LS Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Explain Kelley’s Two-Dimensional Model of Follower Behavior

Answer

A

Two axes:

Dependent, Uncritical <—> Independent / Critical Thinking
Passive <—> Active

Sheep

“Passive follower”
Passive/dependent, uncritical thinking
Lack initiative
Do not play an active role
Simply comply with any order given

Yes People

“Conformist follower”
Active/Dependent, Uncritical Thinking
Readily Carry Out Orders Uncritically
- Dangerous if orders contradict standards
- Ex. Person who always says what he thinks leaders want to hear

Survivors

“They don’t do anything but you can’t tell”
Right in the middle
Rarely committed to work/group goals
Does just enough to get by
Mediocre performers clogging the arteries of an organization
Example: “ROAD” (Retired On Active Duty)

Alienated Follower

“They will whine and gripe but never contribute to the work”
“They know it all but don’t do anything”
Passive/independent, critical thinking
Festering wounds in an organization
Criticize, but never offer constructive support

Effective Followers

Active/independent, critical thinking
Problem solvers
Can work with others
Reflect on goals of the organization
Not hesitant to bring concerns to leader

Question 2

Q

Identify the characteristics of the effective follower

Answer

A

Exemplify AF Core Values
Decision Making
- Sound thought processes
- Achievement through teamwork
Communication Skills
- Listening ability
- Reading comprehension
- Tactful feedback
Commitment
- Displays loyalty
- Fully supportive of the mission and leadership
- Willing to go the “extra mile”
Problem Solving
- Wants to be challenged
- Desires responsibility
Organizational Understanding
- Can see the big picture
- Understands importance of their job
Flexibility
- Can adapt and overcome
- Remains calm during new challenges
Competence
- Never stops learning
- Actions speak louder than words
- Not afraid to share information
Courage
- Stands up for what’s right
- Knows when to speak
- Knows when to be quiet
Enthusiasm
- Passion and Excitement
- Positive Attitude

Question 3

Q

State the purpose of the ACA

Answer

A

Airman Comprehensive Assessment

Used to document effectiveness/ duty performance.

Question 4

Q

Identify which Airmen are required to receive an ACA

Answer

A

Initial:

Within 60 days of being assigned a rater
Sets “ground rules”
Colonel and below
All enlisted
So everybody except generals get rated

Midterm:

Midway between the time supervision began and the projected performance report
AB through SMSgt
2d Lt through Lt Col
Have to give them to everyone but Chiefs and Colonels

End of Reporting Period / Follow-up

Occurs in conjunction with the close out of a performance report
AB through TSgt
2d Lt through Captain
So Junior enlisted and company grade

Ratee Requested ACA

Comes in and asks you
Within 30 days of request, if at least 60 days have passed since last session
You are required

Rater Directed

Good or bad feedback
Anytime rater deems necessary

Question 5

Q

State when ACA sessions are held for each rank

Answer

A

AB - TSgt: Initial, Midterm, End of Reporting Period
MSgt - SMSgt: Initial, Midterm
CMSgt: Initial
2d Lt - Capt: Initial, Midterm, End of Reporting Period
Maj - Lt Col: Initial, Midterm
Col: Initial

Question 6

Q

Describe the sources of rater errors

Answer

A

Rating performance as “outstanding” when it is not
- Don’t want to hurt feelings
- More lenient when facing ratee
- Applying low personal standards
- Don’t want to impact career
- Middle range is where several should be
Halo / horns
People liked / disliked
Limited observation and poor recall
Stereotypes
Overlook improvement on past performance
Judged on most recent experiences rather than performance during the entire period
- E.g. skimmed cat, or chili cookoff winner

Question 7

Q

Identify the ways to avoid rater errors

Answer

A

Exhibit the right attitude; remember the goal is to develop the individual
Learn and practice good observation skills
Gather and report supporting information
- Discriminate between relevant and irrelevant information
- Doing selective work sampling when direct observation is infrequent

Question 8

Q

State the purpose of Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR)

Answer

A

Provides an official record of performance as viewed by officials in the rating chain who are closest to the actual work environment (AFI 36-2406)

Question 9

Q

Identify who is required to receive an EPR

Answer

A

All enlisted members SrA thru CMSgt
A1C and below if they have 20 months or more of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)

Question 10

Q

Identify when an EPR is required

Answer

A

Annually if no changes during reporting cycle
After a change during the reporting cycle when there has been 120 days or more of supervision (change in reporting official, PCS, and PCA)

Question 11

Q

Describe the promotion methods for enlisted personnel

Answer

A

Enlisted Career Progression System

High/ Low Year Tenure (HYT)

E-4 (SrA): 8 yrs of service
E-5 SSgt: 15/ 3
E-6 TSgt: 20 / 5
E-7 MSgt: 24/ 8
E-8 SMSgt: 26 /11
E-9 CMSgt: 30 / 14

Enlisted Promotion System “Fully Qualified”

Going from E-1 to E-4
It is an auto-promote. Put stripes on based on time
All must meet time in grade requirements
E-4 senior airman – must receive skill level

Enlisted Promotion System “Weighted Airman Promotion System” (WAPS) E5-E7

Max Pts
Enlisted Performance Reports Points (EPRs): 135
Specialty Knowledge Test (SKT): 100
Professional Development Guide (PDG) Test: 100
Time in Service (TIS): 40
Time in Grade (TIG): 60
Decorations: 25
Total points Possible: 460
So because everyone gets 135 on EPR, it boils down to the test
Only top % will get promoted. So even people with 100s don’t get reported.

Enlisted Promotion System “Stripes for Exceptional Performers” (STEP)

E-5 SSgt through E7 (MSgt)
- For those infidivual pertormance and not poor test taking skill.
- Put together a package
- Very rare option

Enlisted Promotion System “Whole Person Concept”

E-8 SMSgt thorugh E9 CMSgt

Senior NCO Promotion “Whole Person Concept”

EPR points: 135

Supervisory exam: 100

Time in service TIS: 25

Time in grade TIG: 60

Decorations: 25

Central Board score: 450

Total possible points: 795

Question 12

Q

State an officer’s responsibilities to subordinates in the career progression system

Answer

A

Career development counseling
Seek out additional duties
Provide time for self-development
Correct deficiencies
Recognize outststanding contributions and achievements

Question 13

Q

Describe the different types of performance reports and uses for each

Answer

A

Officer Performance Report, AF Form 707

Records an officer’s performance over a specific period
Make up the cumulative record of performance.
Weigh heavily both in promotion board’s deliberations and in the senior rater’s recommendation for promotion.
Brief description of unit mission, job description, & short narrative to document most significant achievements and impact on the unit mission.
Several factors rated: “Meets Standards” / “Does Not Meet Standards.”

Education / Training Report, AF Form 475

Used for training of 8 weeks or more (typically)
Filed under completion, interruption, or elimination from training
(goes in official records)

Letter of Evaluation, AF Form 77

Used when ratee is away from reporting official
CRO with less than 120 days supervision
Under the supervision of someone other than your supervisor
Provides input to rater

Question 14

Q

State when performance reports are prepared

Question 15

Q

Identify inappropriate comments for performance reports

Answer

A

Charges/ investigations not completed
Acquittals
Recommendations for decorations (awardS)
Race, gender, age, religion, etc. of ratee
Drug / alcohol abuse rehabilitation programs
Previous ratings or reports (whatever happened in the previous years stays out)
Developmental education (completion or enrollment) (recommend)
Advanced academic education
Promotion recommendations
Advanced academic education (already included on SRF “surf”)
Promotion recommendations

Question 16

Q

Describe “best” qualified and “fully” qualified promotions for officer personnel

Answer

A

Officer Promotion System

Desired objectives for promotion (line officers)
O-2: 2 years
O-3: 4 years
O-4: 9-11 years
O-5: 15-17
O-6: 21-23

Fully Qualified Method

Method used for promoting line officers to O-1 through O-3 and non-line officers O-1 through O-3
Auto promote
Key attribute: (auto promote?)

Best Qualified Method

Method used by HQ USAF promotion boards when considering line officer promotions to O-4 through O-6 and non-line officer promotions to O-4 through O-6
Key attribute: this method is highly competitive. All personnel will not be promoted

Question 17

Q

Identify the five rules of supervision

Answer

A

Get Involved
- Know your people
- Get out from behind your desk
- Show interest
- Don’t be over-involved
- Sense of Mission
- Have a plan
- Share your vision
Open channels of communication
- Encourage discussion
- Two-way comm
- Open door policy
- Active listener
- Resolve conflict
- Listen
- Remain in control
Give your people a chance to develop
- Be aware of requirements and limitations
- Match the people to work
- Determine their experience
- Education and training
- PME, Degrees, TDY
- Encourage task rotations
- Be Flexible
- Welcome change
Establish Standards and Stick to them
- Air Force Standards
- Personal Standards
- Enforce Those Standards
- Excellence Begins with You
- Don’t be satisfied with satisfactory
Provide Feedback
- Constructive criticism
- Focus on job behaviors
- Praise in public and discipline in private
- Sometimes you have to go off on people to set an example. E.g. safety
- Don’t be afraid to approach them
- Ask for their views/opinions

Question 18

Q

Identify tasks that shouldn’t be delegated

Answer

A

Conceptual planning
Morale problems
Staff problems
Reviewing performance reports / Finalizing performance reports
Pet projects

Question 19

Q

Identify common mistakes made by supervisors while delegating

Answer

A

Unclear delegation
Supervising too closely (micromanaging)
Rushed delegation
Improper selection of subordinates

Question 20

Q

Explain the four steps in delegation

Answer

A

Define the task

Is task suitable for delegation?
Qualified personnel

Assign the task

Choose the right person.
Clear and understood

Grant authority

Decide the amount of power to give.
(Only) Enough power to do the task

Follow-up

Give feedback.

Question 21

Q

Define corrective supervision

Answer

A

The process a leader uses to promote individual behavior changes in a work situation

Question 22

Q

Explain the steps of the Intervention Process Model

Answer

A

Make a considered decision to intervene
- Identify what needs to be corrected
- Decide if supervisory intervention is appropriate
  - Subordinate does assigned work –> leader need not intervene
  - Subordinate doesn’t do assigned work –> leader considers intervention
    1. Cannot do
    2. Will not do
    3. Does not know how to do
Use supportive and assertive interaction skills
- Avoid defense-producing techniques
  - Threatening climate v supportive climate
  - (you can use a threatening environment but you’ll usually use supportive)
- Correct without disrespect
  - Assertive v aggressive
  - Assertive is more effective than aggressive. (give reason why you are correcting)
- Select appropriate time and place ((praise in public, discipline in private)
Involve the Person with the problem in developing the solution
- Describe the situation
  - Describe v prescribe
  - Solution v justification
- Facilitate participation
  - Open questioning technique
  - Allow time for resistance
- Interact on problem identification
  - Eliminate irrelevant issues
- Interact on possible solutions
  - Encourage follower identification of alternatives
  - Agree on solution and follow-up action
  - Include leader as well as follower action if relevant
  - Put follow-up dates on calendar
Put the issue into perspective
- Provide positive reinforcement of personal value
  - Ask for advice or info about something they have interest in
  - Acknowledge the individual with appropriate greetings
  - Assign a specific task with limited possibility for failure
  - Publically address something positive about the individual
  - Refer someone else to the individual for assistance.
  - Ask for individual’s opinion on any subject
  - Show interest in the individual’s family or special interest
  - Listen attentively when the individual talks and avoid interrupting

Question 23

Q

Identify ways to involve the counselee in developing solutions to problems

Answer

A

Step 3 of Intervention Process Model

Describe the situation

Describe v prescribe
Solution v justification

Facilitate participation

Open questioning technique
Allow time for resistance

Interact on problem identification

Eliminate irrelevant issues
Interact on possible solutions
Encourage follower identification of alternatives
Agree on solution and follow-up action
Include leader as well as follower action if relevant
Put follow-up dates on calendar

Question 24

Q

Differentiate between aggressive, assertive, and passive communication

Answer

A

Aggressive: win-lose situation. “You”

Assertive: cooperation. “I”

Passive: Qualifiers, avoiding, and appeasing. “Maybe” “I guess”

Question 25

Q

Describe the traits of a good counselor.

Answer

A

Sincerity: interested in counselee & problem
Integrity: confide in someone they can trust
Good Listener: attentively & perceptively

Question 26

Q

Identify the three counseling approaches

Answer

A

Directive

Counselor-centered (I don’t care about your input; I’m going to prescribe what you need)
Diagnosis/treatment with counselor
Traditional approach
Not effective with emotions/strong attitudes

Nondirective

Free counselee from hindrances to normal growth
Feelings about situation paramount
Counselor’s participation is minimal
(they have chance to work things out; you’re there to listen)

Eclectic

Combination of directive & nondirective
Cooperation/responsibility w/ both parties
Flexible

Question 27

Q

Explain the aspects of the three counseling skills

Answer

A

Watching & Listening

Eye contact
Posture
Head nods
Facial expressions

Responding

Questioning
Summarizing
Interpreting
Informing
Confronting

Guiding

Adds structure & organization
Helps subordinate to reach own solution

Question 28

Q

Identify the “ultimate” and “direct” sources of an officer’s authority

Answer

A

Direct Source: President
Ultimate Source: Constitution

Question 29

Q

Identify the types of officer authority

Answer

A

Legal Authority

Authority explicitly stated in directives
US Code: Federal Law

Moral Authority

Authority based on ethics & values
Professional judgment & decision-making

Question 30

Q

Explain the guidelines that must be met for an order to be enforceable.

Answer

A

Within realm of authority
Related to duty, morale, or discipline
Clear & Unequivocal
Received & Understood

Limits to Authority

Delegation: Giving up parts of your authority to others
The Command function
Lawful orders
Due Process of Law
Private lives (unless military necessity)
American citizens (congress)

Question 31

Q

Identify an officer’s responsibilities

Answer

A

Mission
Higher Headquarters
Collateral Units
Unit Welfare
Individuals
Yourself
Act Decisively
Community

Question 32

Q

Define RM

Answer

A

Decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action (COA) for any given situation

Question 33

Q

State the goals of RM

Answer

A

Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
Create an Air Force cultural mindset in which every leader, Airman, and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
Integrate RM into mission and activity planning processes, ensuring decisions are based upon risk assessments of the operation/activity.
Identify opportunities to increase AF warfighting effectiveness in all environments, and ensure success at minimal cost of resources. The RM process shall be institutionalized and be an inherent part of all military operations to address safety, occupational and environmental health risks.

Question 34

Q

Name the four RM principles.

Answer

A

Accept no unnecessary risk
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
Integrate RM into operations, activities and planning at all levels
Apply the process cyclically and continuously

Question 35

Q

Identify the steps of the RM process

Answer

A

Identify the Hazards: Identify hazards associated with the operation or activity. Hazards include real or potential conditions that can cause mission degradation; injury, illness, death to personnel or damage to or loss of equipment/ property.
Assess the Hazards: The assessment step involves the application of quantitative and/or qualitative measures to determine the probability and severity of negative effects that may result from exposure to hazards/risks and directly affect mission or activity success. This process can be formalized or intuitive.
Develop Controls & Make Decisions: Development and selection of specific strategies and controls that reduce or eliminate risk. Effective mitigation measures reduce one of the three components (Probability, Severity or Exposure) of risk.
Implement Controls: Once control measures have been selected, an implementation strategy must be developed and carried out. Must identify the: who, what, when, where and cost(s) associated with the control measure.
Supervise & Evaluate: The RM process continues throughout the life cycle of the system, mission, or activity. Leaders and supervisors at every level must fulfill their respective roles to ensure controls are sustained over time. Once controls are in place, the process must be periodically reevaluated to ensure controls remain effective and mission supportive over time.

Question 36

Q

Describe the three steps of the officer evaluation process

Answer

A

Observation

Evaluation

Documentation

Question 37

Q

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LS Flashcards

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