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easyJet Random > LVP > Flashcards

LVP Flashcards

1
Q

Below what altitude is the Autoland Red Light active?

A

Below 200 feet RA.

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2
Q

What are the 7 triggers for the Autoland Red Light?

A
  1. Loss of both APs below 200 feet RA.
  2. Loss of LOC above 15 feet.
  3. Loss of GS above 100 feet.
  4. Deviation from LOC or GS.
  5. RA discrepancy greater than 15 feet.
  6. Long flare detected by FMGS.
  7. Early or untimely flare detected by FMGS.
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3
Q

At what altitude do landing inhibits become active?

A

At 800 feet RA.

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4
Q

At what altitude does FMGC data lock occur?

A

At 700 feet RA.

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5
Q

By what altitude must the FMA display LAND, and what checks must CM1 perform?

A
  • 350’ RA
  • “Land” and ILS course check
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6
Q

Below alert height, what failures are relevant?

A

The ones that will trigger red autoland light.

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7
Q

At what altitude must we see ‘FLARE’ on the FMA in an autoland?

A

At 40 feet RA.

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8
Q

At what altitude must we see the thrust idle command on the FMA in an autoland?

A

At 30 feet RA.

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9
Q

At what altitude must we see ‘ROLLOUT’ on the FMA in an autoland?

A

At 10 feet RA.

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10
Q

What must be completed by 1000ft RA on an autoland to avoid GA (5)?

A
  • ECAM or QRH procedure must be complete.
  • Required equipment for CAT 2 or 3 and OPS checked.
  • Approach landing capability checked.
  • RVR checked.
  • DH adjusted.
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11
Q

What happens in the event of a master caution or downgrade during an autoland?

A

If it happens below 1000ft RA and the alert height, a go-around must be initiated unless visual references are sufficient.

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12
Q

What are the minimas for a CAT I approach?

A

200’ AAL, 550m RVR

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13
Q

What are the minimas for a CAT II approach?

A

100ft RA and 300m RVR.

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14
Q

What are the minimas for an SA CAT II approach?

A

100ft RA, and 350m RVR.

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15
Q

What are the minimas for a CAT III with DH approach?

A

50ft RA, and 200m RVR.

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16
Q

What are the minimas for a CAT III without DH approach?

A

No DH, and 75m RVR.

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17
Q

What are the required visual references for a CAT I approach (10)?

A

Elements of the approach light system, thresholds, threshold markings, threshold lights, threshold identification lights, visual glideslope indicator, touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings, touchdown zone lights, runway edge lights.

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18
Q

What are the required visual references for a CAT II or SA CAT II approach?

A

Three consecutive lights and a lateral element.

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19
Q

What are the required visual references for a CAT III with DH approach?

A
  • Three consecutive lights (CAT 3 SINGLE displayed).
  • One centerline light (CAT 3 DUAL displayed).
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20
Q

What are the required visual references for a CAT III NO DH approach?

A

None.

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21
Q

How to determine the minimas for any approach category?

A

On the LIDO approach plate or the absolute minima if not stated on the LIDO approach plate.

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22
Q

What is the color code for runway centerline lights (RCLL)?

A

White from threshold to the last 900m.
White and red from the last 900m to the last 300m.
Red for the final 300m.

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23
Q

How are the rapid exit taxiway indicator lights on the runway?

A

Three yellow lights 300m before.
Two yellow lights 200m before.
One yellow light 100m before.

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24
Q

What is the color code for runway edge lights (REDL)?

A

White.

25
Q

What is the color for threshold lights (THL) and runway end lighting (RENL)?

A

Green and red, respectively.

26
Q

Where is the precision approach path indicator (PAPI) generally located?

A

300m after the runway threshold.

27
Q

What is the touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) color?

A

White, and it is normally 900m in length.

28
Q

What are the requirements for rollout guidance (5)?

A
  • NWS and anti-skid.
  • Minimum of CAT II ground equipment.
  • Published TDZ RVR.
  • 75m midpoint and stop-end RVR.
  • Non contaminated RWY.
29
Q

What are the controlling RVR for an approach?

A

The TDZ RVR is always controlling.
If reported and relevant, the midpoint and stop-end RVR are also controlling.

30
Q

What are manual ROLLOUT requirements for Autoland (4)?

A
  • Published TDZ RVR.
  • Midpoint RVR 125m.
  • Stop-end RVR 75m.
  • AP disconnect on nose wheel touchdown.
31
Q

What are the taxi requirements during LVP?

A

No OETD and no checks whilst moving.
OETA allowed but without SETWA.

32
Q

What are the protected distance and angles from the RWY for an ILS?

A
  • 10° up to 25 nm
  • 35° up to 17 nm
33
Q

What is the difference between LVP and LVO?

A

LVP refers to the airport.
LVO refers to the airline.

34
Q

What is the definition of MIST?

A

Affected visibility by water droplets, but > 1,000 meters.

35
Q

What is the definition of HAZE?

A

Affected visibility by solid particles, but > 1,000 meters.

36
Q

What is the definition of FOG?

A

< 1,000 meters visibility.

37
Q

What is advection fog?

A

Warmer moist air moves over a colder surface.

38
Q

What is radiation fog?

A

Heat radiating from the surface at night cools the bottom air until it reaches saturation.

39
Q

What are the minimum facilities for an LVP TO with a minimum of 125m RVR (4)?

A
  • Centerline markings.
  • RWY end lights (REL).
  • RWY edge lights (spaced 60m or less).
  • RWY centerline lights (RECL) (spaced 15m or less).
40
Q

What are the brief smart points for an approach in LVP (6)?

A
  • Assess WX for alternates.
  • Assess holding time due to LVP.
  • Review task sharing from the QRH.
  • Brief actions for downgrades.
  • Taxi pattern.
  • WLM during taxi.
41
Q

What are the 4 sources of aircraft capability for LVP?

A
  • FMA
  • ECAM status page
  • QRH OPS.4 (NOT FMGS monitored items)
  • MEL
42
Q

What are the approved landing configurations for Autoland?

A

CONF3 and CONF FULL.

43
Q

What are the approved landing configurations for Autoland in OEI on A320-CEO?

A

CONF FULL (CAT 3 SINGLE).

44
Q

What are the approved landing configurations for Autoland in OEI on A319 or A320neo?

A

CONF3 or CONF FULL (CAT 3 SINGLE).

45
Q

What are the glide slope limitations for an autoland?

A

A320 CEO: Between -2.5° and -3.15°
A320 NEO: Between -2.5° and -3.25°

46
Q

What other weather condition point is important for planning an autoland?

A

Crosswind limitations (found in the operational quick access folder).

47
Q

Where can you find the requirements in case of downgraded ground equipment for an autoland?

A

In Lido documents, GEN 1.5.7.16.2 table.

48
Q

How many consecutive approaches can be attempted?

A

A maximum of two when there has been a go-around due to weather conditions.

49
Q

Is it possible to try a third approach?

A

In exceptional circumstances, it is possible when a go-around has been carried out for non-weather-related reasons, providing the commander is satisfied that landing is assured.

50
Q

For a CAT II approach, can the DH not exactly be 100’ RA?

A

Yes, due to terrain features immediately before the threshold.

51
Q

Are SA CAT II approaches approved in Austrian AOC?

A

Yes.

52
Q

Why is there an alert height for a CAT III NO DH approach?

A

As there is no limitation for visual reference, there is still a decision to be made regarding the aircraft landing capability.

53
Q

What minima will be used for a CAT 3 DUAL?

A

CAT III NO DH

54
Q

What minima will be used for a CAT 3 SINGLE?

A

CAT III with DH

55
Q

Are all reported RVR significant for the approach ban?

A

Yes, all of the reported RVRs along the runway are significant.

56
Q

What altitude is the approach ban?

A

1000’ TDZE or DA/DH or MDA/MDH if they are above 1000’ TDZE.

57
Q

What is the minimum aircraft capability on FMA above alert height?

A

CAT 3 DUAL.

58
Q

What happens at 400’ on autoland?

A

FCU lock

59
Q

What happens in case of a master warning during an autoland?

A

The failure must be assessed and its impact on autoland capability before deciding to GA or continue.

easyJet Random (4 decks)

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