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LSW exam > LSW > Flashcards

LSW Flashcards

1
Q

What is Psychoanalytic Theory?

A

Freud; Human behavior is based on unconscious drives and motivations (values the importance of childhood experiences).

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2
Q

What is Repression?

A

The primary defense mechanism, involving pushing thoughts and ideas that are distressing from the Conscious to the Unconscious.

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3
Q

Structural Theory of Personality Development (psychoanalytic)

A

Id contains the most primitive portion of personality (Pleasure Principle, Libido, immediate gratification); Ego contains the Reality Principle (immediate gratification must be compromised for the realities of the environment); Superego contains conscious and ego ideal (ethical portion)

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4
Q

What are the 5 stages of psychosexual development and what ages do they each represent?

A

Oral (0 -1.5), Anal (1.5-3), Phallic (3-6), Latency (6-12), Genital (12 to adult).

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5
Q

What is Denial?

A

A defense mechanism of refusing to acknowledge reality.

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6
Q

What is Displacement?

A

A defense mechanism of shifting repressed feelings to another object.

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7
Q

What is Dissociation?

A

A defense mechanism of separation from a feeling that would normally accompany a situation.

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8
Q

What is Idealization?

A

A defense mechanism that is a form of denial, making negative feelings as “all good.”

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9
Q

What is Identification?

A

A defense mechanism of modeling one’s self upon another person’s behavior

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10
Q

What is Introjection?

A

A defense mechanism of identifying with an idea so deeply that it becomes a part of that person.

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11
Q

What is Inversion?

A

A defense mechanism of refocusing external emotions onto one’s self.

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12
Q

What is Intellectualization?

A

A defense mechanism of Rationalizing/Generalizing anxiety-provoking issues to minimize pain.

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13
Q

What is Projection?

A

A defense mechanism of attributing a painful thought or idea to another person.

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14
Q

What is Rationalization?

A

A defense mechanism of attempting to provide a logical explanation to avoid guilt or shame.

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15
Q

What is Reaction Formation?

A

A defense mechanism of replacing a negative event with the complete opposite.

A cause of Reaction Formation is when a person seeks to cover up something unacceptable by adopting an opposite stance. For example the gay person who has heterosexually promiscuous may be concealing their homosexual reality.

Reaction formation is a defence mechanism when opposing tendencies are exaggerated

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16
Q

What is Regression?

A

A defense mechanism of losing an aspect of development already achieved due to anxiety causing a person to revert to a lower stage.

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17
Q

What is Somatization?

A

A defense mechanism of manifestation of emotional anxiety into physical symptoms.

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18
Q

What is Splitting?

A

A defense mechanism of disconnecting important feelings, leads to “fragmented self.”

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19
Q

What is Substitution?

A

A defense mechanism of replacing one emotion with another.

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20
Q

What is Isolation?

A

A defense mechanism of inability to experience both the cognitive and affective components of a situation.

The defense mechanism of isolation can lead a person to separate ideas or feelings from the rest of their thoughts. … For example, a person with a particularly stressful job may use isolation to separate their work life from their family life, avoiding the stress affecting their relationships.

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21
Q

What is Ego Psychology and Who founded it?

A

Heinz Hartmann; belief that individuals can adapt to their social environments and focuses on Adaption (reciprocal relationship between individuals and the environment) and the Ego portion of personality.

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22
Q

What is Psychosocial theory and Who founded it?

A

Erik Erikson; an individual’s social environment shapes their behaviors and personality. Focus on Ego Portion of personality.

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23
Q

Stage 1 Psychosocial Development. (0 - 1).

A

Trust v. Mistrust

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24
Q

Trust v. Mistrust

A

Trust developed through being loved and nurtured.

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25
Q

Stage 2 Psychosocial Development. (2 - 3).

A

Autonomy v. Shame and Doubt

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26
Q

Autonomy v. Shame and Doubt

A

Child develops motor and verbal skills that foster confidence and autonomy if nurtured.

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27
Q

Stage 3 Psychosocial Development. (4 -5).

A

Initiative v Guilt

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28
Q

Initiative v Guilt

A

Child learns to play with others and explore. The child who is not allowed initiative will feel guilty and fearful.

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29
Q

Stage 4 Psychosocial Development. (6 -11).

A

Industry v. Inferiority

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30
Q

Industry v. Inferiority

A

Child develops a need to have mastery over tasks. If they fail to achieve this they will feel incompetent.

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31
Q

Stage 5 Psychosocial Development. ( 12- 18).

A

Identity v. Role Confusion

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32
Q

Identity v. Role Confusion

A

Will create their identity through integrating the components of themself into a whole person.

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33
Q

Stage 6 Psychosocial Development. (20 - 35).

A

Intimacy v. Isolation

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34
Q

Intimacy v. Isolation

A

Learns to build reciprocal relationships on many levels.

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35
Q

Stage 7 Psychosocial Development. (35 -50).

A

Generativity v. Stagnation

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36
Q

Generativity v. Stagnation

A

Develop the capacity to care and nurture.

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37
Q

Stage 8 Psychosocial Development. (50 +).

A

Ego Integrity v. Despair

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38
Q

Ego Integrity v. Despair

A

Learn to accept their own life achievements and significant others.

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39
Q

What is Biopsychosocial theory and who developed it?

A

George Engel; human behavior is the result of interactions between biological, psychological and social systems.

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40
Q

What is Object Relations Theory and Who founded it?

A

Margaret Mahler; Focuses on an infant’s development of sense of self.

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41
Q

What is Attachment theory and who developed it?

A

John Bowlby; The earliest bonds formed by children with their caregivers have a tremendous impact on their lives and development.

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42
Q

What are the attachment styles?

A

Secure (distress when separated, but assured they will return, happy upon return); Avoidant (avoid parents or caregivers, no preference to strangers); Ambivalent (distressed when separated, does not calm when the parent returns); Disorganized (no coping strategy observed)

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43
Q

Secure attachment

A

distress when separated, but assured they will return, happy upon return

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44
Q

Avoidant attachment

A

avoid parents or caregivers, no preference to strangers

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45
Q

Ambivalent attachment

A

distressed when separated, does not calm when the parent returns

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46
Q

Disorganized attachment

A

no coping strategy observed

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47
Q

What is analytical psychology and who developed it?

A

Carl Jung; Conscious and unconscious communication is critical, and can happen through dreams. There are collective unconscious called archetypes.

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48
Q

What is cognitive therapy and who developed it?

A

Aaron Beck and Alfred Adler; an individuals emotions and behaviors are a direct result of the individual’s thoughts and cognition.

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49
Q

What is Rational Emotive Therapy and who developed it?

A

Albert Ellis; Cognitive-behavioral theory also referred to as ABC Theory of emotion (Activating Event, Thoughts/beliefs, emotional/behavioral consequences)

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50
Q

What is Self-Psychology and who developed it?

A

Heinz Kohut; includes selfobjects(childs perception of others as a part of themself), empathetic mirroring (selfobject mirrors child), narcissism occurs when a child is deprived an empathetic environment

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51
Q

What is Gestalt Psychology and who developed it?

A

Fritz Perls; “wholeness.” an individual must be viewed as a whole and not a sum of parts. focuses on the present ability to control behaviors.

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52
Q

What is Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

A

Jean Piaget, how children organize thoughts with schemas, and learns through adaptation (assimilation and accommodation).

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53
Q

Piaget’s stages of development

A

Sensorimotor(0-2) circular reactions, sucking reflex, lacks symbolic function; Pre-operational(2-7) language, understanding of past and future, self-centered; Concrete Operational (7-11) conservation of substance, manipulate symbols logically; Formal Operational (11-15) abstract thinking, hypothetical thinking, adult like thinking

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54
Q

Sensorimotor(0-2)

A

circular reactions, sucking reflex, lacks symbolic function

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55
Q

Pre-operational(2-7)

A

language, understanding of past and future, self-centered

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56
Q

Concrete Operational (7-11)

A

conservation of substance, manipulate symbols logically

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57
Q

Formal Operational (11-15)

A

abstract thinking, hypothetical thinking, adult like thinking

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58
Q

Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

Lawrence Kohlberg, believed moral development was learned through environment (not present at birth). Correlation is between moral development and intelligence/ability to interact with others.

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59
Q

Levels and Stages of Moral Development

A

Preconventional (0-9) 1. avoid punishment, 2. personal reward; Conventional (9-15) 3. gain approval/avoid disapproval, 4. follows laws and rules; Post Conventional (15- adult) 5. social mutuality, 6. individual conscience

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60
Q

Preconventional (0-9

A
  1. avoid punishment, 2. personal reward
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61
Q

Conventional (9-15)

A
  1. gain approval/avoid disapproval, 4. follows laws and rules
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62
Q

Post Conventional (15- adult)

A
  1. social mutuality, 6. individual conscience
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63
Q

What is Respondent/Classical Conditioning theory and who developed it?

A

John Watson and Ivan Pavlov, behavioral theory that an individual learns behavior through association. Behaviors are a response to environmental stimuli

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64
Q

What is Operant Conditioning and who developed it?

A

B.F. Skinner, Behavioral theory that changes in behavior are the result of changes in the environment and reinforcement by significant others.

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65
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

reward when good behavior occurs

Positive reinforcement is most likely to enhance client motivation levels - goal with word increase is only one that uses positive reinforcement
(reducing negative behaviors reflects a deficit framework)

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66
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

reinforce good behavior by avoiding an adverse event

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67
Q

Punishment

A

decrease a problem behavior by presentation of unpleasant event.

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68
Q

What is social Learning Theory and who developed it?

A

Albert Bandura: behaviors can be changes by altering the events that occur before and after the target behavior. Antecedent - Behavior - Consequence

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69
Q

What is existentialism?

A

Humans are defined by their ability to make choices. All human emotional problems can be understood as forms of alienation.

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70
Q

What is Family Systems theory and who developed it?

A

Murray Bowen. Individuals exist within a family context of subsystems and boundaries. Differentiation leads to a balance of emotion and reason, or else become Enmeshed. Disengaged family members may be autonomous but have skewed wince of independence and rigid boundaries.

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71
Q

Characteristics of an abusive parent

A

Low self esteem, feeling unworthy, experience repeated loss and rejection, dysfunctional childhood, thrust into foreign environment, isolation, inadequate support system, need to control others, financial stress, anxiety depression and personality disorders, limited education

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72
Q

What is Sublimation?

A

A defense mechanism in which a person chooses to divert their desires that are consciously intolerable and cannot be directly realized into creative activities that are acceptable.

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73
Q

What is Undoing?

A

A defense mechanism in which a person compensates for engaging in unacceptable behavior.

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74
Q

What is the sleeper effect?

A

a psychological phenomenon when the negative affects of abuse may not be seen in children for several years

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75
Q

insecure attachment

A

negative social interactions w/ peers

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76
Q

deaf culture

A

total immersion in sign language

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77
Q

past sexual partner client

A

Immediately transfer past sexual partner client to another worker

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78
Q

don’t be restrictive

A

Support client self-determination and choice first

First acknowledge and validate client concerns

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79
Q

don’t jump to conclusions

A

Assess situations first

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80
Q

Engaging a client

  • Engage the client in your observation of a problem situation
A

builds rapport and supports self-determination

  • learn more from their perspective before doing anything else
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81
Q

First step to continue completing an assessment is to

A

obtain a social and family history

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82
Q

what determines scope/focus of assessment

A

Needs of client

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83
Q

when medical crisis,

A

First rule out medical issues when potential medical crisis

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84
Q

Serious threat of self harm

A

first step is to arrange for a crisis assessment; rights to confidentiality are superseded by the seriousness of the threat; safety contract may be appropriate after such an assessment

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85
Q

Immediate step with unsafe child behavior (no evidence of abuse/neglect)

A

create a safety plan together

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86
Q

first step of policy analysis

A

understand historical background of policies

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87
Q

ecomap is initial assessment tool

A

An Ecomap is a diagram often used by social workers or nurses showing the social and personal relationships of an individual with his or her environment. Ecomaps were developed in 1975 by Dr. Ann Hartman who is also credited with creating the genogram

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88
Q

life history grd assessment tool

A

The life history grid is a method of organizing and presenting data related to the various periods in a client’s life. The grid is especially useful in work with children and adolescents, where an understanding of life experiences during a particular stage of development may shed light on current functioning.

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89
Q

family scupting (psychodrama)

A

Family sculpting is the visual representation, as envisioned by one individual person (referred to as the identified client), of their present family situation as they experience it.
a technique in family therapy in which the therapist asks one or more members of the family to arrange the other members (and lastly themselves) in relation to one another in terms of posture, space, and attitude so as to portray the arranger’s perception of the family, either in general or with regard to a particular …

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90
Q

Global Assessment of Functioning scale definition

A

The Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) is a numeric scale used by mental health clinicians and physicians to rate subjectively the social, occupational, and psychological functioning of an individual, e.g., how well one is meeting various problems-in-living.

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91
Q

Subpoena for client records

A

first step is to discuss it w/ agency’s legal counsel before submitting it (getting approval from client before responding to subpoena would only occur if the counsel directed this)

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92
Q

a court order to disclose client records

A

supervision should be obtained first (making alterations/corrections to the record should not be done)

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93
Q

A key role of a group facilitator is to

A

keep participants focused on the purpose of the meeting

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94
Q

Fatalistic thought =

A

a belief that all events are predetermined/inevitable

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95
Q

Nihilism

A

Nihilism is the belief that all values are baseless and that nothing can be known or communicated

In philosophy, nihilism is the complete rejection of moral values and religious beliefs. It is such a negative outlook that it denies any meaning or purpose in life. In political theory, nihilism is carried to an even greater extreme, arguing for the destruction of all existing political and social institutions.

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96
Q

familism

A

The term familism refers to a model of social organization, based on the prevalence of the family group and its well-being placed against the interests and necessities of each one of its members

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97
Q

paternalism

A

the policy or practice on the part of people in positions of authority of restricting the freedom and responsibilities of those subordinate to them in the subordinates’ supposed best interest.

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98
Q

First step in program evaluation is

A

determining the goals and objectives

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99
Q

Focusing on the needs of clients has the most positive effect on

A

agency service delivery

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100
Q

Active euthanasia

A

Active euthanasia is when death is brought about by an act - for example when a person is killed by being given an overdose of pain-killers. Passive euthanasia is when death is brought about by an omission - i.e. when someone lets the person die

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101
Q

physician-assisted death

A

Physician assisted suicide is the voluntary termination of one’s own life by taking lethal medication with the direct or indirect assistance of a physician. Physician-assisted suicide is also referred to as active euthanasia.

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102
Q

palliative care

A

his type of care is focused on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of the illness. The goal is to improve quality of life for both the patient and the family.

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103
Q

magical thinking

A

one’s thoughts alone can result in accomplishment of certain wishes

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104
Q

depersonalization

A

a state in which one’s thoughts and feelings seem unreal or not to belong to oneself, or in which one loses all sense of identity.

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105
Q

thought broadcasting

A

thought disorder
In psychiatry, thought broadcasting is the belief that others can hear or are aware of an individual’s thoughts. Thought broadcasting can be a positive symptom of schizophrenia

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106
Q

looseness of association

A

Disordered thinking in which ideas shift from one subject to another in an oblique or unrelated manner, without the speaker being aware of same; when severe, speech may be incoherent.

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4
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107
Q

what to do w/ presenting problem (youth needs shelter)

A

Contacting a youth shelter facility is first step to providing immediate, tangible aid

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108
Q

Women more likely to abuse

A

prescription drugs than men

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109
Q

Empathy involves attempting to

A

understand the client from his/her perspective while maintaining objectivity (outside observer)

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110
Q

naltrexone

A

decreases cravings for alcohol

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111
Q

termination for nonpayment

A

If a client poses no danger to self/others services can be terminated for nonpayment if a discussion of financial obligations has occurred (canceling after 3 = arbitrary number of incidents)

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112
Q

triangulation

A

occurs when parents’ conflict is lessened when their attention is focused on child’s behavior (separation, acting out in school)
Triangulation is a manipulation tactic where one person will not communicate directly with another person, instead using a third person to relay communication to the second, thus forming a triangle.

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113
Q

adaption

A

the ability of a system to adapt to change

114
Q

entropy

A

the quantitative measure of disorder or randomness in a system (opposite of adaptation)

115
Q

organizational structure of agency example

A

Clients assigned to the most appropriate personnel (needs and skillsets) vs based only on caseloads = organizational structure is the aspect of the agency the person is focused on = involves staff roles and responsibilities including the process by which case assignments are based

116
Q

organizational structure

A

Organizational structure defines how tasks are divided, grouped, and coordinated in organizations.

117
Q

ambivalent client

A

First validate client concerns before confronting resistance, advocating for change, or exploring the client’s values

118
Q

impaired colleagues

A

talk to that person directly first and assist w/ remedial action if appropriate (talk to them first before informing supervisor, reporting to the SW board; observing and collecting further data doesn’t account for potential immediate harm to clients)

119
Q

Empowerment is most strongly associated with

A

policy and socioeconomic change

120
Q

motivational interviewing

A

a form of strengths-based counseling originally developed by Miller and Rollnick with the aim of helping people to change. Miller and Rollnick defined motivational interviewing as “a collaborative, person-centered form of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for change”

121
Q

empowerment definition

A

Empowerment can be defined in general as the capacity of individuals, groups and/or communities gain control of their circumstances and achieve their own goals, thereby being able to work towards helping themselves and others to maximise the quality of their lives.

122
Q

coalition building definition

A

Coalition building is an art. … When members share responsibility, goals, decisions, and leadership and energetically and enthusiastically work toward a common goal, the coalition has the potential for great success.

123
Q

more closely associated with organizational growth, not community-level actions

A

coalition building, networking, and program development

empowerment the opposite

124
Q

first step in social action

A

Organizing a task force (drugs and gangs in a community) is the first step in social action

125
Q

task forces

A

involves those affected in addressing the issue and promoting solutions

126
Q

Documenting topics discussed in supervision

A

reduces liability resulting from acts or omissions by supervisees - provides evidence of topics discussed and actions recommended

127
Q

Evaluating for a history of sexual abuse as - best action to determine the most appropriate treatment option

A

client who reports a lack of desire for sexual relationship, dissociation during intercourse, violent nightmares, and suicidal thoughts

128
Q

Potential auditory hallucinations and paranoid thinking, SW should

A

assess the client’s mental health with a mental status exam

129
Q

consultation definition

A

Approaching a colleague in the community for structured advice on limited experience w/ particular issue

Defined as an interactional helping process used to achieve a work-related objective through an interpersonal relationship, consultation has been conceptualized as an indirect service like social-work supervision, in which someone with more knowledge and experience helps someone

130
Q

supervision definition

A

Supervision is the relationship between the supervisor and the supervisee that promotes the development of responsibility, skill, knowledge, attitudes, and ethical standards in the practice of clinical social work

131
Q

Cultural competence definition

A

social workers to examine their own cultural backgrounds and identities to increase awareness of personal assumptions, values, stereotypes, and biases.

132
Q

critical incident debriefing

A

A debriefing is a structured group process that responds to the cognitive, emotional, physical and social reactions resulting from disasters and other traumatic events.

133
Q

audit trail

A

simply records kept of how qualitative studies are conducted. The audit trail should include all field notes and any other records kept of what the inquirer does, sees, hears, thinks, etc

research audit trail in improving the trustworthiness of qualitative research.
The audit trail enables the researcher to reconstruct the steps of the study and later provide justification for any changes that took place

134
Q

partializing

A

breaking down issues into manageable components that would facilitate further discussion/problem-solving

Help client gain better understanding of individual elements of decision to run away

135
Q

confrontation

A

A skill that enables the social worker to point out message discrepancies to the client. Confrontation should be non-adversarial. It should only be undertaken when the social worker and client have a therapeutic relationship and trust has been established.

136
Q

exception exploration

A

involves asking the client the Exception Question, that is, inviting them to consider and talk about a time when their problem is or was less severe and dealt with in a satisfactory way

Exception finding is a signature tool of the solution-focused approach.

137
Q

Child endangering sibling

A

should tell parents - duty to warn of potential harm (reporting to authorities would be inappropriate as no harm has occurred)

138
Q

develop a behavioral program to enhance medication compliance

A

Chronically mentally ill patient is not taking meds (doesn’t have active psychosis)

this approach is the most likely to help the client achieve long-term optimal functioning is medication compliance, beh program will assist client in doing this (it better honors self-determination and is less restrictive than involving a visiting nurse; day treatment or long term hospitalization don’t help the client achieve long-term optimal fuctioning)

139
Q

Contracting phase of intervention

A

includes goals and objectives

140
Q

lithium

A

bipolar 1 (mood stabilizer)

141
Q

explore role of religion

A

Start where the client is exploring role of religion is part of the assessment process; promote self-determination

142
Q

electronically transferring records

A

SW has ethical responsibility to ensure that clients understand the risks and limits of privacy when electronically transferring records - provide client w/ agency privacy policy when beginning work with a client that includes electronic transfer of records; mailing copy is not required`

143
Q

supportive approach style when

A

Early intervention stage w/ client who is acutely depressed

Nature of depression “contraindicates” emotive, directive, or motivational approaches

144
Q

emotive approach

A

Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT), previously called rational therapy and rational emotive therapy, is an active-directive, philosophically and empirically based psychotherapy, the aim of which is to resolve emotional and behavioral problems and disturbances and to help people to lead happier and more fulfilling …

145
Q

directive approach

A

Directive therapy, a psychotherapeutic approach in which the psychotherapist directs the course of therapy by intervening to ask questions and offer interpretations. For example, rational emotive behavior therapy.

Nondirective therapy, a psychotherapeutic approach in which the psychotherapist refrains from giving advice or interpretation as the client is helped to identify conflicts and to clarify and understand feelings and values. For example, client-centered therapy.

146
Q

contemplation stage of model of change

A

committed to change, recognizes triggers, not yet determined action steps

147
Q

Transtheoretical model of change and stages

A

precontemplation, contemplation, maintenance, termination

148
Q

Schizophrenia has (so)

A

information processing deficits

Schedule a variety of brief activities for a structured group treatment

149
Q

Panic disorder symptoms include

A

shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, fear of losing control

150
Q

first step of ethical problem sovling

A

determine whether ethical values are in conflict

151
Q

SW who is overwhelmed should

A

first seek supervision

152
Q

define countertransference

A

the reaction to a client’s transference, in which the counselor projects his or her feelings unconsciously onto the client

Countertransference, which occurs when a therapist transfers emotions to a person in therapy, is often a reaction to transference, a phenomenon in which the person in treatment redirects feelings for others onto the therapist.

countertransference as a largely unconscious phenomenon in which the psychologist’s emotions are influenced by a person in therapy, and the psychologist reacts with countertransference.

153
Q

define transference

A

the concept of a client redirect feelings meant for others onto the therapist

154
Q

increase assertiveness through

A

education/improve skill level (difficulty setting limits w/ clients)

155
Q

right to refuse services

A

remember to respect this right first

156
Q

evaluating institutionalized racism in an agency

A

first analyze the agency’s policies and procedures - important to understand agency practices first

157
Q

abuse dynamics

A

identification w/ abuser

158
Q

Most practical research design for completing an agency program evaluation

A

quasi-experimental

159
Q

quasi-experimental design

A

no random assignment

control group and comparison group

160
Q

correlational design

A

assess relationships among naturally occurring variables (preferences and age/sex/race)

161
Q

single subject design

A

baseline and intervention

162
Q

qualitative design

A

examples of qualitative research designs include:
phenomenology - meanings constructed thru interpretation of interviews
case studies
grounded theory = model explains phenomena of interest based on experiences of participants
ethnography - understand complex phenomena thru direct immersion and interaction within specific setting/group

163
Q

developmental need of intimacy

A

primary task of adolescence - watch for predators

164
Q

Teenage adolescent has abandoned cultural customs and refuses to speak native language

A

assimilation
Cultural assimilation is the process by which a person or a group’s language and/or culture come to resemble those of another group.

165
Q

cultural integration

A

Cultural integration is a form of cultural exchange in which one group assumes the beliefs, practices and rituals of another group without sacrificing the characteristics of its own culture.

166
Q

cultural separation

A

Separation occurs when individuals reject the dominant or host culture in favor of preserving their culture of origin. Separation is often facilitated by immigration to ethnic enclaves.

167
Q

cultural marginalization

A

Marginalization occurs when individuals reject both their culture of origin and the dominant host culture.

168
Q

more types of research designs

A

Descriptives (e.g., case-study, naturalistic observation, survey)
Correlational (e.g., case-control study, observational study)
experimental (e.g., field experiment)
Experimental (experiment with random assignment)(quasi-experiment)
Review (literature review, systematic review)
Meta-analytic (meta-analysis)

169
Q

research duration of measurement phases

A

Cohort study

Cross-sectional study: type of observational study that analyzes data from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time—that is, cross-sectional data.

Cross-sequential study:
type of observational study that analyzes data from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time—that is, cross-sectional data.
the researcher chooses a smaller time window (e.g. 20 years) to study multiple individuals of different starting ages

Longitudinal study

170
Q

activities of engaging clients

A

exploring client’s perception of problem, reducing anxiety, and clarifying available services; (considering options for problem resolution are not parts of beginning phase of treatment)

171
Q

Structural family framework considers

A

roles/functions of family members

172
Q

solution focused framework

A

emphasizes problem solving thru analyzing times when behavior is not problematic

173
Q

psychoanalysis

A

a system of psychological theory and therapy which aims to treat mental disorders by investigating the interaction of conscious and unconscious elements in the mind and bringing repressed fears and conflicts into the conscious mind by techniques such as dream interpretation and free association.

174
Q

Self psychology

A

the effort is made to understand individuals from within their subjective experience via vicarious introspection, basing interpretations on the understanding of the self as the central agency of the human psyche.[1] Essential to understanding self psychology are the concepts of empathy, selfobject, mirroring, idealising, alter ego/twinship and the tripolar self. Though self psychology also recognizes certain drives, conflicts, and complexes present in Freudian psychodynamic theory, these are understood within a different framework. Self psychology was seen as a major break from traditional psychoanalysis and is considered the beginnings of the relational approach to psychoanalysis.

175
Q

AA’s approach

A

alcoholism is disease

176
Q

disease theory of addiction

A

The disease theory of addiction identifies drug-seeking behavior as compulsive rather than a conscious choice due to chemical changes in the brain that happen with regular substance abuse. NIDA compares addiction to other medical diseases, such as heart disease and diabetes.`

177
Q

psychodynamic theory of addiction

A

addiction is basically a disorder of self-regulation.

178
Q

behavioral social learning theory of addiction

A

According to social learning theory, our observations of other people engaging in addictive behavior can lead to the development of addiction. When we observe the behavior and reactions of other people using addictive substances (or activities) we may wish to repeat what we saw.

179
Q

biopsychosocial theory of addiction

A

posits that intersecting biological, psycho-social and systemic properties are fundamental features of health and illness.

180
Q

Clients have a right to make choices

A

so the SW should ensure the client understands the consequences of the choice (court mandated services)

181
Q

Egocentrism

A

child doesn’t understand things from others’ viewpoints

182
Q

syllogistic reasoning

A

process of deduction (older developmental stage)

two statements are made and a logical conclusion is drawn from them

183
Q

Reversibility

A

the ability to recognize that numbers or objects can be changed and returned to their original condition (age 7-12, operational)

184
Q

conservation

A

the child understands that changing the form of a substance or object does not change its amount, overall volume, or mass. This accomplishment occurs during the operational stage of development between ages 7 and 11

185
Q

approach to community intervention that is most closely identified with social planning

A

Fostering a shared sense of common needs/concerns

186
Q

Focused efforts on a common macro issue

A

policy advocacy, political activism, and social movements

187
Q

policy advocacy

A

active, covert, or inadvertent support of a particular policy or class of policies. Whether it is proper for scientists and other technical experts to act as advocates for their personal policy preferences is contentious

188
Q

social movements

A

They are large, sometimes informal, groupings of individuals or organizations which focus on specific political or social issues. In other words, they carry out, resist, or undo a social change.

189
Q

Care coordination model

A

link client to needed programs, then determine if the services received have been effective (other aspects include having a list of referral programs, reexamining the client’s resources, and discharging the client)

190
Q

Always focus first on the client, not the

A

problematic family members

191
Q

clarifying

A

SW helps client define/express feelings

192
Q

summarizing

A

social worker to pull together key ideas and themes regarding the most important aspects of the client’s problems, and also provides focus and continuity to the interview.Both the content and the feeling of the client’s message are incorporated into the social worker’s response

193
Q

reflecting

A

The social worker uses reflection of feeling to restate and explore the client’s affective (feeling) messages. The response may capture both feeling and content, but the emphasis is on feelings. You validate the client by conveying accurately an understanding of the client’s feelings.

194
Q

reframing

A

help families (and individuals) understand a symptom or pattern of behavior by seeing it in a different context

195
Q

Culturagram

A

assessment shows impact of heritage and belief systems on a family’s interactions

196
Q

family history collection

A

Gathering family histories should happen during the initial visit w/ the patient; history gathering should occur as early as possible to gain a broad understanding of the elements impacting clients; should happen prior to (SW) meeting w/ physician

197
Q

a client has case management for several service sources

A

Have periodic case review conferences

198
Q

enabling

A

behaviors include deny/minimize behavior of addict, support his explanations/excuses

199
Q

Elderly client is driving less

A

could decrease social contacts/fewer socialization opportunities

200
Q

Ombudsperson

A

ensures the home health service agency’s obligations and ethical duties are being fulfilled and its rules followed
Ombudsman definition, a government official who hears and investigates complaints by private citizens against other officials or government agencies.
ombudsperson, ombud, or public advocate is an official who is charged with representing the interests of the public by investigating and addressing complaints of mal-administration or a violation of rights.

201
Q

paraprofessional

A

a person to whom a particular aspect of a professional task is delegated but who is not licensed to practice as a fully qualified professional.

202
Q

care planning

A

assessing an individual’s health, social risks and needs to determine the level and type of support required to meet those needs and objectives, and to achieve potential outcomes

203
Q

interpersonal theory

A

. the theory of personality developed by Harry Stack Sullivan , which is based on the belief that people’s interactions with other people, especially significant others, determine their sense of security, sense of self, and the dynamisms that motivate their behavior.

204
Q

stages of ego development

A 
Jane Loevinger
2	Stages
2.1	Impulsive (E2)
2.2	Self-Protective (E3)
2.3	Conformist (E4)
2.4	Self-Aware (E5)
2.5	Conscientious (E6)
2.6	Individualistic (E7)
2.7	Autonomous (E8)
2.8	Integrated (E9)
2.9	Possible tenth stag
205
Q

Sharing leadership in group

A

effective in group - promotes positive group dynamics (supports client’s skill development as well)

206
Q

when to discuss termination of group

A

termination discussed at first session for brief groups - clarify expectations and time frames

207
Q

The three main factors affecting a team’s cohesion (working together well) are:

A

environmental, personal and leadership.

208
Q

Stages of Team Formation

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, and Performing (mourning)

209
Q

group norms

A

Prescriptive Norms: the socially appropriate way to respond in a social situation, or what group members are supposed to do (e.g. saying thank you after someone does a favour for you)
Proscriptive Norms: actions that group members should not do; prohibitive (e.g. not belching in public)
Descriptive Norms: describe what people usually do (e.g. clapping after a speech)
Injunctive Norms: describe behaviours that people ought to do; more evaluative in nature than a descriptive norm

210
Q

program evaluation: impact eval

A

question of causality, intended effects

211
Q

program evaluation: performance monitoring

A

key aspects of how system is operating and which objectives are attained

212
Q

program evaluation: process eval

A

how program operates and procedures/activities in service delivery (find problems, overcome them)

213
Q

program evaluation: logic model

A

simplified description of the program, the intended outputs, and the intended outcomes. Program characteristics include the population to be reached, the resources to be used, and identification of the types and levels of service elements. Outputs are immediate program products resulting from the internal operations of the program

214
Q

policy analysis steps

A 
1 define problem
2 determine eval criteria
3 identify alternative policies
4 evaluate the policies
5 select preferred policy
6 implement it
215
Q

safety plan template (suicide prevention model)

A 
1 warning signs of crisis
2 internal coping strategies
3 people/settings that provide distraction
4 people to ask for help
5 professionals/agencies to contact
6 making the environment safe 
7 one thing important to live for
216
Q

motion to quash

A

legal procedure to block/modify a subpoena

217
Q

subpoenas

A

if client gives permission, SW gives info; SW could say client info is confidential and cannot be released w/out written client authorizaton (no client consent or client unavailable); if client did not give consent, SW should suggest the client’s lawyer files a motion to quash

218
Q

child welfare emergency placements

A

Each state has its own guidelines with varying definitions of emergency foster care, but typically a temporary placement lasts between 72 hours and 30 days.

219
Q

sex differences in addiction

A

women may experience more pleasurable responses to drugs than men;
more likely to self medicate than men (men want to engage in risky behaviors to be part of a group);
women escalate more quickly;
side effects of drug use are greater for women;
women have increased negative affect during withdrawal and experience greater stress response;
women relapse more often and sporadically (men have longer periods of abstinence)

220
Q

Common symptoms for paranoid schizophrenia

A

include auditory hallucinations (hearing voices or sound effects) and paranoid delusions (believing everyone is out to cause the sufferer harm). … A delusion is a belief that is held strongly even when the evidence shows otherwise.

221
Q

noncitizen public assistance

A

LPRs with a substantial work history (defined as 40 quarters of Social Security covered earnings)
or military connection are eligible for the full range of programs, as are asylees, refugees, and
other humanitarian cases (for at least five to seven years after entry)

222
Q

power and control wheel - abuse dynamics

A

coercion and threats, intimidation, emotional A, economic A, isolation, using children, male/female roles, minimize/blame/deny

223
Q

intervention stages basics

A

engage, assess, plan, intervene, evaluate, terminate

224
Q

gay identity development

A 
1 identity awareness/confusion
2 ID comparison
3ID tolerance
4 ID acceptance
5 ID Pride
ID synthesis
225
Q

transtheoretical model of change stages

A 
precontemplation = no
contemplation = maybe
preparation = prepare/plan
action = do
maintenance = keep going
226
Q

ethical decision making model steps

A

1 assess situation from multiple perspectives/issues
2 determine issues that create the ethical problem
3 consider alternatives and weight their pros/cons
4 consult w/ colleagues/experts
5 review alternatives w/ client and document
6 implement best alternative
7 monitor/evaluate/document

227
Q

cycle of abuse

A

1 tension building
2 incident
3 reconciliation
4 calm

228
Q

Involuntary commitment

A

Involuntary commitment involves the protection and safety of the client - at high risk for suicide

legal process through which an individual who is deemed by a qualified agent to have symptoms of severe mental disorder is ordered by a court into treatment in a psychiatric hospital (inpatient) or in the community (outpatient).

Criteria for civil commitment are established by laws which vary between nations. Commitment proceedings often follow a period of emergency hospitalization, during which an individual with acute psychiatric symptoms is confined for a relatively short duration (e.g. 72 hours) in a treatment facility for evaluation and stabilization by mental health professionals who may then determine whether further civil commitment is appropriate or necessary.

229
Q

drugs to treat mental illness:

depression

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) (prozac, zoloft)
Selective serotonin & norepinephrine inhibitors (SNRIs) (cymbalta)
Older tricyclic antidepressants
Drugs that are thought to affect mainly dopamine and norepinephrine such as bupropion (Wellbutrin).
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

230
Q

drugs to treat mental illness:

depression continued

A

In some cases, a combination of antidepressants sometimes called augmentation, may be necessary. Sometimes an antidepressant combined with a different type of drug, such as a mood stabilizer (like Lithium), a second antidepressant, or atypical anti-psychotic drug, is the most effective treatment.

231
Q

drugs to treat mental illness:

anxiety

A

Antidepressants, particularly the SSRIs, may also be effective in treating many types of anxiety disorders.
Other anti-anxiety medications include the benzodiazepines, such as alprazolam (Xanax), clonazepam (Klonopin), diazepam (Valium), and lorazepam (Ativan). These drugs carry a risk of addiction, so they are not as desirable for long-term use

232
Q

drugs to treat mental illness: psychotic disorders

A

Antipsychotics are a class of drugs
sometimes to treat mood disorders such as bipolar disorder or major depression.
Newer antipsychotic drugs include:

Aripiprazole (Abilify)
Asenapine (Saphris)
Cariprazine (Vraylar)
Clozapine (Clozaril)
Lurasidone (Latuda)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Questiapine (Seroquel)
Risperidone (Risperdal)
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
233
Q

drugs to treat mental illness:

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

A

The most commonly used stimulants include amphetamine salt combo (Adderall, Adderall XR), mettttthylphenidate (Daytrana), dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine), lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse), and methylphenidate (Concerta, Quillivant XR, Ritalin). Recently, the FDA approved a once a day treatment of mixed salts of a single-entity amphetamine product called dextroamphetamine-amphetamine (Mydayis).

A class of drugs, called alpha agonists, are nonstiumulant medicines that are also sometimes used to treat ADHD. Examples include clonidine (Catapres) and guanfacine (Intuniv).
Atomoxetine (Strattera) also has FDA-approval for the treatment of ADHD. It is a non-stimulant more similar to the SNRI antidepressants.
The antidepressant drug, buproprion (Wellbutrin) is also used to treat ADHD at times.

234
Q

SW theories: systems theory

A

• People are not isolated individuals but operate as part of wider networks or “systems”

235
Q

SW theories: ecological approach

A

Ecological Approach • Germain and Gitterman – “Life model” (1980 / 1996) -people are interdependent with each other and their environment – each influences the other over time.
• People move through their own unique life course and may encounter “stressors” – some of which may make them feel they cannot cope.
• People employ coping mechanisms and draw on resources in the environment, social networks and inner resources. • Acknowledgement of interrelationship between person and environment.
• Consideration of a range of resources to support people – both internal and external. • As above.

236
Q

SW theories: task centered approach

A
  • Brief work within explicit time limits
  • Collaborative approach between worker and service user – based on a contract.
  • Systematic work
  • Includes some behavioural ideas but mainly a cognitive approach
  • Usual to take action to get what you want
  • Action guided by beliefs about self and world
  • Time-limits help motivate service users
  • People may “get stuck” if they have to deal with a certain issue over and over
237
Q

SW theories: crisis intervention

A
  • Brief intervention – deals with immediate issues rather than longer term problems
  • Based on ego-psychology and cognitive-behavioural models – serious events have an impact on the way people think about themselves and their emotional reactions
  • Assumes we live in “steady state” – able to cope with change
  • Crises upset the steady state and provide opportunity to improve skills / risk of failure
  • Crises can reawaken unresolved issues from the past but offer a chance to correct non-adjustment to past events.
238
Q

SW theories: Cognitive-behavioural approach / Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

A
  • Rather than being an “insight based therapy” it uses techniques from behaviourism, social learning theory and cognitive theory.
  • Based on the assumption that our thoughts, beliefs, images and attitudes influence our behaviour and if these are changed, our behaviour will change.
  • “Self-talk” reinforces irrational thinking.
  • Involves identifying and reframing unhelpful beliefs. Worker teaches service user to challenge own beliefs.
  • Can involve modifying behaviour using a system of rewards.
  • Use of ABC system – activating event – belief – consequence
239
Q

SW theories: Solution-Focused Approach

A
  • Cognitive approach
  • Focus on understanding solutions rather than on problems
  • Post-modern therapy based on theories of language and meaning.
  • Uses knowledge of service users
  • Avoids diagnostic labelling – considers this disempowering
  • Focus on difference and exceptions
  • Person is not the problem
  • Assessment based on strengths not deficits
  • Talking can construct experience
240
Q

SW theories: Person Centred Approach

A

Person Centred Approach
(nb different to Person-Centred Care) • Based on the work of Carl Rogers
• Sets out the principles of empathy, congruence and unconditional positive regard as necessary in the helping relationship.
• Non-directive approach
• Based on the idea that everyone has the capacity to develop and grow.

241
Q

SW theories: Psychosocial Model

A
  • Based on the idea that people have inner worlds and outer realities.
  • Certain events remind us of past events we have tried to block out.
  • Events can take on greater emotional significance.
  • People develop in a series of stages and “faulty personality development” in childhood can affect our responses later in life.
  • Considers “defense mechanisms” we deploy to protect the ego.
242
Q

SW theories: recovery model

A
  • Model used in Mental Health services which emphasises recovery rather than illness.
  • Recovery does not necessarily mean being “symptom-free” but regaining a sense of control and purpose
  • Not being defined by a label or diagnosis.
  • Recognises strengths of the individual
243
Q

SW theories: narrative approcah

A
  • SW encourages the person to describe their life in their own words.
  • Opportunity to tell their story, an in the process define identity.
  • SW can support the person to feel in control of the narrative and draw their attention to the possibility of a different narrative for the future
244
Q

DSM5: neurodevelopmental disorders

A

intellectual disabilities; communication disorders; autism, ADHD, specific learning disorder, motor disorders, tic disorders,

245
Q

DSM5: schizophrenia spectrum and psychotic disorders

A

scizotypal (personality) disorder, delusional disorder, schizophreniform disorder, schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder

246
Q

schizotypal (personality) disorder

A

social/interpersonal deficits, acute discomfort and reduced capacity for close relationships; distorions and eccentricities of behavior (delusions, odd beliefs, weird perceptions)

247
Q

schizophreniform disorder

A

delusions/hallucinations/disorganized speech 1-6 month episodes

248
Q

schizophrenia

A

delusions/hallucinations/disorganized speech
level of functioning impacted
continuous signs of disturbance persist 6 months

249
Q

schizoaffective disorder

A

major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent w/ criteria A for schizphrenia

250
Q

DSM5: bipolar

A

BP1, BP2, cyclothymic

251
Q

Bipolar 1

A

must meet criteria for manic episode; major depressive episodes may occur

252
Q

Bipolar 2

A

current/past hypomanic episode and current/past major depresive episode (never been a manic episode – hypo is shorter, not severe enough to impair, psychotic features are manic)

253
Q

DSM5: depressive disorders

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

254
Q

DSM5: anxiety disorders

A

separation anxiety, selective mutism, specific phobia, social anxiety disorder/social phobia, panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder

255
Q

DSM5: obsessive-compulsive

A

OCD, body dysmorphic diosrder, hoarding, trichotillomania (hair pulling) excoriation (skin picking)

256
Q

DSM5: trauma and stressor related disorders

A

reactive attachment, disinhibited social engagement disorder, PTSD, acute stress disorder, adjustment disorders

257
Q

DSM5: dissociative disorders

A

dissociative ID disorder, dissociative amnesia, depersonalization/derealization disorder

258
Q

DSM5: somatic symptom and related

A

somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder, conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder) , factitious disorder (self, another)

259
Q

DSM5: feeding/eating

A

pica, rumination disorder, anorexia, bulimia, binge eating

260
Q

DSM5: elimination

A

enuresis, encopresisis

261
Q

DSM5: sleep-wake disorders

A

insomnia, hypersomnolence, narcolepsy; breathing-related: obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea, central sleep apnea, sleep related hypoventilation, ciccadian rhythm sleep wake disorders; parasomnias: non rapid eye movement sleep arousal (slepwalking, sleep terror), nightmare disorder, RLS,

262
Q

DSM5: sexual dysfunctions

A

delayed/premature ejaculation, erectile disorder, female orgasmic disorder,

263
Q

DSM5: gender dysphoria

A

(posttransition)

264
Q

DSM5: disruptive, impulse control, conduct disorders

A

ODD, conduct, antisocial personality disorder, pyromania, kleptomania

265
Q

DSM5: substance related/addictive

A

each w/ use disorder, intoxication, withdrawal

alcohol, caffeine, cannabis, hallucinogen, inhalant, opioid, sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic, stimulant, tobacco, other; gambling

266
Q

DSM5: neurocognitive disorders

A

delirium, major/mild neurocognitive disorders (Alzheimers; lewy bodies; vascular; HIV, prion disease, parkinsons, huntingtons)

267
Q

DSM5: paraphilic disorders

A

voyeuristic, exhibitionistic, mascchism, sadism, pedophilic, fetishistic, transvestic

268
Q

DSM5 personality disorders cluster A

A

paranoid
schizoid
schizotypal personality disorders

269
Q

DSM5 personality disorders cluster B

A

antisocial
borderline
histrionic
narcissistic personality disorders

270
Q

DSM5 personality disorders cluster C

A

avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive personality disorders

271
Q

paranoid personality disorder

A

pattern of distrust/suspiciousness - others motives are malevolent

272
Q

schizoid personality disorder

A

pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression

273
Q

schizotypal personality disorder

A

acute discomfort in close relationships, distortions, eccentric behavior

274
Q

antisocial personality disorder

A

disregard/violation of rights of others

275
Q

borderline personality disorder

A

instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, affects, impulsivity

276
Q

histrionic personality disorder

A

excessive emotionality and attention seeking

277
Q

narcissistic personality disorder

A

gradiosity, need for admiration, lack of empathy

278
Q

avoidant personality disorder

A

social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, hypersensitivity to negative evaluation

279
Q

dependent personality disorder

A

submissing, clinging behavior, excessive need to be taken care of

280
Q

obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A

pattern of preoccupation w/ orderliness, perfectionism, control

LSW exam (1 decks)

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