnish schemes in nurseries and schools
Which of these candida species are inherently resistant to intraconazole?
Candida albicans
Candida dubliniesis
Candida glabrata
Candida parapsilosis
Candida tropicalis
Candida glabrata
Which of the following statements is true
Candida glabrata biofilms are sensitive to intraconazole
Candida albicans biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin
P. gingivalis biofilms are sensitive to fluconazole
P. intermedia biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin
Streptococcus mutans biofilms are sensitive to itraconazole
Candida albicans biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin
When subjects are randomly allocated to different interventions, followed up and outcomes assessed, the most appropriate study design is:
Case control
Case series
Cohort
Cross sectional
Randomized controlled trial
Randomized controlled trial
In relation to the research finding ‘Among those who have never drunk alcohol, cigarette smoking was associated with an increased risk of head and neck cancer (odds ratio for ever versus never smoking = 2.13, 95% CI = 1.52 to 2.98)’ which of the following is true:
a) Cigarette smoking doubles the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
b) Cigarette smoking halves the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
c) Cigarette smoking is not associated with increased risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
d) Drinking alcohol is not associated with increased risk of head and neck cancer in those who smoke cigarettes
e) Never drinking alcohol halves the risk of head and neck cancer among those who smoke cigarettes
Cigarette smoking doubles the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
When well/healthy participants are recruited to a study, followed up over time and exposures and diseases are measured prospectively, the most appropriate study design is:
Case control
Case series
Cohort
Cross sectional
RCT
cohort
Which of the following is a lifestyle behavior
Age
Alcohol consumption
Gender
Household income
Hypertension
Alcohol consumption
A 44 year old male reports that he consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. This is consumed over two days. What advice should you give him?
a) He is consuming less than the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and does not require cessation advice
b) He is consuming less than the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and should be encouraged to reduce his consumption
c) He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and does not require cessation advice
d) He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread out these over five days with two alcohol free days
He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread out these over five days with two alcohol free days
The inverse care law proposed by Dr Julian Tudor Hart is used to describe
Area level of healthcare needs but is unrelated to access to care
Areas least in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it
Areas most in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it
Areas most in need of good healthcare are most likely to receive it
Level of access to care but is unrelated to area level of healthcare needs
Areas most in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it
When epidemiologists judge the evidence to establish possible cause of a disease from an exposure they consider:
Evidence from one study is sufficient to establish causality
Evidence of the strength of association between exposure and disease
Evidence that the exposure of interest appeared after the disease
Evidence showing that increase in the exposure reduced the risk of the disease
Evidence showing that reduction in exposure has no effect on the risk of the outcome
Evidence of the strength of association between exposure and disease
Which of the following anatomical statements is the best explanation for numbness of the tongue after administering an inferior alveolar nerve block:
The lingual nerve is related to the mandible at the third molar tooth
The lingual nerve lies between the medial pterygoid muscle and the mandible
The tongue and the floor of the mouth have the same sensory innervation
The tongue is innervated by the hypoglossal nerve
The tongue is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve
The lingual nerve lies between the medial pterygoid muscle and the mandible
A dental radiograph shows the pterygoid hamulus. Of which bone is the pterygoid hamulus a component?
Maxilla
Palatine
Sphenoid
Temporal
Vomer
Sphenoid
Which of the following is the most powerful predictor of future caries experience
Caries in primary teeth
Frequent intakes of sugar
Low socioeconomic status
Medically compromised
Poor oral hygiene
Caries in primary teeth
Which of the following would you recommend while undertaking dietary analysis in a young child with caries in their primary teeth
Acidic drinks should be restricted to meal times
An overnight bottle can contain water or milk
Drinks containing soy formula are OK between meals
Grazing on sugary foods is OK if you brush your teeth afterwards
Sucrose free stick snacks are OK for your teeth
Acidic drinks should be restricted to meal times
The process of blinding or masking the outcome assessor in a Randomized Controlled Trial helps to minimize:
The confidence intervals
The risk of bias
The risk ratio
The sample size
Variation between individuals
The risk of bias
Which study design is most appropriate for the following research question ‘What is the incidence of implant failure in smokers?’
Case control
Cohort
Cross sectional
Randomized controlled trial
Systematic review and meta analysis of RCTs
Cohort
Which facial syndrome has the following features: deformity of 1st and 2nd branchial arches with anti-mongoloid slant palpebral fissure, colobomas of lower eyelid outer one third, hypoplastic or missing zygomatic arches, hypoplastic mandible with antegonial notch, deformed pinna and conductive deafness
Acrosyndactyly
Hemifacial microsomia
Foetal alcohol syndrome
Craniofacial dysostosis (Crouzon’s)
Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)
Mandibulofacial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)
Which of the following is a possible sign of physical child abuse:
Child taken for care soon after injury occurred
History of injury consistent with development age of child
Injuries consistent with developmental age of child
Multiple injuries round the mouth
Parent concerned about possible long term consequences of injury
Multiple injuries round the mouth
Which of the following is an indication for primary molar endodontics
Age (12 and over)
Cardiac disease
Cellulitis
Good cooperation
Pus in pulp chamber
Good cooperation
The property of occlusal forces that the dentist is most able to influence through careful design of occlusal surfaces is
Direction
Duration
Frequency
Velocity
Magnitude
direction
Which percentage of phosphoric acid is normally used to etch enamel prior to placing composite restorations
17% phosphoric acid
27% phosphoric acid
37% phosphoric acid
47% phosphoric acid
57% phosphoric acid
37% phosphoric acid
In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of jaw registration is:
To determine the intermaxillary relationship in intercuspal position
To determine the intermaxillary relationship in retruded contact position
To record the denture space
To record the freeway space
To determine the intermaxillary relationship in retruded contact position
In the development of dentinal caries, which one of the following is the earliest observed event:
Beading of tubules
Initial demineralisation
Invasion of pioneer bacteria
Liquefaction foci
Pulpal necrosis
beading of tubules
A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest:
Atrial fibrillation
Congestive heart failure
Deep vein thrombosis
Left heart failure
Ventricular fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation
For epidemiological purposes periodontal health can be measured by which index:
CPITN
dmft/DMFT
IOTN
PAR
TF
CPITN
You are examining the neck of a patient who has had a recent throat infection. Which of the following observations on the lymph nodes is most likely to be consistent with this diagnosis
Enlarged deep cervical nodes only
Enlargement of the parotid nodes only
Enlargement of the submandibular nodes only
Enlargement of the submental, submandibular and deep cervical nodes
Generalised lymph node enlargement
Enlargement of the submental, submandibular and deep cervical nodes
In relation to the Spaulding classification for medical devices:
a) Critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and must be serilized
b) Critical devices are those that contact only intact skin and must be sterilized
c) Non critical devices are those that contact only intact skin and must be sterilized
d) Semi critical devices are those that contact normally sterile tissue and must be sterilized
e) Semi critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilized
Semi critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilized
Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which of the following sugars is present within the diet
Fructose
Glucose
Lactose
Mannose
Sucrose
Sucrose
Which statement is true for the role of the glycocalyx in biofilms
It aids diffusion of antibiotics
It increases natural killer cell function
It is composed of proteins
It is prone to desiccation
It provides a protective barrier
It provides a protective barrier
Deamination of amino acids
a) Generates the corresponding keto acids
b) Only occurs when amino acid concentration is low
c) Occurs at low pH
d) Produces amines
e) Produces CO2
Generates the corresponding keto acids
When thinking about the potential of post operative bleeding following a tooth extraction, which of the following would be regarded as a systemic haemostatis agent that could be provided to help alleviate prolonged bleeding
Adrenaline containing local anaesthetic
Fibrin foam
Oxidised regenerated cellulose
Thrombin paste and powder
Tranexamic acid
Tranexamic acid
What is the documented incidence of permanent neuro-sensory damage to the inferior alveolar nerve following extraction of a low risk wisdom tooth?
<1%
<5%
<10%
<15%
<20%
<1%
In orthodontics anterior bite planes are used for:
Facilitating correction of an anterior crossbite
Increasing the overbite
Protecting brackets of a fixed appliance on lower incisors from the occlusal force of upper incisors
Reducing the overbite
Reducing the overjet
Reducing the overbite
Which of the following statements is true of childhood Leukaemia?
40% are acute lymphoblast leukaemia (A.L.L)
Female more than male
May be present with gingival bleeding
Peak age is 9-12 years
Presents with primary herpes
May be present with gingival bleeding
During root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal, which one of the following provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier:
Acidulated fluorophosphate (APF)
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
Sodium hypochlorite
Sterile saline
Water
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
Osteoporosis is a common finding in the elderly and can result in:
An increase in the risk of lower vertebral fractures
An increase in the risk of maxillary fractures
Antlanto-occipital instability
Calcification of the bones leading to stress fractures
The inability to walk without a stick
An increase in the risk of lower vertebral fractures
Osteoarthritis is frequently a problem in the elderly. The main supplement or drug taken to reduce the disability associated with this is:
Bisphosphonates
Calcium supplements
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
Prednisolone
Vitamin D
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
In radiographic localisation, the acronym SLOB stands for
Same Lingual Opposite Buccal
Simply Lingual Or Buccal
Some Lingual Others Buccal
Stay Lingual Or Buccal
Sure Lingual Or Buccal
Same Lingual Opposite Buccal
The probability of photoelectric absorption effects occurring in radiography is proportional to:
Atomic number^3 (Z^3)
Film speed
Kilovoltage^3 (kV^3)
Patient size
X ray technique
Atomic number^3 (Z^3)
What is the correct color of Rinn film holder to use when taking a conventional periapical radiograph of tooth 26
Black
Blue
Green
Red
Yellow
Yellow
You are treating a patient who has a satisfactorily root-treated lower molar and you intend to place a crown. Which of the following is the best method of retaining a core
a) Placing a direct prefabricated post
b) Use of adhesion only
c) Use of dentine pins
d) Using an indirect cast post
e) Using the pulp chamber and coronal root canal morphology to retain a plastic material
Use of adhesion only
Which of the following spaces would be the most common for an acute abscess to track from an upper lateral incisor tooth
Buccal
Infraorbital
Palatal
Parapharyngeal
Submental
Palatal
An elderly patient feels faint when made to sit rapidly from lying flat in the dental chair. The most likely reason in the ageing patient for this is:
Angiotensin II insensitivity
Increased baroreceptor response
Poorly maintained blood glucose during dental treatment
Reduced baroreceptor response
Reduced renal renin release
Reduced baroreceptor response
A 25 year old male with severe intellectual disability, attends your practice, accompanied by his carers. He needs several restorations and an extraction. Under current SCOTTISH legislation who can consent on his behalf
Assignee
Carer
Either parent
Welfare guardian
Welfare power of attorney
Welfare guardian
Which difference is NOT a cause of varying temperature regulation in children compared to adults
Brown fat metabolism
Immature responses to hypothermia
Large head surface area and heat loss
Low surface area to body weight ratio
Require a higher temperature for thermoneutral environment
Low surface area to body weight ratio
When preparing an upper first permanent molar for a metal ceramic crown, a functional cusp bevel is placed on which cusp
Cusp of carabelli
Disto buccal
Disto palatal
Mesio buccal
Mesio palatal
Mesio palatal
The correct degree of axial taper in an ideal crown preparation is:
1
7
12
15
20
7
The fit surface of a porcelain laminate veneer is prepared with the following acid:
Citric acid
Hydrochloric acid
Hydrofluoric acid
Phosphoric acid
Nitric acid
Hydrofluoric acid
A patient, who is an older person, attends his general practitioner because he has been losing weight and getting increasingly breathless. The GP takes a blood sample to check for the presence of anaemia. Which (first line) blood test does a GP request
Full blood count (FBC)
Intrinsic factor
Liver function tests (LFT)
Thyroid function tests (TFT)
Urea and electrolytes (U and E)
Full blood count (FBC)
Haemophilia A is caused by deficiency of:
Factor V
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Factor X
Vitamin K
Factor VIII
Which study design provides the highest level of evidence for the following research question: is ibuprofen an paracetamol more effective than paracetamol alone in pain relief after surgical removal of lower wisdom tooth?
Case control
Cohort
Cross sectional
Matched pair
RCT
RCT
You are a dentist in general practice and are required to provide a new upper denture for an 80 year old female with dementia who lacks capacity to consent for treatment. You have attended an additional Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Course allowing you complete Section 47 (AWI) forms. How would you best proceed
a) Complete a Section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment
b) Consult the continuing power of attorney, complete a section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment
c) Consult the welfare power of attorney and provide treatment
d) Consult a welfare power of attorney, complete a section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment
e) Provide treatment
Consult a welfare power of attorney, complete a section 47 (AWI) form and provide treatment
A 42 year old female with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, who is dependent upon a wheelchair wants to attend your dental practice for her oral healthcare. You work in a practice which is situated on the third level up from the ground which is only accessible by stairs. How should you manage this situation
a) Install a lift in order to facilitate access to the practice
b) Refer the patient to another practice or the public dental service (PDS) which has access for wheelchair users
c) Tell a colleague in your practice that she must go and visit the patient as a domiciliary visit
d) Tell the patient she will have to climb the stairs if she wishes to attend the practice
e) Tell the patient that your practice would not be suitable for her
Refer the patient to another practice or the public dental service (PDS) which has access for wheelchair users
A 60 year old male attends your dental practice 6 months following completion of radiotherapy for his left tonsillar tumour. He is attending complaining of dry mouth. He wears a maxillary complete denture and has 10 mandibular teeth remaining. You decide to prescribe a saliva substitute. Which of the following saliva substitutes should not be prescribed to him
Biotene Oralbalance gel
BioXtra gel
Glandosane aerosol spray
Saliva orthana spray
Xerotin oral spray
Glandosane aerosol spray
Hypothyroid patients will usually be found to have
A high T4 and high TSH
A high T4 and low TSH
A low T3 and low TSH
A low T4 and high TSH
A low T4 and low TSH
A low T4 and high TSH
When positioning a patient for a panoramic radiograph (OPT), which anatomical reference should be horizontal
Ala tragus line
Corner of mouth angle of mandible
Corner of mouth tragus line
Frankfort plane
Lower border of the mandible
Frankfort plane
How often should a test film be exposed and processed in general dental practice for quality assurance
Twice daily
Daily
Every two days
Weekly
Every two weeks
Daily
The primary aim of a clinical audit is to:
Ensure clinical practice is based on traditional techniques
Gather information on clinical care
Improve health economics
Improve patient care and outcomes
Obtain evidence for use in disciplinary procedures
Improve patient care and outcomes
When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which anatomical reference is used to assess the occlusal plane?
Ala-tragus line
Corner of mouth angle of mandible
Corner of mouth tragus line
Frankfort plane
Interpupillary line
Ala-tragus line
Elastomers can reproduce surface features of width:
1 micrometers
2 micrometers
5 micrometers
10 micrometers
20 micrometers
20 micrometers
A 76 year old woman has fallen in her garden and sustained minor head injury. Twelve days later she has become increasingly confused and unable to walk. Clinical imaging reveals an intracranial haemorrhage. Which of the following vessels is most likely to have bled?
Cavernous sinus
Middle cerebral artery
Middle meningeal artery
Ophthalmic vein
Superior cerebral vein
Superior cerebral vein
A class III AP skeletal relationship is defined as:
The mandible is 2-3mm behind the maxilla
The mandible is 2-3mm in front of the maxilla
The mandible is less than 2-3mm in behind the maxilla
The mandible is less than 2-3mm in front of the maxilla
The mandible is more than 2-3mm behind the maxilla
The mandible is less than 2-3mm in behind the maxilla
Which statement is correct regarding children with cystic fibrosis
a) Diabetes is an early complication of the condition
b) Obstruction of the pancreatic duct prevents the movement of amylase into the intestine
c) They have a lower than average risk of developing dental erosion
d) They should not eat a carbohydrate rich diet
e) Thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract
Thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract
A 17 year old man has sustained deep cut over the posterior part of the body of the mandible on the left side of his face. The facial artery and submandibular salivary gland were not damaged. The wound has been sutured. Which of the following clinical tests would be the most appropriate to carry out?
Elevate shoulders
Protrude tongue
Say ‘Ahhh’
Test sensation of the face
Whistle
Test sensation of the face
What is the Christensen’s phenomenon
A gap that appears between anterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
A gap that appears in between posterior teeth in the retruded contact position
A gap that appears in the natural dentition between anterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
A gap that appears in the natural dentition between posterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
A lateral cephalometric radiograph is taken for a patient requiring the following orthodontic treatment:
A simple removable appliance
Correcting a unilateral crossbite
Functional appliance therapy
Moving a buccally placed canine into the arch
Moving an upper lateral incisor over the bite
Functional appliance therapy
A patient, previously prescribed warfarin has now been prescribed a medication which directly inhibits thrombin. He requires extraction of teeth 44, 45, 46 and 47. He has an appointment on Monday at 0900 to have all these teeth removed. What instructions would you give him in relation to his medication?
Delay your scheduled morning dose of apixaban until 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved then take your normal evening dose
Delay your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran until 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved and then take your normal evening dose
Delay your scheduled morning dose of rivaroxaban and take the medication 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved
Miss your scheduled morning dose of apixaban and take the medication as normal in the evening
Miss your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran and take the medication as normal in the evening
Miss your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran and take the medication as normal in the evening
Which of the following would be considered an intravenous bisphosphonate drug that may cause complications following routine dental extraction
Alendronic Acid
Disodium Etidronate
Risedronate Sodium
Sodium Clodronate
Zoledronic acid
Zoledronic acid
Which of the following applies to flap design
Smaller flaps should be used as they heal quicker
The apex of the flap should be wider than the base
The base of the flap should be wider than the apex
The height of the flap should always exceed that of the base
There should always be two vertical incisions
The base of the flap should be wider than the apex
What is the correct color of Rinn film holder to use when taking a bitewing radiograph
Black
Blue
Green
Red
Yellow
Red
All healthcare workers (HCWs) including members of the dental team, should be immunized against
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Herpes zoster virus (HZV)
Hepatitis B
In addition to using a mercury vapor suppressant, how would you safely dispose of waste amalgam
Aspirate into the central suction unit
Dispose of in yellow sharps container
Double wrap and place in clinical waste bag
Flush down the sink or toilet
Place in spill proof, leak proof container
Place in spill proof, leak proof container
Select the statement that best describes alcohol hand rubs/gels
Are effective against spores of C. difficile
Can be used as a substitute for glove wearing
Commonly cause adverse reactions
Has no effect on transient microorganisms
Only effective when hands are visibly clean
Only effective when hands are visibly clean
Which of the following microorganisms is commonly responsible for venous cannula related infections
Herpes simplex virus
Salmonella typhimurium
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus aureus
Streptococcus mutans
Staphylococcus epidermidis
In dental panoramic radiography, which of the following statements is true
A protective lead apron should be worn by the patient
Horizontal distortion of the teeth is not influenced by patient positioning
Patient positioning is facilitated by ear rods
The X ray beam is aimed upwards at approximately 8 degrees
The X ray tube head passes around the front of the patients head
The X ray beam is aimed upwards at approximately 8 degrees
Intra oral charge coupled device (CCD) digital X ray sensors:
Are less sensitive to X rays than F speed film
Are more sensitive to X rays than F speed film
Must always be protected by red safelight
Must always be protected from white light
Typically demonstrate wide latitude
Are more sensitive to X rays than F speed film
A 60 year old male presents to your general dental practice. He has been living with a diagnosis of myeloma for 3 years. He presents to your clinic with an area of exposed bone in the lower right posterior aspect of the mandible which has been present for 10 weeks, following a tooth extraction. What is the most likely diagnosis
Medication induced oral ulceration
Medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ)
Odontogenic keratocyst
Osteomyelitis of the mandible
Radiation induced osteonecrosis of the jaw (ORN)
Medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ)
An 83 year old woman was eating salmon and thinks that a fish bone has been stuck in her throat. She is able to speak, and no bone is visible on oral examination. At which site is the fishbone most likely to have lodged
Glottis
Opening of the auditory tube
Pharyngeal recess
Piriform fossa
Tonsillar fossa
Piriform fossa
What is the most important factor for long term success of a crown
Coronal seal 2-3mm from apex
Which is the best articulator for registering occlusion
Fully adjustable articulator
What is the length of biological width
Space that exists between the bottom of the gingival sulcus and the underlying bone. Connective tissue + junctional epithelium (2mm)
What is the most common child physical impairment
Cerebral palsy 1 in 600.
What is the angulation of the vertical beam in a panoramic radiograph
vertical beam up 8 degrees
What is an irregular pulse called
Atrial fibrillation
What should be recorded in a maxillary definitive denture impression
Complete denture bearing area
Width and depth of sulcus
Make sure tori are included
What muscle is found medial to the zygomatic arch
Temporalis
What is used for cleaning blood spillages
Sodium hypochlorite
Dichloroisocyanurate
What is the concentration of chlorine for a blood spillage
10,000ppm of chlorine
For how long should the label be kept for waste disposal and what is this label called
3 years consignment note
What are the products of glycolysis
Glucose –> 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
What sugar produces more lactate
Sucrose
Where do local anesthetics bind to
Voltage gated sodium channels and block the influx of sodium.
Why decrease drug dosage in the elderly
Reduced excretory capacity in the kidney
How much fluoride is found in mouthwash
225ppmF
What are fluoride tablets UK guidelines for high risk children
6m-3yr: 0.25mg
3-6yrs: 0.5mg
> 6yrs: 1.0mg
Name the 6 steps of how a traditional film X ray image is produced
Developing - Rinsing - Fixation - Removing - Washing - Drying
What joints are most commonly affected by rheumatoid arthritis
MCP (metacarpophalangeal) and PIP (proximal interphalangeal)
What does kVp refer to
Kilovoltage peak,
Also known as peak potential difference or voltage
What is the scatter effect responsible for on radiographic image
Photons scattered backwards: do not affect image
Photons scattered obliquely may still reach the image but will interact with the wrong area: causes darkening of image in the wrong place, results in fogging of image which reduces image contrast/quality
Patient with erythematous and poor oral hygiene shows up to your practice for the first time. What would you give him?
OHI and chlorhexidine mouthwash
What is the function of a buccal canine retractor
To retract buccally erupted canine palatally
Patient with overbite and overjet of 7mm, would you give an anterior or posterior occlusal bite plane and what width would it be
Flat anterior bite plane with a width of the overjet + 3mm
7mm + 3mm = 10mm
Which occlusal bite plane would you use for an anterior crossbite
Flat posterior bite plane
What is the greatest danger for elders with osteoporosis
Vertebral fracture 50% and most dangerous
What study design gives the most reliable results
Randomized control trial
What is the index tool for periodontal problems what what does it stand for
CPITN probe
Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs
Which material has the best mechanical properties gold or porcelain
Gold
In crown prep of anterior teeth, how many planes should the prep be
2 plane
What is it called when the mandible moves to the right and the posterior teeth on the left do not contact
Canine guidance
What is it called when the mandibular condyles are in their most posterior position and the teeth are in contact
Retruded contact position
What should the minimum thickness of the aluminum on the X ray filtration be
<70kV = 1.5mm
70kV or more = 2.5mm
What medication/advice to give with an OAF
No to nose blowing, using straws, smoking and using a steam inhaler
Give antibiotics
In bacteria, phosphorus is used in the form of inorganic phosphate to produce what
ATP through cellular respiration
A 25-year-old patient, who is otherwise fit and healthy, presents with 6-7
mm pocketing throughout the mouth and associated bleeding on probing. There is no gingival enlargement. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute Periodontitis
B. Generalised aggressive periodontitis
C. Localised aggressive periodontitis
D. Generalised chronic periodontitis
E. Localised chronic periodontitis
B) Generalized aggressive periodontitis
Who is at greater risk for heart disease and hypertension
Old people
Out of the following options which are you always going to refer to a specialist
-Organ transplant and severe hemophiliac patient
-Warfarin patient
-Prosthetic limb patient
Organ transplant patient and severe hemophiliac
Patients who have Hemophilia A are deficient in what clotting factor
Factor VIII
What is the line of reference for upper oblique occlusal radiographs. What is it for the lower?
Upper: Ala tragus line
Lower: corner of mouth to tragus
What does the curve of monson represent
An imaginary curve that follows the occlusal plane of teeth and represents the relationship between the upper and lower arches
What does the quality of photons depend on
Distance (fsd) 100mm for <60kV
200mm for 60kV or more
If the radiograph is too dark what could be the problem
Overexposure. Developer left on for too long
What color is the holder for anterior periapical
Blue
What color is the holder for bitewings
Red
What color is the holder for posterior periapicals
Yellow
What does the sphere of monson tell us about the inclination of upper and lower teeth
Maxillary teeth tilt buccally
Mandibular teeth tilt lingually
Where is the dot on the side of the X ray film orientated for periapicals and bitewings
Periapical: dot on bottom of film holder
Bitewings: dot on top of film holder
How often should the radiology equipment be tested
Process test film daily
What is the indication on a radiograph of chronic occlusal trauma
Widened PDL
What is a luxator used for
Sever the periodontal ligament
What is the most important measurement for full dentures design
OVD
What is a type of cerebral palsy
Alzheimers
Dementia
Lewy body
Ataxic
Ischaemic
Ataxic
What acid etch is used in dentistry
35% phosphoric acid
Deamination of amino acids gives off
Ketone acid and ammonia
How do you make a veneer more adhesive
Lab with 10% HF acid
What is usually used as a reference point in endo
Posterior teeth: cusp tip
Anterior teeth: incisal edge
Which material is used for canals between visits
Non setting calcium hydroxide
A recent randomised controlled trial (Clarkson et al., 2009) conducted in
Scotland, used psychological models to frame the delivery of an intervention to improve dental hygiene. Having utilised Social Cognitive Theory to improve the patients’ perceptions of their competence at tooth brushing, which model was utilised to ensure that the patients brushed their teeth regularly?
A. Social support
B. Theory of Reasoned Action
C. Implementation Intentions
D. Locus of Control
E. Stanton’s Model of Adherence
C. Implementation intentions
Which toothpaste concentration for high risk 2 year old kid
1350-1500ppmF
What is the primary aim of an audit?
Improve healthcare - ensure standards are being met
What is the first line blood test for anaemia?
Full blood count
What method is used to spot novelty in microorganisms
PCR and 16S rRNA amplification and cloning
Alcohol based hand rub (ABHR) is NOT useful against what particular bacteria
Clostridium Difficile
What is the definition of viscoelasticity
ability to demonstrate viscous and elastic properties
How much of the damage to nerves with lower 8 removal is temporary and how much is permanent
Temporary (10-20%)
Permanent (<1%)
What is it called when a patient experiences abnormal pain sensation as a result to damage to nerves
Dysaesthesia
60kV what is the most use photons:
8
18
48
58
68
58kV
What is the most important piece of information to tell the radiographer
Clinical findings and radiographic view
What is cystic fibrosis?
Thick mucus which impedes cilias movement
What is an oral complication of cerebral palsy
Bruxism
What drug is often used as a first line to treat osteoarthritis
NSAIDs
What drug is often used to treat candida albicans
Fluconazole
What is the definition of a anteroposterior skeletal class III
Mandible in front of maxilla
How could you reduce trauma to the pulp during restorative procedure
Use a coolant (water)
Following restoration of a single tooth under LA, how would you appropriately determine occlusal contacts?
Use thin articulating paper
Dose reduction in intraoral radiography is best achieved by which collimation and by how much is the reduction
Rectangular collimation reduces dose by 50%
What is the speed film that would give the patient a reduction in exposure time and dose and by how much
F speed film
F is 20% faster than E (E is twice as fast as D)
This would result in 20% reduction in exposure time & dose
Prescribing medication for children requires alteration from an adult prescription. The most important change to make is?
Dose of the drug
Diabetes is a common disorder in the elderly. Complications of this condition that lead to difficulty in being independent. The complication is most likely?
Maculopathy
Diabetic maculopathy
Patient who is a 45 year old male with significant oral ulceration may have an underlying anaemia what is another possible underlying medical condition that may cause oral ulceration and anaemia
Peptic ulcer disease
In a patient with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth gives rise to
Widening of the PDL and increased mobility
The retruded axis is
Dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis
What is chroma?
Intensity of color
You perform an extraction on a patient. The patient comes back 3 hours later bleeding. What is the preferential immediate treatment?
Bite on gauze with firm and even pressure
Under conditions of high sugar supply, what is formed under anaerobic conditions?
Lactate
What are facultative anaerobes?
Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
During root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal, what provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier?
EDTA 17%
Bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest that the patient has what?
Congestive heart failure
Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by?
Disorganised liver repair
A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest the patient has?
Atrial fibrillation
Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of what?
Crohn’s disease
What strength of daily fluoride mouthwash is recommended for a 9 year old child
225ppmF
Where are emergency airways located
Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages
What pair of muscles retains dentures in their correct position
Buccinator and orbicularis oris
When planning the construction of a bridge, a facebow is used, what is the function of a facebow
Records the relationship of the maxillary arch to the mandibular condyles
In dental panoramic radiography, horizontal magnification of all anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error
The patient is too far back from the X ray source
With regard to intra oral xray film and film packet, where should the embossed dot or identification dot be
The embossed dot should ALWAYS face towards the Xray beam
Why is porcelain crown better than Ceromer crown, if retention preparation not good
Better bond
What is dysarthria?
Speech disorder that affects the muscles used for speech production
What is the max root length safely left in an obturation
1-2mm for obturation
3-5mm for post
In cystic fibrosis what is wrong
thick mucus that clogs the airways in the lungs
What is the percentage of dry socket and osteonecrosis
Dry socket: 2-3% (20-30% for lower 8s)
Osteonecrosis: <1%
How can you affect crown forces
Direction
Loss of sensation in left face and right upper limb what could be the cause
Multi-ischaemic event
Where is the lingual nerve position
Between medial pterygoid and mandible
What does glycocalyx offer
Protection
What is niche
Role of an organism in ecological environment
What is the maximum number of electrons that M can hold in its shell
2n^2
K L M N O P
2(3)^2 = 18
When would you use microabrasion as a form of tooth whitening
To remove staining caused from poryphyria
To remove intrinsic staining like tertracycline
To remove extrinsic staining from consuming coffee
After fixed appliance orthodontics to remove demineralisation spots
To remove tetracycline grey stains
After fixed appliance orthodontics to remove demineralisation spots
What do you give for virus, bacteria and fungi
Chlorhexidine
Is the rotation of the condyle on the working side in horizontal or vertical axis
Vertical
What is a Class I anteroposterior skeletal relationship
Maxilla 2-3 mm in front of mandible
What property do elastomers have that alginate does not
Can store because of dimensional stability. Alginate absorbs/releases moisture which causes it to change dimensions
Elastomers have higher elastic recovery while alginate exhibits more permanent deformation
What etch is normally used for porcelain
10% Hydrofluoric acid (HF)
Person with osteoarthritis has poor manual dexterity which of the bones are affected
Metacarpals: DIP
What happens when caries is at dentine
Beaded or tubular dentine formation
What is the difference between zinc phosphate cement and zinc polycarboxylate
Zinc phosphate has higher modulus and compressive strength
In zinc polycarboxylate, phosphoric acid is replaced by polyacrylic acid.
Patient had injury on left side of mandible. Facial artery and submandibular are safe and intact, what test would to perform to test area?
Test sensation of the face
Person is 65 year old, had submandibular swelling, no signs of pain, what kind of metastasis is it?
Posterior of the tongue
What happens at the anode and what type of spectrums does it produce
Electrons from the filament of the cathode made of tungsten bombard the metal block made of tungsten of the anode to produce photons
characteristic and continuous spectrum.
Which act is to do with changing the practice layout to cater to disabled people
Equality act 2010
Which bacteria is most likely found in periodontal disease
Porphyromonas gingivalis
What are indications for periodontal surgery
Excellent OH
Pocket of 5mm or greater
Which virulence factor has contribution with P. gingivalis to cause periodontal disease
Gingipains and fimbriae
In the principles of flap design which one is appropriate
-Do not cut deep
-Base is wider than the apex
-Do not cut the papilla and leave it intact
-The flap must be small
Base is wider than the apex
Which tooth is likely to have an extra canal
First mandibular molar
What is the color of the rims you would use for endo radiograph
Green
What Hepatitis do dentists have to be vaccinated against
Hepatitis A and B
If 60kVp, what would the kV be?
60kV
Which family member of the child can automatically consent for treatment under general anaesthetic
Mother of the child
Which of the following is true about investment materials
-They should ideally be porous to allow gas to escape
-They have a contraction of about 7%
-They are heated at 1400C for 3 hours
They should ideally be porous to allow gas to escape
Which of the following is considered dental neglect
-Child attended first time at 7 years old
-Fails to respond to recommended treatment plan
-Sibling had multiple extractions under general anesthetic
Fails to respond to recommended treatment plan
What is good diet advice for someone who enjoys the consumption of acidic drinks
Consume acidic drinks at meal times
Which syndrome is associated with maxillary hypoplasia, class III occlusion, AOB and parrot’s beak note
Apert’s syndrome (acrosyndactyly)
Which syndrome is characterized by unilateral mandibular hypoplasia and deafness on that side
Hemifacial microsomia
What is the probability in finding one viable microorganism in sterilized items
1 in 1,000,000
A patient attend with a resistance to opening of the mouth and sore right temporomandibular joint. What muscle is responsible
Lateral pterygoid
What concentration of toothpaste would you give someone who is 12 years old and high risk
2800ppmF
How does Childsmile contribute to fluoride delivery
Fluoride varnish in nurseries and schools
What is the best way to provide evidence of a study or treatment
Randomized control trial
Which splint-trauma is correct
-4 weeks flexible splint extrusion
-2 weeks flexible splint intrusion
-2 weeks flexible splint luxation
-2 weeks flexible splint avulsion
2 weeks flexible splint avulsion
What should the pH be for the washer disinfector
pH 7
A prospective study where individuals were observed over period of time to measure frequency of occurrence of disease, what is this type of study known as
Cohort study
What drug would reduce morbidity of osteoarthritis
Analgesics
What are bisphosphonates that are administered intravenously
Zoledronic acid
Loss of sensation of lower face and upper limb on the same side.
Transient ischemic attack
What is the individual behavior that gives them belief they can succeed in a task
Self efficacy
Which of the following is the most appropriate post operative advice to stop bleeding
-Rinse with saline water
-Bite on damp gauze for 30 minutes
-Use mouthwash to clean the area
-Take Ibuprofen and paracetamol
-Call the contact number as soon as bleeding occurs
Bite on damp gauze for 30 minutes
Which post operative advice is most applicable following an extraction
-Analgesics is recommended and don’t eat until anesthesia worn off
-Drink cold drinks to help with the pain
-Do not smoke but you can consume alcohol in moderation
-Smoke in moderation but limit alcohol to 14 units a week
Analgesics is recommended and don’t eat until anesthesia worn off
What BPE score is a depth of <3.5mm with bleeding on probing and no plaque retentive factors
Score 1
What is a flat anterior bite plane used for
Correct overbite
Which one affects radiographic technique
-Curve of monsoon tilts up posteriorly, curve of monsoon affects vertical angulation
-Curve of spee tilts down posteriorly, curve of spee affect vertical angulation
-Curve of spee and monsoon are synonyms
Curve of spee tilts down posteriorly, curve of spee affect vertical angulation
Which enzyme produces glucans
Glucosyltransferylase
What is a very important paediatric indication for RCT
Good patient cooperation
What is the intrinsic factor of staining
Tetracycline
What is the maximum concentration of carbamide peroxide that is legal
16% Carbamide peroxide equates to 6% hydrogen peroxide
What sinus drains to the submandibular nodes
Maxillary sinus
What is the most powerful predictor of future caries
Caries in the primary dentition
Select the best option incompetent lips seal
-Can contribute to end of treatment instability following orthodontic treatment
-Are lips that meet at rest and relaxed mentalis muscle
-Are lips that do not have sufficient thickness
-May procline upper incisors
-May lead to relapse of overjet if persists at the end of treatment
Can contribute to end of treatment instability following orthodontic treatment
The pterygoid hamulus is part of which bone
Sphenoid bone
What are the dental aspects of systemic sclerosis
Involvement of perioral tissues
-limited mouth opening and tongue movement
For a lower molar, how do you retain core after endodontic treatment
Adhesive
Which film is the fastest
-E speed
-D speed
-F speed
-Digital
Digital
Which of the following increases fear/anxiety in a paediatric patient
-Not taking patients thoughts into consideration
-Using a high speed handpiece
-Doing an invasive procedure on the child
-Any procedure involving pain or some discomfort
-Listening to the patients wishes
Not taking patients thoughts into consideration
Frequency of bitewing radiographs for high risk adults
Every 6 months
What is the FGDP guidelines for taking radiographs for low, moderate and high risk adults and children
High risk: primary and permanent every 6 months
Moderate risk: once a year
Low risk: primary every 12-18 months, permanent every 2 years
What is the percentage of temporary damage to the IAN
1-10%
Calculate the loss of attachment for a probing depth of 7mm and the ACJ being 2mm above the gingival margin
7mm + (-2mm) = 5mm
In the reproducibility of elastomers what is the narrowest notch in the ISO norm standard test
20 microns
What is a risk factor for atherosclerosis
Genetics
What is a semi critical device
A device that comes into contact with non intact skin or mucous membrane, but does not penetrate soft tissue or make contact with the bloodstream, bone or normally sterile tissue
The device must be cleaned and subject to high-level disinfection. Steam sterilization preferred.
How many maximum cartridges of lidocaine would you give a 70kg adult
7 cartridges
For someone with learning difficulty who can make dental treatment decisions for them
Welfare guardian
Which of the following is a suspicious indicator of child abuse or neglect
-Delayed presentation of dental trauma
-Parent shows interest in the treatment of their child
-All dental appointments kept
-There is a loving relationship between the parent and child
Delayed presentation of dental trauma
Your adult patient attend their appointment heavily under the influence of drugs or alcohol. You realize that they have also brought a child along with them who is sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate course of action
-Call the duty social worker at the local social services department to see if they can look after the child as the parent is unfit to do so
-Find out if another family member or friend can pick up the child and care for them until the parent is able to do so
-Contact the local police station to help deal with the situation
-Let the child leave with the intoxicated parent. After all they are not your patient
Let the child leave with the intoxicated parent. After all they are not your patient
From when should a parent be using a toothbrush for their child
-When their first tooth erupts
-When they start consuming sugars
-When they are born
-When they start eating solid foods
When their first tooth erupts
For a 6 month old child at low risk of caries, which of the following brushing regime would you recommend?
-Small pea size amount of 1000ppm for twice daily brushing
-Small pea size amount of 500ppm for twice daily brushing
-Smear of 500ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing
-Smear of 1000ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing
Smear of 1000ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing
What age would you recommend pea size of toothpaste
Smear of paste (approx. 0.1ml) for children under 3
Pea-sized amount (approx. 0.25ml) for children age 3 and over
A parent calls your surgery to advise that their child has ingested some toothpaste. Which of the following is not an essential question for you to ask
-Age/weight of the child
-Color of toothpaste
-Strength of toothpaste
-Amount of toothpaste
Color of toothpaste
What is the strength of fluoride in Duraphat varnish
22,600ppmF
The Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act has NOT made it illegal to:
-Hit a child with any kind of object
-Hit a child anywhere on the head
-Smack a child
-Shake a child
Smack a child: smacking is not illegal in Scotland but the other three answers are
Who are the main agency concerned with coordinating child protection procedures?
-Police
-General medical practitioners
-Health visitors
-Social services
Social services
Which of the following in isolation would NOT be a suspicious indicator of child abuse/neglect
-A torn upper labial frenum
-Multiple injuries in different locations
-Late presentation of an injury
-A child who is clearly dirty and smells of unwashed clothes first thing on a monday
A torn upper labial frenum
When should topical fluorides (other than toothpaste) be taken?
-With a drink of milk
-At a different time from toothbrushing
-Along with meals
-Instead of toothbrushing
At a different time from toothbrushing
Which is the correct drug information that should be written on a prescription to allow a tube of Duraphat 2,800ppM toothpaste be dispensed
-Duraphat toothpaste 5mg/kg
-Duraphat toothpaste 2,800ppm
-Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste
-1.1% Sodium Fluoride toothpaste
Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste
(1.1% Sodium Fluoride toothpaste is 5000ppmF)
What is the least amount of fluoride in toothpaste that you should recommend for a 2 year old child
-1450ppm
-1000ppm
-500ppm
-225ppm
-1350ppm
1000ppm
Which of the following is not one of the take home messages from the Marimho 2008 review of the evidence for topical fluoride
-The higher the caries rate, the greater the preventive effect of topical fluorides
-Additional topical fluorides (e.g. mouthwash, varnish, tablets) used as well as toothpaste further reduce the occurrence of caries
-Fluoride varnish is the most important method of delivering topical fluoride
-Fluoride toothpaste prevents dental caries
Fluoride varnish is the most important method of delivering topical fluoride
Which of the following is not suitable for a 10 year old child
-22,600 fluoride varnish
-1mg fluoride tablet
-1,450ppm fluoride toothpaste
-5,000ppm fluoride toothpaste
5,000ppm fluoride toothpaste
How much fluoride would provide a probable toxic dose?
-5mg/kg
-2mg/kg
-6.5mg/kg
-1mg/kg
5mg/kg
On undertaking a CPITN examination with a CPITN probe, the coloured band remains completely visible in all pockets. However, there is bleeding after probing but there are no identifiable calculus or plaque retentive factors. What is the CPITN score for this sextant?
0
1
2
3
4
1
One large glass (250 ml) of white wine (12% strength) contains how many UK units of alcohol
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
E. 3.5
Formula: volume in mL x strength / 1000 = Units of alcohol
250 x 12 / 1000 = 3
Which of the following should be used to correct a buccally positioned canine on an orthodontic laboratory prescription?
A. Palatal finger spring HSSW 0.5 mm
B. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.5 mm tubing
C. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.7 mm tubing
D. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.7 mm in 0.7 mm tubing
E. Labial bow HSSW 0.7 mm tubing
B. Buccal canine retractor HSSW 0.5 mm in 0.5 mm tubing
When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which external line or plane is used to assess the occlusal plane?
A. Frankfort Plane
B. Ala-tragus line
C. Corner of mouth-tragus line
D. Interpupillary line
E. Corner of mouth-angle of mandible
B. Ala-tragus line
Dose reduction in intra-oral radiography is best achieved by which combination?
A. Circular collimation, E speed film
B. Circular collimation, F speed film
C. Rectangular collimation, D speed film
D. Rectangular collimation, E speed film
E. Rectangular collimation, F speed film
E. Rectangular collimation, F speed film
Diabetes is a common disorder in the elderly. Complications of this condition may lead to difficulty in independent living. The complication most likely to produce this issue is:
A. Glove and stocking sensory loss
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Renal failure
D. Poor wound healing
E. Maculopathy
E. Maculopathy
Patients with significant oral ulceration may have an underlying anaemia. The medical problem most likely to produce this problem in a 45 year old male is:
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Asthma
C. Renal transplantation
D. Coeliac disease
E. Colon cancer
A. Peptic ulcer disease
The retruded axis (centric relation):
A. Is dependent upon the relationship of the teeth
B. Occurs with the mandible in its most protruded position
C. Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis
D. Is a non-border movement
E. Is a position that can always be achieved unaided by the patient
C. Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible opens and closes on a reproducible hinge axis
With relation to shade prescription for an indirect tooth-coloured restoration the term “Chroma” refers to which element of the restoration’s colour?
A. Lightness
B. The intensity of the colour
C. The actual colour
D. Tone
E. Luminance
B. The intensity of the colour
You performed an extraction 3 hours earlier on a fit and healthy patient. The patient has returned to the surgery, complaining of bleeding from the extraction site. What is your preferred immediate management?
A. Lie the patient flat
B. Pack the socket with Alvogyl
C. Loosen the patient’s tight clothing
D. Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack
E. Take the patient’s blood pressure
D. Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack
Under conditions of high sugar supply, which of the following are preferably formed under anaerobic conditions?
A. Acetate
B. Ethanol
C. Lactate
D. Acetaldehyde
E. Butyrate
C. Lactate
Facultative anaerobes:
A. Grow in the presence of oxygen only
B. Grow in the presence of carbon dioxide only
C. Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
D. Grow in the presence or absence of carbon dioxide
E. Grow under any atmospheric conditions
C. Grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
Following restoration of a single tooth under local anaesthesia, which of the following is the most appropriate to determine suitable occlusal contacts?
A. Assess using a facebow registration
B. Ask the patient to bite and determine if the occlusion feels fine
C. Direct vision to assess tooth-tooth contact
D. Listen to hear if there is audible tooth contact
E. Use thin articulating paper
E. Use thin articulating paper
The zygomatic process of the maxilla is partly seen as a vertical radiopaque line on a panoramic radiograph. With which bony margin of the maxillary sinus can it be confused?
A. Inferior
B. Superior
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
E. Media
D. Posterior
Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which one of the following sugars is present within the diet?
A. Glucose
B. Mannose
C. Fructose
D. Sucrose
E. Xylitol
D. Sucrose
Which of the following describes the endodontic file movement when performing “Balanced Force” instrumentation as described by Roane?
A. A 60o turn clockwise followed by a 60o turn anticlockwise, repeated
B. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated
C. A 120o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated
D. A 60o turn clockwise followed by a 120o turn anticlockwise, repeated
E. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 90o turn anticlockwise, repeated
B. A 90o turn clockwise followed by a 180o turn anticlockwise, repeated
In root canal treatment, what is the recommended shape for the access cavity for maxillary and mandibular premolars?
A. Triangular
B. Ovoid
C. Round
D. Oblong
E. Trapezoid
D. Oblong
Bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest that the patient has:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Left heart failure
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Hyperproteinaemia
D. Congestive heart failure
Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by:
A. Hepatitis C infection
B. Liver cell destruction
C. Disorganised liver repair
D. Enhanced drug metabolism
E. Enhanced gall stone formation
C. Disorganised liver repair
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Stone has the densest mass of the gypsum materials used for dental casts
b. Densite has densest mass of the gypsum materials used for dental casts
c. Stone has a less dense mass than plaster and densite gypsum materials used for dental casts
d. Plaster has the densest mass of the gypsum materials used for dental casts
e. Plaster has a less dense mass than stone and densite gypsum materials used for dental casts
e. Plaster has a less dense mass than stone and densite gypsum materials used for dental casts
A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Left heart failure
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Hyperproteinaemia
A. Atrial fibrillation
Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of:
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Coeliac disease
D. Crohn’s disease
E. Diverticulitis
D. Crohn’s disease
What strength of once daily Fluoride mouthwash would you recommend for a nine-year-old child?
A. 100 ppm
B. 225 ppm
C. 250 ppm
D. 500 ppm
E. 650 ppm
B. 225 ppm
What would be the most appropriate post-surgical advice to give to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction?
A. Start rinsing as soon as possible with warm salty water
B. Smoking has no significant effect on the healing
C. Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
D. Pain killers will not be required
E. Heavy manual work can be performed on the day
C. Avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
Which of the following pairs of muscles is particularly important in retaining dentures in their correct position?
A. Buccinator and masseter
B. Buccinator and mylohyoid
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris
D. Digastric and genioglossus
E. Hyoglossus and mylohyoid
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris
When planning the construction of a bridge, the purpose of a face-bow is?
A. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the lower arch
B. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles
C. To record the relationship of the lower arch to the mandibular condyles
D. To enable lateral and protrusive movements to be visualised
E. To ensure that the cusp inclines on the restoration are correct
B. To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles
Which if the following materials has the best mechanical properties for the restoration of occlusal surfaces?
A. Amalgam
B. Composite
C. Glass Ionomer
D. Porcelain
E. Gold
E. Gold
In dental panoramic radiography horizontal magnification of all the anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error:
A. The patient is too far forward in the machine (closer to the cassette)
B. The patient’s chin is tilted up
C. The patient’s chin is tilted down
D. The patient is rotated
E. The patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the X-ray source)
E. The patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the X-ray source)
With regard to the intra-oral X-ray film and film packet which of the following statements is true?:
A. The white side of the film packet always faces away from the x-ray tube-head
B. The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the X-ray source
C. Lead foil is present in the film packet to prevent x-rays exposing the film
D. The film has emulsion on one side only
E. The film packet contains black paper to protect the film from scattered x-rays
B. The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the X-ray source
Select the correct statement about facial development
-Neurocranium covers the vault and viscerum the face
-Vault is produced by endochondral ossification
-Meckels and nasal cartilage are secondary cartilages
-Mandible and maxilla produced by endochondral ossification
-Ossification of skull begins at week 8-9
Neurocranium covers the vault and viscerum the face
How many number of buccal planes for an upper central crown
1
2
3
4
2
Upper lateral incisor where does it drain
-Palatal
-Infraorbital
-Buccal
Palatal
A cut to the deep part of the body of mandible has occurred. Which of the following tests would you carry out
-Whistle
-Protrude tongue
-Sensation of the face
Sensation of the face
Damage to Inferior alveolar nerve on extraction of lower 3rd molar is
<1%
1-10%
10-20%
20-30%
10-20%
Vertical relationship of the teeth to the condyle and the movement of the condyle forward
Sagittal condylar guidance angle
What is porcelains brittle strength
-0.1%
-0.5%
-1%
-1.5%
-2%
0.1%
Which syndrome is characterised by shallow orbits, Class III malocclusion and vertical shortening of midface
Crouzon’s
For extraoral radiographs, such as panoramic radiographs, the beam aiming device should be positioned
-Less than 1cm from skin
-1-2cm from skin
-More than 2cm from skin
1-2cm from skin
How much of a retained root can be left safely in the socket of a patient
1mm
2mm
3mm
5mm
7mm
3mm
What fluoride tablet concentration would you give a 1 year old with high caries risk
0.25mg/day
Rate of edentulous people are
-increasing in all age groups
-decreasing in all age groups
-staying the same in all age groups
-are expected to rise in the elderly
-are expected to rise in the younger population
Decreasing in all age groups
Pattern of caries risk in children is
-decreasing in all areas
-decreasing in some areas
-increasing in areas with poverty and lack of education
-decreasing in deprived areas
-increasing in areas where dental care is hard to access
Decreasing in all areas
What is the best way to identify a patient arriving at radiology
-Get them to tell you their details
-Check their identification
-Ask them to confirm details that you read out loud
Get them to tell you their details
What structures must be captured on the maxillary load bearing areas impression:
Tori
Hamuli
Sulci
Alveolar ridge
Incisive papilla
Alveolar ridge
What is the most appropriate study type to find the incidence in implant failure in smokers
-Case control
-Cohort
-Cross sectional
-RCT
-Systemic review RCT
Cohort
What is the most appropriate study type to find the prevalence of disease in a population
-Case control
-Cohort
-Cross sectional
-RCT
-Systemic review RCT
Cross sectional study
What is the best way to provide evidence of the treatment of a disease
-Case control
-Cohort
-Cross sectional
-RCT
-Systemic review RCT
RCT
Why do randomized controlled trials randomly assign patients to the different interventions rather than letting the patients choose which intervention they prefer also known as blinding?
To avoid bias
While extracting a upper 8 the maxillary tuberosity fractures. What is the best course of action
-Surgically extract the 8 then splint for 8 weeks
-Splint for 4 weeks then surgically extract the 8
-Splint for 8 weeks then surgically extract the 8
-Surgically extract the 8 then splint for 4 weeks
-Remove the fractured tuberosity fragment and the 8
Splint for 8 weeks then surgically extract the 8
What is the probing depth for a BPE score of 3
3.5-5.5mm
What pocket depth in teens can indicate early periodontitis
-1mm
-2mm
-0.5mm
-3mm
3mm
How do you determine the anteroposterior skeletal relationship in a patient
Visual assessment
Palpate skeletal bases
What type of etch is used for paediatric fissure sealant placement
38% phosphoric acid
Which sugar produces glucans
Sucrose
What should the minimum thickness of the aluminum on the X ray filtration be for 70kV
2.5mm
When would you use micro abrasion as a form of tooth whitening
-tetracycline brown stain
-tetracycline grey stain
-Poryphyria
-To remove demineralisation once fixed orthodontic appliance removed
To remove demineralisation once fixed orthodontic appliance removed
Trauma has occurred to primary central incisor, which of the following is NOT appropriate
-Replant and splint
-Soft diet advice
-Review monthly until permanent successor erupts
-Do not brush area until soft tissue heals
Replant and splint
What does the R in ARAB stand for
Retention
Difference between alginate and elastomers
Contact angle is higher in alginate
Which type of LA should you avoid for pregnant woman
Articaine
Citanest
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Mepivacaine
Citanest
Where is the extra canal in upper first molar
Mesiobuccal root
What is the general virulence factor for all periodontal disease
Endotoxin
Lying patient back in chair makes the patient feel light headed what is the cause of this
Decreased baroreceptor
The term ‘Boxing-in’ refers to:
a. a method of preserving the outline and functional integrity of primary and definitive casts
b. a method of preserving the outline of definitive casts
c. a method of preserving the outline of primary casts
d. a method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus using rubber moulds
e. a method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus
A method of preserving the functional width and depth of the vestibular sulcus using rubber moulds
Where should the post dam be cut for a maxillary denture
a. Approximately 2mm distal to the palatine fovea on the definitive cast
b. Approximately 2mm in anterior to the palatine fovea on the definitive cast
c. On the soft palate distal to the hard palate to provide compression of the soft tissue
d. On the compressible tissue at the distal of the hard palate indicated by the vibrating line
e. At the junction of the hard and soft palate indicated by the vibrating line on the definitive cast
At the junction of the hard and soft palate indicated by the vibrating line on the definitive cast
The purpose of the split-cast technique used when mounting casts on an articulator is to check the occlusal vertical dimension following processing of the denture.
a. False, as this technique is only used when a facebow has not been used to mount casts
b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded
c. . False, since the incisal post indicates the occlusal vertical dimension
d. True when the incisal post is located on the incisal table.
e. True, when casts have appropriate locations grooves cut in the base
True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded
When prescribing special trays for complete dentures which statement is the most appropriate?
a. Edentulous trays with perforations for complete dentures enable a more through decontamination process.
b. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material.
c. Edentulous trays with perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material.
d. Edentulous trays without perforations are stronger that perforated trays.
e. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures assist in estimating a peripheral seal.
b. Edentulous trays without perforations for complete dentures enable a more secure retention for the impression material.
If the occlusal vertical dimension is reduced by 2mm, what effect might this have for the complete dentures?
a. It will reduce the free-way space
b. No effect if the teeth used are set in balanced occlusion
c. It will increase the free-way space
d. The resting face height will be increased
e. The resting face height will be decreased
It will increase the free-way space
When considering the design of special trays which of the following statements is most applicable?
a. The depth of a special tray should be to the depth of the primary cast vestibular sulcus when an alginate impression or composition primary impression was used.
b. The width of special trays depends on the type of material used.
c. The width of a special tray is determined by the using greenstick impression compound when making a definitive impression.
d. The width of a special tray should be approximately 3mm from vestibular sulcus depth when making a definitive impression.
e. The depth of the tray should be approximately 3mm from the crest of the alveolar ridge.
The width of a special tray should be approximately 3mm from vestibular sulcus depth when making a definitive impression.
In a monoplane occlusal scheme the posterior teeth are set?
a. with a compensating curve in harmony with the condylar guidance angle
b. to eliminate the effect of Christensen’s phenomena
c. in a cusp to fossa relationship.
d. with a compensating curve in harmony with the cusp angle
e. in a cusp to marginal ridge relationship
b. to eliminate the effect of Christensen’s phenomena
The purpose of the stub tray handle is:
a. To enable the correct positioning of the tray on the alveolar ridges.
b. To enable manipulation of the soft tissues in the anterior region.
c. To enable the insertion and removal of the tray.
d. To enable the correct location of the incisive papilla in relation to the alveolar ridge.
e. To enable the handle to rest on the opposing alveolar ridge while the impression material sets
To enable the insertion and removal of the tray.
When setting artificial teeth which cusp on the maxillary first molar occludes with the central fossa of the mandibular first molar in a class I relationship?
a. mesial - buccal
b. mesial - palatal
c. distal - buccal
d. The second premolar occludes with the mandibular first molar
e. distal - palatal
mesial - palatal
Which of the following is a property of dental ceramic
Ductile
Flexible
Brittle
High strength
Tensile
Brittle
Which primary denture bearing area should be recorded in a mandibular impression
Mandibular tori
Functional sulcus
Buccal shelf
Mylohyoid ridge
Lingual pouch
Buccal shelf
What is the ‘Neutral Zone’?
a. The space between the OVD and resting face height
b. The space between the canine teeth and lips when smiling
c. The space between the anterior teeth in balanced occlusion
d. The space between the vestibular sulcus of the maxilla and mandible
e. The space between the muscles of the lips, cheeks and tongue
The space between the muscles of the lips, cheeks and tongue
When mounting casts using an arbitrary mounting technique, how should the casts be positioned on the articulator?
a. The occlusal plane is parallel to Camper’s plane.
b. The occlusal plane is set to an equilateral triangle with the condylar spheres
c. The occlusal plane is parallel to the Frankfurt plane.
d. The occlusal plane is set at 10 degrees to the condylar guidance angle.
e. The occlusal plane is set to a horizontal position
The occlusal plane is set to a horizontal position
What nerves are anaesthetised when an upper canine tooth is extracted?
A. Inferior alveolar and long buccal nerve
B. Nasopalatine & greater palatine nerves, anterior & middle superior alveolar nerves, infraorbital nerve
C. Long buccal nerve and mental nerve
D. Nasopalatine nerve and infraorbital nerve
E. Lingual nerve and nerve to mylohyoid
B. Nasopalatine & greater palatine nerves, anterior & middle superior alveolar nerves, infraorbital nerve
In a patient with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth may give rise to:
A. Gingivitis but no loss of attachment
B. Loss of attachment but no gingival inflammation
C. Both gingivitis and loss of attachment
D. Widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility
E. Narrowing of the periodontal ligament and decreased mobility
Widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility
Which of the following is not an oral biofilm infection?
A. Endodontic infection
B. Oesophageal candidosis
C. Thrush
D. Periodontal infection
E. Oral malodour
Oesophageal candidosis
A patient in anaphylaxis has developed sudden obstruction of the upper larynx. At which of the following sites is an emergency airway needle best inserted?
A. At the level of the second, third and fourth tracheal rings
B. Between the cricoid cartilage and the first tracheal ring
C. Between the hyoid bone and the thyroid cartilage
D. Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages
E. Superior to the hyoid bone
D. Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages
A facebow registration
-Transfers the relationship between the maxillary teeth and the axis of the mandibular rotation
-Transfers the relationship between the mandibular teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation
-Is used to mount the lower cast
-Registers the relationship between the upper and lower teeth
-Registers the position of the mandible in protrusion
Transfers the relationship between the maxillary teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation
Which of the following is one function of a facebow
-Mounting of lower cast
-registration of the interocclusal relationship
-setting the condylar guidance angles
-setting the inter-condylar distance
-transferring the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane
Transferring the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane
Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the dentist is most able to influence is
-direction
-duration
-frequency
-velocity
-magnitude
direction
The principle radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is
-horizontal bone loss
-vertical bone loss
-root fracture
-generalised widening of the PDL space
-condensing osteitis
generalised widening of the PDL space
When viewed from the lateral aspect, the downward movement of the condyle during protrusion forms an angle to the horizontal plane known as
-the horizontal condylar guidance angle
-the bennet angle
-the sagittal condylar guidance angle
-side shift
-the frankfort angle
The sagittal condylar guidance angle
In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is
-to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position
-to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the resting face height
-to transfer the mandibular plane
-to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the intercuspal position
-to record freeway space
to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position
In the intercuspal position, ideally:
-the incisors should meet edge to edge
-the tips of the buccal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth
-the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth
-the tips of the lingual cusps of the lower posterior teeth should occlude with the marginal ridges of the opposing teeth
-the tips of the lingual cusps of the lower posterior teeth should occlude with the fossae of the opposing teeth
the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth
During mastication, whilst chewing on the left molar teeth:
-The left side is the non working side
-There is bilateral downwards and forwards movement of the condylar heads
-The right condylar head rotates about a vertical axis but does not move forwards onto the articular tubercle
-The right condylar head moves downwards, forwards and medially
-It is preferable for the mandible to be guided back into the intercuspal position by contact of as many teeth as possible
The right condylar head moves downwards, forwards and medially
Which articulator is suitable for use when constructing complete dentures?
-simple hinge
-fixed condylar
-semi-adjustable
-fully adjustable
-all of the above
all of the above
The purpose of the split-cast technique used when mounting casts on an articulator is to check the occlusal vertical dimension following processing of the denture.
a. True, when casts have appropriate locations grooves cut in the base.
b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded
c. True when the incisal post is located on the incisal table.
d. False, as this technique is only used when a facebow has not been used to mount casts
e. . False, since the incisal post indicates the occlusal vertical dimension
b. True, when casts have locations and the occlusal vertical dimension is recorded
A simple hinge articulator can be used for the construction of complete dentures
a. as a split cast mounting can be used
b. using a functional generated path occlusal rim
c. as the occlusal vertical dimension can be checked
d. as non-working contacts can be checked for balanced articulation
e. as it can be relied on to reproduce the centric relation position accurately
c. as the occlusal vertical dimension can be checked
What is Christensen’s phenomenon?
-A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears in the natural dentition between posterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears between anterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears in the natural dentition between anterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
-A gap that appears in between posterior teeth in the retruded contact position
A gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when mandible is protruded
Which of the following is the most unlikely to be a consequence of adverse occlusal forces?
-Fractured cusp
-Attrition
-Dislodged restorations
-Chronic periodontitis
-Increase tooth mobility
Chronic periodontitis
During closure along the retruded axis, the point at which the teeth contact is called
-the intercuspal position
-the retruded contact position
-centric relation
-the rest position
-the habitual position
The retruded contact position
During lateral excursion the predominant movement of the working condyle is
-Forward translation
-Medial translation
-Rotation about a vertical axis
-Rotation about a horizontal axis
-Vertical movement away from the fossa
Rotation about a vertical axis
The retruded axis is a mandibular position dependent on the presence of teeth
-True
-False
False
The retruded axis is a border movement
-True
-False
True
When the condylar heads are in their most superior position within the mandibular fossa the mandible is in protrusion
-True
-False
False
At the end of the chewing cycle the mandible aims for the intercuspal position
-True
-False
True
Forces on teeth are greater during parafunction than function
-True
-False
True
In canine guidance there should be some contact between teeth on the non working side
-True
-False
False
Anchorage may be reinforced by:
-Using thinner archwires on fixed appliances
-Using a transpalatal arch with a fixed appliance
-Using thicker wire to construct springs on a removable appliance
-Increasing the number of teeth which require tipping movements
-Decreasing the number of teeth in the anchor unit
Using a transpalatal arch with a fixed appliance
Fixed appliances are efficient at
-Correcting vertical skeletal discrepancies
-Correcting anterior crossbites
-Correct multiple tooth malpositions
-Treating malocclusions in the early mixed dentition
-Treating moderate to severe sagittal skeletal discrepancies
Correct multiple tooth malpositions
Functional appliances are mainly used to
-Treat long face syndromes
-Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class II division 1 cases
-Correct multiple tooth malpositions
-Treat adults with no growth potential
-Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class I cases
Correct the sagittal discrepancy in class II division 1 cases
Removeable appliances are effective at
-Torquing roots
-Extruding teeth
-Correcting rotations
-Moving teeth bodily
-Tipping teeth
Tipping teeth
Removable appliances are useful for:
-Retraction of canines using bodily movement
-Correction of underbites
-Correction of rotations
-Maintaining space
-Increasing overbites
-Maintaining space
Which of the following may be used to assess the antero-posterior skeletal pattern clinically
-molar relationship
-mandibular unit length
-incisor relationship (BSI)
-maxillo-mandibular planes angle (MMPA)
-Palpation of the skeletal bases
Palpation of the skeletal bases
Which of the following would represent moderate crowding
-4mm-8mm
-2mm-6mm
-8mm-10mm
-3mm-5mm
-0mm-4mm
4-8mm
What is the definition of a class II division 1 incisor relationship
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a decreased overjet and the incisors are usually retroclined
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a decreased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined
-The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is a increased overjet and the incisors are usually retroclined
The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined
Which of the following can be used to assess the vertical skeletal pattern clinically
-Frankfort-maxillary planes angle (FMxPA)
-Total anterior face height/upper anterior face height x 100
-Lower anterior face height/upper anterior face height x 100
-The Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA)
-Lower anterior face height + upper anterior face height x 100
The Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA)
The histological response for ‘light forces’ generated during orthodontic treatment include which of the following
-Apposition of osteoid on pressure side (osteoblasts)
-Resorption of the lamina dura from tension side (osteoclasts)
-Frontal resorption
-Undermining resorption
-Occlusion of nerves of periodontal ligament on pressure side
Frontal resorption
How much force is required to tip a tooth
90-120 grams (mN)
65-90 grams (mN)
120-135 grams (mN)
35-60 grams (mN)
10-35 grams (mN)
35-60 grams (mN)
35-60 grams (mN)
Light continuous forces
Which of the following are the deleterious effects of orthodontic treatment?
-Immediate pain
-Ankylosis
-Increased deposition of secondary dentine
-Root resorption
-Loss of sensitivity
Root resorption
What is the average optimal rate of tooth movement
-1.5mm a month
-1.7mm a month
-2.0mm a month
-0.5mm a month
-1.0mm a month
1.0mm a month
The meaning of the term ‘anchorage’ is
-resistance to removal of the appliance
-resistance to the force exerted by the retentive component
-resistance to unwanted mesial drift
-resistance to unwanted tooth movement
-resistance to over-eruption of the teeth in contact with an upper removable appliance
resistance to unwanted tooth movement
Anterior bite planes are used for
-Reducing overjet
-Reducing overbite
-Protecting brackets of fixed appliance on upper incisors from the occlusal force of lower incisors
-Can be used in adults
-Facilitating correction of an anterior crossbite
Reducing overbite
An Adams crib is formed of:
-0.6mm Hard SS wire
-0.5mm Hard SS wire
-0.7mm Hard SS wire
-0.8mm Hard SS wire
-0.9mm Hard SS wire
0.7mm Hard SS wire
The standard temperature banding for steam sterilisation is
a. 115 - 118
b. 121- 124
c. 137 - 139
d. 134 - 137
e. 122 - 126
d. 134 - 137
If chemical residue was being removed from the instrumentation, what stage would the washer-disinfector be at
a. Rinse
b. Detergent wash
c. Prewash
d. Disinfection
e. Disinfection rinse
f. Flush
g. Wash
h. Drying
a. Rinse
Put these in order
Wash
Disinfection
Rinse
Drying
Flush
Flush (least temp)
Wash (2nd highest temp)
Rinse (least temperature, most time)
Disinfection (highest temp)
Drying (high temp, least time)
A Bowie-Dick is carried out a daily basis, What is it testing for
a. Steam penetration
b. Air removal
c. Temperature
d. Steam dryness
e. Presence of air
a. Steam penetration
What colour does the transport box for contaminated instruments have to be
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Doesn’t matter as long as it is easily distinguishable
e. Yellow
d. Doesn’t matter as long as it is easily distinguishable
Any kind of instrumentation can be processed in a Type - N steriliser
True
False
False
The first stage of a vacuum capable or Type - B steriliser is
a. Steam penetration
b. Heat up
c. Negative pulsing
d. Air removal
e. Positive pulsing
f. Equilibration
d. Air removal
What chemical would I use within an Ultrasonic Bath
a. Low alkaline
b. Enzymatic
c. pH neutral
d. Detergent
e. High alkaline
b. Enzymatic
What one of the following can I process wrapped instrumentation through
a. Type - S
b. Type - N
c. Type - D
d. Type - A
e. Type - B
e. Type - B
What is the recommended PPE for manually washing instruments
Select one:
a. gown, visor mask, gloves
b. apron, gown, heavy duty gloves, mask
c. apron, heavy duty gloves, visor
d. mask, gown, heavy duty gloves
e. apron, gloves, visor, mask
apron, heavy duty gloves, visor
The standard disinfection temperature banding within our washer-disinfector is
a. 85 - 90
b. 90 - 95
c. 80 - 85
d. 65 - 75
e. 75 - 85
b. 90 - 95
Which method of fluoride delivery does the patient not administer?
A. Fluoride toothpaste
B. Fluoride supplements
C. Fluoride varnish
D. Fluoride mouthrinse
C. Fluoride varnish
When reading clinical guidelines what does the strength of a strong key recommendation convey?
Select one:
- Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.
- Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, the majority of individuals would choose this option.
- Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, not all individuals would choose this option.
- Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, some individuals would choose this option.
- Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.
Which of the following is an aim when providing dental care for children:
Select one:
- To keep the permanent dentition mainly free from disease
- To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety
- For the child to grow up feeling positive about their oral health but for medical health to be a priority
- To safeguard dental neglect only and not to consider wellbeing
- To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety
A comprehensive assessment of the child does not include the following element for an effective plan to improve oral health:
Select one:
a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only
b. Patient history
c. Clinical examination
d. Caries Risk Assessment
a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only
An assessment of lesion activity is essential for providing the appropriate level of caries prevention this includes:
Select one:
- On one occasion using clinical assessment
- On one occasion using radiographic assessment
- Progression over time using clinical photographs
- Using lesion colour as an indicator
- Progression over time using clinical photographs
The broad contact points of the primary dentition make diagnosis of proximal caries difficult using clinical examination alone.At what age should bitewing radiographs start to be taken as an adjunct to visual diagnosis?
Select one:
- Age three and above
- Age four and above
- Age five and above
- Age six and above
- Age four and above
At what age can mouthwash be used by a child
3 years
6 years
8 years
10 years
12 years
6 years
When assessing toothbrushing and recording visible plaque levels at each examination, a score of eight out of ten indicates:
Select one:
- Perfectly clean tooth
- Plaque line around the cervical margin
- Cervical third of the crown covered
- Middle third covered
- Plaque line around the cervical margin
Motivational Interviewing is used to translate knowledge into behaviour change, this process involves:
- Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective learning, Summarising
- Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
- Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
- Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
- SEEK permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective LISTENING, Summarising
Standard prevention for all children includes the following at least once a year:
- Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice
- Spit, don’t rinse and information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old
- Brush thoroughly twice daily, including first thing in the morning and appropriate amount of toothpaste
- Information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old and spit, don’t rinse
- Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice
When can a child carry out unsupervised tooth brushing
4 years old
5 years old
6 years old
7 years old
8 years old
7 years old
Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following at each recall visit:
- Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child only at each recall visit
- Standard prevention and 1350-1500 ppmF advice for children up to 9 years old
- Standard prevention and 2800 ppmF advice for children aged 9-16 years old
- Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit
- Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit
Standard prevention for all children should include the following at least once per year:
- Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x4 per day and drink only flavoured water or milk between meals
- Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x3 per day and drink only water or milk between meals
- Snack on sugar free foods such as digestive biscuits and be aware of hidden sugars in foods
- Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks
- Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks
Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following dietary actions:
- Patients only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
- Carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
- Utilise community/home support for dietary change that is available locally
- Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
- Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
Enhanced prevention includes fissure sealant of the following tooth and surface if assessed as likely to be beneficial:
a. Cs cusp tip
b. 2’s palatal pits
c. Third permanent molar
d. As & Bs palatal pits
b. 2’s palatal pits
Standard prevention for All children includes the following:
- Sodium fluoride varnish (3%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age
- Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 4 years of age
- Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 3 years of age
- Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age
- Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age
Which of the following do dental professionals who are registered with the general dental Council NOT have a responsibility of doing?
a. Raise concerns about the possible abuse or neglect of children
b. Know how to refer concerns about abuse or neglect.
c. Know who to contact for further advice about abuse or neglect of children.
d. Diagnose abuse or neglect in children
d. Diagnose abuse or neglect in children
Which of the following is the accepted definition of child protection?
a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm
b. Ensuring children grow up in a safe and caring environment.
c. Measures taken to minimise the risk of harm to children
d. Preventing the impairment of children’s health
a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm
Which of the following are the biggest three parenting capacity concerns that are contributing factors in child abuse/neglect cases?
a. Poverty, mental health problems, unemployment
b. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, poverty
c. Step parents, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems
d. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems
d. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems
How many children in Scotland are killed by a parent/ parent substitute?
a. 80 per month
b. 10 per year
c. 1 - 2 per week
d. 52 per year
b. 10 per year
Why is it possible that ‘neglect of neglect’ might occur?
a. Because neglect is rare
b. Because neglect is less incident focused
c. Because children don’t die from neglect
d. Because neglect does not damage children
b. Because neglect is less incident focused
Which of the following is NOT a long term effect for adults who were neglected as children?
a. Greater incidence of diabetes
b. Greater incidence of arrest
c. Greater incidence of heart disease
d. Greater incidence of epilepsy
d. Greater incidence of epilepsy
What 3 stages in managining dental neglect are suggested by “Child Protection and the Dental Team” website?
a. Preventive dental team management, referral to local dental hospital, preventive multi-agency management
b. Examination, diagnosis, review
c. Referral to local dental hospital, speak to child protection advisor, child protection referral
d. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral
d. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral
What proportion of serious head injuries in the first year of life are non-accidental?
Select one:
a. 5%
b. 95%
c. 10%
d. 60%
b. 95%
What proportion of injuries in abuse cases are found on the head and neck areas?
a. 60%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 95%
a. 60%
Which of the following is NOT an indicator of dental neglect?
a. Dental disease which has an impact on the child
b. Obvious dental caries
c. Children with dental disease where practical care has been offered and yet the child has not returned for treatment
d. Occult dental caries
d. Occult dental caries
What factor is most likely to improve the oral health of all pre-school children?
Select one:
a. Use of 1450ppm toothpaste
b. Water fluoridation
c. Use of 1000ppm toothpaste
d. Fluoridation of fizzy drinks
b. Water fluoridation
Which treatment is of the highest priority in the following plan?
a. Restoration of pain free primary teeth
b. Relief of pain
c. Restoration of pain free permanent teeth
d. Oral hygiene instruction
b. Relief of pain
When planning treatment which of the following should be carried out first?
a. Anterior tooth restoration requiring LA
b. Pulpotomy in the upper jaw
c. Simple restorations requiring LA in the lower jaw
d. Simple restorations requiring LA in the upper jaw
d. Simple restorations requiring LA in the upper jaw
What is not wanted from the parents/carers of a small child when treatment planning?
a. Consent
b. Showing the child that they are nervous
c. Motivation toward appropriate dietary improvements
d. Willingness to help aid good oral hygiene
b. Showing the child that they are nervous
Which factors do we not need to take into consideration when formulating a treatment plan for a child?
a. Caries risk
b. Medical history
c. Social background
d. Plan made for child’s best friend
d. Plan made for child’s best friend
Which of the following would not alter your treatment plan?
Select one:
a. Child has congenital cardiac disease
b. Need for prevention
c. Allergy to latex
d. Need for General Anaesthetic
b. Need for prevention
Which of the following is not important in the social history of a child for dentistry?
a. Year at school
b. Age
c. Siblings
d. If they have a best friend
d. If they have a best friend
What factors do not need to be considered in the mixed dentition phase?
a. Developing malocclusion
b. Development of all permanent teeth
c. Growth of the child
d. Size of the maxillary sinuses
d. Size of the maxillary sinuses
What should form the first component of any treatment plan?
Select one:
a. Prevention
b. Diet advice and oral hygiene instruction
c. Restorative Treatment
d. Relief of pain
d. Relief of pain
Which of the following is not a major factor in a preventive treatment plan for a child?
a. Fluoride therapy
b. Fissure sealing
c. Oral hygiene instruction
d. Water fluoridation
d. Water fluoridation
The safest local anaesthetic drug to use, utilising an infiltration technique, for a patient with advanced liver disease in order to remove tooth 35 is:
a. Bupvicaine
b. Halothane
c. Lignocaine
d. Prilocaine
e. Articiane
e. Articiane
When providing instructions on first line simple analgesia for a patient with liver cirrhosis, which analgesic medication should be recommended
Select one:
a. Ibuprofen
b. Naproxen
c. Morphine
d. Codeine
e. Paracetamol
e. Paracetamol
The liver is responsible for the production of which clotting factors involved in the coagulation cascade?
a. I, II, V, IX and X
b. I,II,III, IV, V and X
c. II, V, VIII, IX, XI,XI
d. I,II,VII, IX, X and XI
e. I, V, and X
d. I,II,VII, IX, X and XI
Other than clotting factors, which product of the liver is essential in achieving haemostasis?
a. Thrombopoietin
b. Thrombocytes
c. Albumin
d. Erythropoietin
e. Erythrocytes
a. Thrombopoietin
What is the minimum UKELD score for an individual to be placed on a liver transplant list?
a. 59
b. 39
c. 79
d. 49
e. 69
d. 49
An arcon articulator may be indicated for dental prostheses as it is more accurate that a non-arcon articulator as?
a. inaccuracies when a protrusive record is being used to determine the articulator settings is reduced.
b. it has the condylar track on the upper part of the articulator
c. the condylar inclination is at a fixed angle to the maxillary occlusal plane.
d. the condylar inclination changes as the articulator is open.
e. The hinge axis permits a smaller axis of closure
a. inaccuracies when a protrusive record is being used to determine the articulator settings is reduced.
The Dane Particle is found in the serum of patients infected with
Hepatitis B
Characterized by liver cell necrosis and inflammation, followed by replacement with fibrotic tissue and regenerating nodules of hepatocytes, and vascular derangement. What is this describing
Cirrhosis
Strongly associated with obesity and diabetes type II
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Has circular RNA
Hepatitis D
Sofosbuvir is a treatment given to clear the virus
Hepatitis C
Halothane can be responsible for
Drug induced hepatitis
Primary malignancy of the liver is known as
Hepatocellular carcinoma
The faeco-oral route is the main route of transmission for
Hepatitis A
An arteriovenous fistula is provided in which situations
a. Above the elbow for haemodialysis
b. Above the wrist for haemodialysis
c. Above the elbow for peritoneal dialysis
d. Above the wrist for peritoneal dialysis
e. In the abdominal cavity for peritoneal dialysis
b. Above the wrist for haemodialysis
Match the renal anatomical structure with the most appropriate function
Surplus or waste ions and molecules flow out as urine
Water leaves by osmosis
Na+ is reclaimed by active transport, with water loss by osmosis
Actively reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, uric acid and inorganic salts
Collecting tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
Proximal convoluted tubule
On which day of the week would it be best to schedule dental treatment for a patient who receives dialysis every Monday and Friday?
Select one:
a. Wednesday
b. Tuesday
c. Thursday
d. Monday
b. Tuesday
Which anticoagulant is commonly used in the management of patients who require renal dialysis?
a. Apixaban
b. Warfarin
c. Aspirin
d. Heparin
e. Rivoroxiban
d. Heparin
Haemophilia A is a deficiency in which factor:
a. XI
b. VIII
c. X
d. VII
e. IX
b. VIII
Apixaban inhibits which factor:
Select one:
a. Factor Xa
b. Vitamin K
c. Platelets
d. Thrombin
e. Factor VIII
a. Factor Xa
The extraction of a single tooth is a high risk procedure when assessing bleeding risk :
True
False
False
Takes the medications aspirin and clopidogrel following a STEMI two weeks ago and requires the extraction of two asymptomatic teeth
What should you do?
Delay extractions until 6 month point
Takes the medication Apixaban and requires a single extraction
What should you do?
Do not change drug regime
Takes the medication Rivaroxaban once a day in the morning and requires the extraction of 5 teeth at 0900 in the morning
What should you do?
Delay the morning dose and take it 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved
Takes the medication Dabigatran and requires the surgical extraction of two teeth at 0900 in the morning
What should you do?
Miss the morning dose of medication and take the evening dose as usual
Takes the medication Warfarin with associated blood testing every week and requires a single extraction
INR required within 24 hours
A person with Moderate Haemophilia has what percentage of normal factor in their blood?
Select one:
a. < 1%
b. 5 -10%
c. 1-5%
d. >15%
e. 10 -15%
c. 1-5%
Von Willebrand’s Type 2 is normally managed with which product to mamage bleeding?
a. Factor IX Concentrate
b. Factor X Concentrate
c. Factor VIII Concentrate
d. DDAVP
e. Von Willebrand’s Concentrate
c. Factor VIII Concentrate
Augmentation of factor levels is required for which of the inherited bleeding conditions:
a. Moderate Haemophilia B
b. Mild Haemophilia A
c. Type 2a Von Willebrand’s Disease
d. Type 3 Von Willebrand’s Disease
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) would be deranged in
Haemophilia
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) measures:
Factors I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
The prothrobin time (PT) would be deranged in
Liver Disease or Warfarin Therapy
Protrhombin time (PT) measures: → Fcators VII,X,V prothrombin and fibrinogen
Factors I, II, V, VII, X
A patient with moderate Haemophilia A requires factor cover for supra-gingival scaling
Select one:
True
False
False
Topical miconazole for the management of oral candidosis presents a risk for patients prescribed Warfarin by potentiating bleeding?
Select one:
True
False
True
The purpose of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 is to:
a. Provides a framework for safeguarding the finances of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate
b. Provides a framework to promote equality and diversity in society
c. Provides a framework for safeguarding the welfare of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate.
d. Provides a framework for safeguarding the welfare and managing the finances of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate.
e. Provides a framework to ensure vulnerable individuals and groups are not abused
d. Provides a framework for safeguarding the welfare and managing the finances of adults who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate.
A 19-year-old male with Autism requires the extraction of 8 teeth including impacted mandibular 8s. He tolerates an examination but does not like to be touched as he finds it painful. What would be considered as the least restrictive option for him?
a. Do nothing
b. Intravenous sedation over multiple appointment
c. Local anaesthetic over multiple appointments
d. General Anaesthetic
e. Inhalation sedation over multiple appointments
d. General Anaesthetic
A 22-year-old female with a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder attends your clinic. She is currently experiencing a period of manic depression. She reports having pain from an upper central incisor and advises you that the tooth is the reason for her current depression. The tooth is diagnosed as having a periapical periodontitis. There is a buccal swelling present. She maintains she wishes the tooth extracted. When you speak to the Consultant Psychiatrist in charge of her care, she is certain that the patient will return to having full capacity at some point in the near future. What is the most appropriate course of action?
a. Do nothing
b. Begin endodontic therapy
c. Drain the swelling through incision and drainage and review when capacity returns
d. Prescribe a course of antibiotics and then begin endodontic therapy when her capacity returns
e. Remove the tooth as this is what the patient requests
b. Begin endodontic therapy
A Power of Attorney is:
a. A person who is nominates themselves whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally then appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity
b. A person who is nominated whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity
c. A person who is legally appointed by the courts to make decisions on behalf of a person who lacks capacity
d.A person who nominates themselves and is subsequently legally appointed by the courts to make the decision on behalf of a person who lacks capacity
e.A person legally appointed to nominate healthcare professionals to look after the welfare of another individual
b. A person who is nominated whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity
An individual with an intellectual disability is unable to consent to 3rd molar surgery. He has the capacity to make decisions about all other aspects of his dental care including examination and restorations which will be required to establish dental health. He requires restorations and the removal of a 3rd molar. His Mother is his welfare guardian.What certification is necessary to facilitate his care?
a.His Mother should be consulted as the Power of Attorney for 3rd molar surgery only and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for the surgical removal of a 3rd molar
b.His Mother should be consulted as the Welfare Guardian for 3rd molar surgery only and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for the surgical removal of a 3rd molar
c. This is an emergency and therefore the 3rd Molar can be removed without a certificate
d.His Mother should be consulted as the Power of Attorney and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for examination, restorations and the surgical removal of a 3rd molar
e.His Mother should be consulted as the welfare guardian and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for examination, restorations and the surgical removal of a 3rd molar
b.His Mother should be consulted as the Welfare Guardian for 3rd molar surgery only and a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate should be provided for the surgical removal of a 3rd molar
The Adult’s with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 the term incapacity relates to
a.Making decisions; or communicating decisions
b.Acting; or making decisions; or communicating decisions;
c.Acting; or making decisions; or communicating decisions; or understanding decisions or retaining the memory of decisions
d.Acting; or retaining the memory of decisions
e.Understanding decisions or retaining the memory of decisions
c.Acting; or making decisions; or communicating decisions; or understanding decisions or retaining the memory of decisions
Who can provide a Section 47, Adults with Incapacity Certificate for the provision of dental treatment
a.A nurse with additional training
b.A welfare guardian
c.A doctor who has just graduated
d.A dentist who has just graduated
e.An optometrist with additional training
c. A doctor who has just graduated
A 32 year old female presents to your general dental practice. You make a clinical diagnosis of a symptomatic periapical periodontitis associated with tooth 11. Tooth 11 appears to have received a previous traumatic injury due to its colour. It is restorable. She has an otherwise unrestored dentition. She is currently being treated under a compulsory treatment order as she is experiencing acute psychosis. She believes the tooth is bewitched and the source of all her mental health problems. Te medical team are confident they will be able to get her psychosis under control relatively soon. In making your decision to manage the tooth which principle of the Adult’s with Incapacity Act will be key to your decision on whether to extract the tooth or provide endodontic treatment?
a.Consultation with relevant others
b.Least restrictive option
c.Encourage the person to use existing skills and develop new skills
d.Benefit
e.Take account of the wishes of the adult
b.Least restrictive option
A 34-year-old man presents with an enamel dentine fracture which has exposed the pulp of the tooth. He has a brain injury and is deemed to lack the capacity to consent. Although, he is cooperative for treatment. His mother tells you he has always been very keen to keep his teeth and felt they were one of his best features. Considering the Adults with Incapacity Act, what Is the most appropriate treatment option?
a.Extract the tooth as this is the least restrictive option
b.Attempt endodontics as this is the least restrictive option
c.Extract the tooth as this is of benefit to him
d.Attempt endodontics as this would have been his previous wish
e.Extract the tooth as this would have been his previous wish
d.Attempt endodontics as this would have been his previous wish
A 40-year-old male with Motor Neuron Disease lacks the capacity to consent because he is unable to communicate his decisions. The most appropriate course of action to enable him to exercise his residual capacity would be to:
a.Utilise his speech generating device
b.He is unable to communicate so he does not have capacity
c.Utilise a social story
d.He cannot understand so he does not have capacity
e.Utilise a picture board
a.Utilise his speech generating device
A 46-year-old male has fractured a front tooth when he fell during a Myocardial Infarct(MI). The fracture extends subginvally and the pulp can be seen clinically. The tooth is grade III mobile. He is currently sedated in an Intensive Care Unit and will not be woken by the medical team until the front tooth is sorted as they feel it is an aspiration risk. How would you manage this situation when considering the Adults with Incapacity Act ?
a.Splint the tooth
b.Attempt to extirpate the tooth as this is a reversible option
c.Remove the tooth as this is an emergency following consultation with the family and medical team
d.Advise the medical doctors there will be no issues and the tooth can be left as normal
e.Leave the tooth in situ. as the individual is unable to make decisions about his own care Benefit
a.Splint the tooth
A 57-year-old male lacks capacity. His Mother and his brother hold joint welfare guardianship with regards to the care of his medical treatment. Who should you speak to to gain consent for treatment?
a.Refer the decision to the courts for a decision
b. His Brother has priority over his Mother
c.His Mother has priority over his Brother
d.His Mother and Brother have equal importance and therefore consent is required from both of them
e.His Mother and Bother have equal importance but consent is required from only one of them
e.His Mother and Bother have equal importance but consent is required from only one of them
An 18-year-old male with a diagnosis of Autistic Spectrum Disorder attends your dental practice. He has no verbal communication and will not sit in the dental chair. His mother believes he is in a pain. He requires a full examination and multiple teeth removed. A general anaesthetic is justifiable under the adults with Incapacity Act because it is:
a.The option which considers all 5 principles of the Adults with Incapacity Act
b.The option which encourage the person to use existing skills and develop new skills
c.The option which takes into account relevant others
d.The option of benefit
e.The option which takes account of the wishes of the individual
a.The option which considers all 5 principles of the Adults with Incapacity Act
An 85-year-old female is unable to remember a discussion you had with her one week ago regarding the prognosis of her dentition and the possible treatment options. Does she have the capacity to consent to treatment?
a.No, she has failed to understand the information given
b.No, she has failed to retain the information
c. Yes, she has retained the information
d.No, she has failed communicate the decision
e.Yes, she has capacity she has understood the decision
b.No, she has failed to retain the information
An 85-year-old female lacks the capacity to consent. She has no living family. She has a carer, Alison, that has known her for over 10 years. Who should be consulted and in what role when decisions are made in relation to her healthcare
a.Nobody requires to be consulted
b.Alison as the next of kin
c. Alison as the Welfare Guardian
d.Alison as the personal carer
e.Alison as nearest relative
d.Alison as the personal carer
How many principles are present in the Adult’s with Incapacity(Scotland) Act 2000?
a.Five
b.One
c.Three
d.Nine
e.Seven
a.Five
In the Adult’s with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 a Welfare Guardian is
a.A person who is nominated whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity
b.A person who nominates themselves whilst an individual still has capacity who is subsequently legally then appointed by a court to make decisions on the behalf of that individual when they lose capacity
c.A person who is legally appointed by the courts to make the decision on behalf of a person who lacks capacity
d.A person who nominates themselves when an individual loses capacity and is subsequently appointed by the Mental Welfare Commission to make decisions on behalf of a person who lacks capacity
e.A person who is legally appointed and oversees the welfare of the population have lost capacity
c.
A person who is legally appointed by the courts to make the decision on behalf of a person who lacks capacity
In the emergency it may be permissible to act in the best interests of the patient and provide which of the following procedures within an Adult’s with Incapacity, Section 47 Certificate.
a.It is never possible to provide treatment without an AWI certificate in place
b.Extract a carious tooth
c.Undertake hygiene phase therapy
d.Undertake a restoration
e.Extract a tooth with a periapical periodontitis
e.Extract a tooth with a periapical periodontitis
In which of the following situations would you provide emergency treatment without having a Section 47 Adults with Incapacity Certificate in place
a.Restoration of tooth 15
b.Never
c.Hygiene Phase Therapy
d.Oral Hygiene Instruction and Toothbrushing
e.Spreading Dental Infection
e.Spreading Dental Infection
Kirsty a 22 year old female is currently an inpatient in a Psychiatric Unit. She is believed to have a reversible condition which will allow her to return to full capacity. She has an unrestored dentition other than a crowned 11 which she traumatised as a child. The tooth has become non-vital and there is a buccal abscess evident above the apex of tooth 11. Kirsty believes that a witch has put the infection inside her tooth and she wants you to take the tooth out. Considering the Adults with Incapacity Act, which would be the most viable treatment option
Select one:
a.Remove the tooth
b.Ask the psychiatrist to increase her medication
c.Begin primary orthograde endodontics
d.Provide antibiotics
e.Do nothing
c.Begin primary orthograde endodontics
The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 has a legislative purpose in the United Kingdom. In which countries in the UK does the act apply
a.Scotland, England, Wales and Northern Ireland
b.Scotland and England
c.Scotland, England, Wales, Northern Ireland and The Republic of Ireland
d.Scotland
e. Scotland, England and Wales
d.Scotland
The consultation with the relevant others is best described as:
a.Take account of the view of the courts in order to seek permission to treat the individual
b.Take account of the view of another medical healthcare professional to ensure the treatment proposed is valid in the eyes of the law
c.Take account of the views of others with an interest in the person’s welfare. The Act lists those who should be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable.
d.Take account of the views of others with an interest in the person’s welfare. The Act lists those who should not be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable.
e.Take account of the views of others with no interest in the person’s welfare. The Act lists those who should be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable.
c.Take account of the views of others with an interest in the person’s welfare. The Act lists those who should be consulted whenever practicable and reasonable.
The Piece of legislation relating to consent for vulnerable people in Scotland is:
a. The Disability Discrimination Act
b.The Mental Capacity Act
c.The Equality Act
d.The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000
e.The Health and Social Care Act
d.The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000
The principle which considers benefit can be described as:
Select one:
a. Any actions undertaken would be beneficial financially
b. Any action or decision taken must improve the life of the individual who lacks capacity
c.Any actions undertaken must benefit the Power of Attorney or Welfare Guardian
d.Any action or decision taken must benefit the person and only be taken when that benefit cannot reasonably be achieved without it
e.Any action or decision taken must improve the life of the individual who has capacity
d.Any action or decision taken must benefit the person and only be taken when that benefit cannot reasonably be achieved without it
The principle which considers taking account of the wishes of the person is best described as:
a. Account must be taken of the present and past wishes and feelings of the welfare guardian or power of attorney person, as far as this may be ascertained.
b.Accounting for the wishes of the of adult’s next of kin should be take priority
c. Accounting for the wishes of the person are irrelevant once they have lost capacity
d. Accounting for the wishes of the healthcare professional should take priority
e. Account must be taken of the present and past wishes and feelings of the person, as far as this may be ascertained.
e. Account must be taken of the present and past wishes and feelings of the person, as far as this may be ascertained.
The principle which considers the least restrictive option can be described as:
Select one:
a. It should be the option that restricts the healthcare professional’s ability to provide treatment
b.It should be the option that allows for the greatest volume and quality of treatment to be provided
c.Any action or decision taken should be the minimum necessary to achieve the purpose. It should be the option that restricts the person’s freedom as little as possible.
d.It should be the option that least restricts the individual who lacks capacity to show their distress
e.It should be the option that least restricts the opportunity to change a treatment plan
c.Any action or decision taken should be the minimum necessary to achieve the purpose. It should be the option that restricts the person’s freedom as little as possible.
The IADT definition of ‘Concussion’ is:
A. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures with increased mobility but no displacement of the tooth and with pain to percussion
B. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without mobility or displacement of the tooth, but with pain to percussion
C. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures with displacement of the tooth and with pain to percussion
D. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without increased mobility or displacement of the tooth and without pain to percussion
B. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without mobility or displacement of the tooth, but with pain to percussion
When examining a patient with dental trauma, which of the following is not a sign of brain injury requiring medical assessment?
Select one:
A. Nausea
B. Dry mouth
C. Amnesia
D. Vomiting
B. Dry mouth
When considering avulsion of a primary tooth, which one of the following are true?
Select one:
A. The permanent successor is always damaged
B. Suturing of the soft tissues is required
C. The patient requires review until eruption of the permanent successor
D. The avulsed tooth should be reimplanted
C. The patient requires review until eruption of the permanent successor
Following a subluxation injury a tooth will be
Select one:
A. non-vital
B. displaced and have increased mobility
C. tender to touch/light tapping and have increased mobility
D. infraoccluded
C. tender to touch/light tapping and have increased mobility
Treatment guidelines for an avulsed permanent tooth with an open apex advise that:
Select one:
A. It should be splinted for 4 weeks
B. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately at the scene of injury, milk is a suitable storage medium
C. Extirpation should be undertaken within 2 weeks of the avulsion injury
D. A tooth should only be replanted by a dentist/suitably trained healthcare professional
B. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately at the scene of injury, milk is a suitable storage medium
Following replantation of a permanent tooth after an avulsion injury, successful pulpal and periodontal healing are more likely if:
Select one:
A. The avulsed tooth has an open apex and is replanted within 30 minutes of avulsion
B. The avulsed tooth has a closed apex and is replanted within 30 minutes of avulsion
C. The avulsed tooth has an open apex and is replanted immediately/within 15 minutes of avulsion
D. The avulsed tooth has a closed apex and is replanted immediately/within 15minutes of avulsion
C. The avulsed tooth has an open apex and is replanted immediately/within 15 minutes of avulsion
What radiographic finding would suggest loss of vitality following dental trauma
Select one:
A. Continuation in root maturation
B.Intact lamina dura
C. Pulp canal obliteration
D. External inflammatory root resorption (EIRR)
D. External inflammatory root resorption (EIRR)
An 11-year-old child presents to your Practice 48 hours after sustaining a complicated crown fracture to tooth 21. Which of the following is true?
Select one:
A. A pulpotomy (Cvek or coronal) should be completed
B. The definitive restoration must be placed at this visit
C. The tooth should be extirpated within 2 weeks
D. Ankylosis is the most likely long-term outcome
A. A pulpotomy (Cvek or coronal) should be completed
Following an intrusion injury of 3-7mm to tooth 11 in a 13-year-old child
Select one:
A. An ankylotic percussion note would not be detected until at least 2 weeks following the injury
B. Pulpal necrosis is likely
C. Surgical repositioning should be undertaken immediately
D. Spontaneous pulp revascularisation is likely
B. Pulpal necrosis is likely
With respect to root fractures in permanent teeth following dental trauma:
a. Apical root fractures have a hopeless long term prognosis
b. Hard tissue healing may occur
c. Loss of vitality of both the coronal and apical portions of the tooth is likely
d. Cervical root fractures should be splinted for 4 weeks
b. Hard tissue healing may occur
Which of the following permanent tooth injuries has a splinting time of 4 weeks?
Select one:
a. Root fracture (cervical 1/3)
b. Lateral luxation
c. Avulsion
d. Extrusion
b. Lateral luxation
Which of the following is true of teeth with pulp canal obliteration?
Select one:
a. It occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices
b. Avulsion injuries have a high rate of pulp canal obliteration
c. It occurs more frequently in tooth which have suffered a mild luxation injury
d. It usually indicates the presence of necrotic tissue
a. It occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices
For a conventional light-cured resin fissure sealant which substance is used to etch the surface of the enamel prior to placement?
Select one:
A. Hydrogen Peroxide
B. 10% Nitric Acid
C. 18% Hydrochloric Acid
D. 35%-37% Ortho-phosphoric Acid
D. 35%-37% Ortho-phosphoric Acid
How is isolation for moisture control best achieved whilst placing a fissure sealant?
Select one:
A. By use of rubber dam
B. By use of a parotid shield
C. By use of a saliva ejector
D. By use of cotton wool rolls
A. By use of rubber dam
When is the ideal time to fissure seal a first permanent molar?
Select one:
A. As soon as the tooth begins to erupt
B. Between the ages of 8 and 10-years-old
C. When the tooth has erupted sufficiently to allow for adequate isolation/moisture control
D. When caries develops in other primary or permanent teeth
C. When the tooth has erupted sufficiently to allow for adequate isolation/moisture control
Which of the following is not part of a preventive programme along with fissure sealing?
Select one:
A. Oral hygiene measures
B. Dietary advice/monitoring
C. Fluoride application
D. Preventive resin restoration/sealant restorations
D. Preventive resin restoration/sealant restorations
Which is the most common material used for fissure sealant placement?
Select one:
A. BIS-GMA resins
B. Glass ionomer cement
C. Resin modified glass ionomer
D. Amalgam
A. BIS-GMA resins
Which factor does not need to be taken into account when deciding to place a fissure sealant on a first permanent molar in a 6-year-old?
Select one:
A. Clinical findings
B. Parental Dental Anxiety
C. Patient’s caries risk
D. Radiographic findings
B. Parental Dental Anxiety
Which of the following patient groups require regular fissure sealant placement?
Select one:
A. Children with caries in their primary dentition
B. Children with compromised medical histories
C. Children at risk of caries development
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
After placement, fissure sealants should be checked for:
Select one:
A. Air bubbles
B. Flash
C. Non-adherence
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
How often should fissure sealants placed in a child of high caries risk be radiographically reviewed?
Select one:
A. Every 6 months
B. Every 12 months
C. Every 18 months
D. Every 24 months
A. Every 6 months
What is the major advantage of using a glass ionomer fissure sealant?
Select one:
A. It is more aesthetic
B. It sets quicker
C. It does not releases fluoride
D. It is easier to handle when moisture control is not ideal
D. It is easier to handle when moisture control is not ideal
Which of the following should be used to clean the tooth prior to fissure sealant placement?
Select one:
A. Air and water
B. Pumice and water
C. Diamond polishing paste
D. Toothpaste
B. Pumice and water
How should the occlusal surface of the tooth appear after adequate acid-etching and drying?
Select one:
A. Smooth and shiny
B. Mottled
C. Blue
D. Chalky-white/frosted
D. Chalky-white/frosted
Which instrument should be used to check the seal after placement?
Select one:
A. Flat plastic
B. Micro-brush
C. A sharp probe
D. 3-in-1 tip
C. A sharp probe
What is the thickness of an active component in orthdontics
0.5mm HSSW
Class II skeletal jaw relationship is most commonly associated with which of the following?
Select one:
a. A prognathic maxilla.
b. Mandibular prognathism.
c. An increased lower anterior face height.
d. A retrognathic mandible.
d. A retrognathic mandible.
Which of the following is most commonly associated with a Class III jaw relationship?
Select one:
a. Vertical maxillary excess.
b. Mandibular prognathism.
c. Anterior open bite.
d. Anteroposterior maxillary deficiency.
e. True mandibular asymmetry.
d. Anteroposterior maxillary deficiency.
Which of the following would you expect to find in a patient with long face syndrome?
Select one:
a. Backward growth rotation of the mandible.
b. Increased maxillary posterior dentoalveolar height.
c. An increased lower anterior face height percentage.
d. Ante-gonial notching of the mandible.
e. All of the above.
e. All of the above.
What is the likely cause of a left-sided unilateral posterior crossbite that is not associated with a lateral displacement of the mandible on closure?
Select one:
a. Mandibular prognathism.
b. An anterior open bite.
c. A narrow maxillary dental arch.
d. A true asymmetry of the mandible with the chin point shifted to the left.
e. Vertical maxillary deficiency.
d. A true asymmetry of the mandible with the chin point shifted to the left
What is the correct term used to describe a mismatch between the size of a patient’s teeth and jaws?
Select one:
a. Dento-skeletal discrepancy.
b. Dento-alveolar disproportion.
c. Microdontia.
d. Severe crowding.
e. Odonto-alveolar disproportion.
b. Dento-alveolar disproportion.
When performing an intra-oral examination of a 9.5 year-old patient which of the following would not be considered a relevant feature to indicate the possibility of an unerupted ectopic canine?
a.A palpable palatal elevation of the alveolar mucosa
b.Mobility of the deciduous canine
c.Discolouration of the deciduous canine
d.Inclination/Angulation of the upper lateral incisor
e.Presence of an upper midline diastema
e. Presence of an upper midline diastema
Which of the following can be caused by early loss of primary teeth?
a.Crowding and dental centreline shifts
b.Ankylosis of permanent teeth and loss of alveolar bone
c.Drifting of adjacent teeth and caries in the permanent dentition
d.Dental centreline shifts and loss of alveolar bone
e.Space loss and ankylosis of permanent successor
a.Crowding and dental centreline shifts
Which of the following is not a recognised effect of a digit-sucking habit on the developing dentition?
Select one:
a.Anterior crossbite
b.Retroclination of the lower incisors
c.Unilateral posterior cross-bite
d.Anterior open bite
e.Proclination of the upper incisors
a.Anterior crossbite
Which two the following categories of supernumerary teeth are the most likely to erupt into the oral cavity?
Select one:
a.Compound odontome and tuberculate
b.Supplemental and conical
c.Conical and tuberculate
d.Tuberculate and Supplemental
e.Mesiodens and complex odontome
b.Supplemental and conical
Your child patient presents with a single grossly carious first permanent molar. The condition of the other three first permanent molars is reasonably good. Which of the following are the main factors that influence any decisions that need to be made regarding whether or not to balance or compensate the extraction of this grossly carious tooth?
Select one:
a.Age of patient, presence of bilateral crossbite, degree of crowding
b.Presence of crowding, malocclusion type, presence of carious deciduous teeth
c.Age of patient, degree of crowding, malocclusion type
d.Presence of carious deciduous teeth, age of patient, Crowding
e.Early loss of primary teeth, malocclusion type, age of patient
c.Age of patient, degree of crowding, malocclusion type
In order to promote eruption of an upper second premolar we are considering extracting the deciduous second molar. What would be the ideal stage of root development of the unerupted second premolar to produce an optimal result?
Select one:
a.Less than one third root formed
b.Root formation not started but crown formation complete
c.Less than one half root formed
d.More than two thirds root formed
e.One half to two thirds root formed
e.One half to two thirds root formed
With regards to the mechanism by which bodily orthodontic tooth movement takes place during fixed appliance treatment, which of the following statements is true:
Select one:
a. Bone is laid down in response to compression of the periodontal ligament on the same side of the tooth as the direction of intended tooth movement
b. Bone is removed in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the same side of the tooth as the direction of intended tooth movement
c. Bone is laid down in response to compression of the periodontal ligament on the same side of the tooth as the direction of intended tooth movement
d.Bone is laid down in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement
e. Bone is removed in response to compression of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement
d.Bone is laid down in response to tension of the periodontal ligament on the opposite side of the tooth to the direction of intended tooth movement
Which of the following force ranges would be most appropriate to apply when trying to intrude teeth with a fixed appliance?
a.100-150g
b.10-20g
c.150-200g
d.35g -60g
e.50-100g
b.10-20g
Which of the following histological features is thought to play the biggest role in tooth eruption:
Select one:
a.Gubernacular cord
b.Reduced enamel Epithelium
c.Epithelial root sheath ( Hertwig’s root sheath )
d.Epithelial cell rests (of Malassez)
e.Dental Follicle
e.Dental Follicle
Which of the following is NOT a factor which can influence the rate of tooth movement?
Select one:
a.Anatomy of bone in the area
b.Direction of force
c.Age of the patient
d.Magnitude of force
e.Duration of force
b.Direction of force
When measuring overjet clinically which of the following applies?
a. The patient should be in retruded contact position
b. The patient’s Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle (FMPA) should be vertical
c. The patient should be in intercuspal position
d. The URA should be in the patient’s mouth
e. The patient should be prone
a. The patient should be in retruded contact position
The Aesthetic Component of IOTN:
a. fulfils all the criteria of an ideal index
b. is of use in rating dental attractiveness
c. can only be used clinically on patients
d. is used to assess treatment complexity
e. uses a series of 10 photographs, with number 1 being the least attractive arrangement of teeth
b. is of use in rating dental attractiveness
The Dental Health Component (DHC) of IOTN:
a. is a subjective assessment
b. records the most favourable feature of the malocclusion
c. can only be used on study models
d. is assessed using the MOCDOO system
e. is an indicator of treatment complexity
d. is assessed using the MOCDOO system
A patient whose worst occlusal feature is a unilateral unerupted ectopic canine would score with IOTN DHC?
a. 5a
b. 5i
c. 4a
d. 4h
e. 5h
f. 4i
b. 5i
The P.A.R. indexa. assesses 5 components of alignment
b. scores pre treatment study models only
c. stands for the Peer Assessment Rating index
d. is designed to assess treatment difficulty from study models
e. assesses the effect of orthodontic treatment on the facial profile
f. has been a method of assessing treatment outcome for 30 years
c. stands for the Peer Assessment Rating index
When assigning the Dental Health Component of IOTN
a. grades 3,4 and 5 are commonly grouped together
b. once a grade 3 has been found the process is complete
c. the patient’s views are paramount
d. the MOODOO system is an aide memoire
e. an increased overjet of 12mm would score a grade 5i
f. a traumatic overbite would score a grade 4f
d. the MOODOO system is an aide memoire
