Lung Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the scale of lung cancer in the UK

A

3rd most common cancer, 48,000 diagnoses every year with 35,000 deaths, leading cause of cancer death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is most likely to get lung cancer?

A

Peaks between 75-90. More males than females affected. Impacts those of lower socioeconomic status and duration, intensity + when stopped smoking all impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What other causes of lung cancer apart from smoking?

A

Asbestos – exposure (plumbers, ship-builders, carriage workers, carpenters, etc) – risk up to x2
Radon – e.g. silver miners in Germany late 19th century; 1950s uranium mining in Colorado
Indoor cooking fumes – wood smoke, frying fats
Chronic lung diseases (COPD, fibrosis)
Immunodeficiency
Familial/ genetic – several loci identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What pathophysiologies count as lung cancer?

A
  1. Small cell lung cancer - originates from pulmonary neuroendocrine cells, highly malignant
  2. Non-small cell lung cancer includes:
    - Squamous cell carcinoma: originates from bronchial epithelium, centrally located and was previously most common (30%)
    - Adenocarcinoma: originating from mucus-producing glandular tissue; more peripherally-locate (40%)
    - Large cell lung cancer: heterogenous morphologies, undifferentiated (15%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe progression of lung cancer development

A

Normal epithelium becomes hyperplastic and then squamous metaplasia occurs - these are the early stages. Dysplasia occurs in intermediate stage. Late stages involve carcinoma in situ and then invasive carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define metaplasia and dysplasia

A
Metaplasia = reversible change in which one adult cell type replaced by another adult cell type; adaptive         
Dysplasia = abnormal pattern of growth in which some of the cellular and architectural features of malignancy are present; pre-invasive stage with intact basement membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 4 important oncogenes which can mutate to cause cancer?

A
  1. EGFR: epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase
  2. ALK: anaplastic lymphoma kinase tyrosine kinase
  3. ROS1: c-ROS oncogene 1 tyrosine kinase receptor
  4. BRAF: downstream cell-cycle signalling mediator

BEAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the implications of an EGFR mutation?

A

Cause 15-30% of adenocarcinoma

more so in women, Asian ethnicity, never-smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the implications of an ALK mutation?

A

2-7% of non-small cell lung cancer

especially in younger patients and never smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the implications of a ROS1 mutation?

A

1-2% of non-small cell lung cancer

especially in younger patients and never smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the implications of a BRAF mutation?

A

1-3% of non-small cell lung cancer

especially in smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are key symptoms of lung cancer?

A

Can frequently be asymptomatic but includes cough, weight loss, breathlessness, fatigue, chest pain and haemoptysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are features of advanced/metastatic disease?

A

Neurological features: focal weakness, seizures, spinal cord compression
Bone pain
Paraneoplastic syndromes: Clubbing, hypercalaemia, hyponatraemia, Cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are signs of lung cancer?

A

Clubbing, cachexia, Horner’s syndrome and superior vena cava obstruction (Pemberton’s sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the diagnostic strategy

A

Establish most likely diagnosis
Establish fitness for investigation and treatment
Confirm diagnosis - specific type of cancer if considering systemic treatment
Confirm staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why are different imaging techniques?

A

CT of chest and abdomen used to determine stage

PET - Most useful to exclude occult metastases

17
Q

What are 3 methods of obtaining a biopsy?

A
  1. Bronchoscopy - for tumours of central airway where tissue staging not important
  2. Endobronchial ultrasound and transbronchial-needle aspiration of mediastinal lymph nodes (EBUS [TBNA]). To stage mediastinum +/- achieve tissue diagnosis
  3. CT-guided lung biopsy - To access peripheral lung tumours
18
Q

What are the 3 components of staging?

A

T1-4: tumour size and location
N0-3: lymph node involvement – mediastinum + beyond
M0-1c: metastases + number

19
Q

What 5 things are the determinants of treatment?

A
Patient fitness
Cancer histology
Cancer stage
Patient preference
Health service factors
20
Q

How is patient fitness determined?

A

WHO performance status used.
0- asymptomatic (fully active, no restriction)
1 - Symptomatic but completely ambulatory
2 - Symptomatic, <50% in bed during the day
3 - Symptomatic, >50% in bed, but not bedbound
4 - Bedbound
5 - Death

21
Q

What is standard of care for early stage disease?

A

Surgical resection is standard of care for early stage disease
Lobectomy + lymphadenectomy usual approach
Sublobar resection if stage 1 (≤3 𝑐𝑚)

22
Q

What is an alternative to surgery for early stage disease?

A

Radical radiotherapy used - especially if patient has comorbidities. Stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy (SABR) - is the technique of choice and high-precision targetting, multiple convergent beams.

23
Q

What treatment is first line for metastatic NSCLC with mutation?

A

EGFR: erlotinib, gefitinib, afatinib, dacomitinib, and osimertinib
ALK: crizotinib, ceritinib, alectinib, brigatinib, lorlatinib
ROS-1: crizotinib, entrectinib

24
Q

What is efficacy of oncogene-directed treatment like?

A

improvements in progression-free survival, but not necessarily overall survival vs standard chemotherapy:

e. g. erlotinib PFS 14 vs 5 months, OS 23 vs 29 months compared to chemo (OPTIMAL trial)
e. g. crizitonib PFS 8 vs 3 months, OS 20 vs 23 months

25
Q

How is immunotherapy used to kill tumour cells?

A

PD-L1 on tumour cell binds PD-1 on T-cell preventing T-cell killing the tumour cell. Blocking PD-L1 and PD-1 with drugs allows the T-cell to then bind the tumour cell and kill it.

26
Q

What immunotherapy is used as first line for metastatic NSCLC with no mutation?

A

Pembrolizumab, atezolizumab, nivolumab

27
Q

What is cytotoxic chemotherapy?

A

Targets any rapidly dividing cells. Uses platiunum-based regimens, e.g. carboplatin, cisplatin, paclitaxel, pemetrexed. When used alone, modest improvements in overall survival vs best supportive care.

28
Q

What are side effects of cytotoxic chemotherapy?

A

Frequent: fatigue, nausea, bone marrow suppression, nephrotoxicity. Quality of life poorly evaluated in trials; no evidence for improvement.

29
Q

What does palliative and supportive care involve?

A

Symptom control, psychological support, education, practical and financial support, planning for end of life. There is evidence for survival and symptomatic benefit.

30
Q

Simplify the treatment schedule for lung cancer

A

Slide 35