LPC2024 DAY 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. To operate LVO approaches and take-offs, OPS regulations requires?
A
  • Aerodrome to be approved and LVP to be enforced.
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2
Q

Runway conditions for LVO? LENGTH/WIDTH/SLOPE/OBJECTS ON RUNWAY STRIPS

A
  • Length = No specific requirement for LVO.
  • Width = Many aircrafts, Autoland systems are limited to runway width 45m or more.
  • Slope = Recommended for the first and last quarter of the RWY the slope does not exceed 0.8%. Slope changes before threshold must be kept to maximum 2% per 30m. Reason = we use radio altimeter during Autoland and rapid slope change can disturb the landing.
    Objects on RWY STRIPS = recommended no objects installed within 60m of the centerline.
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3
Q
  1. What is OBSTACLE CLEARENCE HEIGHT (OCH)?
A
  • Lowest height above the elevation of the RWY threshold to establish appropriate obstacle clearence criteria which means it is the height of the tallest obstacle in the area.
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4
Q
  1. When do the operator take into account the operating aerodrome minima?
A

Only for CAT II operation because the minimum DH for CAT II is always equal to or higher than any mentioned OCH in the chart.

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5
Q
  1. What about OCH for CAT III approaches?
A

It is not taken into account because here the missed approach must always be protected from a point on the runway located 900m after the threshold.

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6
Q
  1. What is obstacle free zone OFZ?
A

Established to protect CAT II and III approaches below decision height and in the event of a balked landing or go-around after DH.

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7
Q
  1. When do we have yellow chevrons on the RWY?
A

When surface before a threshold is paved and exceeds 60m in length and is not normal use for aircraft = entire length before threshold should be marked with a chevron marking.

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8
Q
  1. When is it mandatory with approach lights?
A
  • Mandatory for CAT II operations and optional for CAT III operations.
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9
Q
  1. Minimum length of the centerline of the approach lights?
A

Minimum 300m from the threshold (up to 900m for CAT I). Placed at 30m intervals and are variable white.

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10
Q
  1. Approach light system has two side rows of lights, extending how many metres from the threshold? Colour?

How about crossbars? Colour?

A
  • 270m from the threshold (steady red) and two crossbars located 150m and one 300m from the threshold with variable white.
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11
Q
  1. Runways approved for LVO are equipped with? 5
A
  • High intensity edge lights, threshold lights, runway end lights, centerline and touchdown zone lights.
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12
Q
  1. Colour of runway edge lights and the distance between them?

Distance between runway centerline lights?

A

Maximum 60m and they are white.

15M.

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13
Q
  1. When is high intensity centerline lights provided on RWYs? Describe also the colour of the centerline lights through the runway.
A

Runways equipped with for LVO.

We have white lights from the threshold to 900m from the runway end. Following 600m is alternate white and red and the final 300m is red. NOTE, if RWY less than 1800m, the alternate red/white lights are extended from the mid point of the runway to 300m from runway end!

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14
Q
  1. How is the rapid exit taxiway indicator lights?
A

Consist of six yellow lights configured in three/two/one pattern spaced 100m apart and the last single light is 100m from the start of the turn for the rapid exit taxiway. Good during LVO.

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15
Q
  1. Three different categories of ILS, what does it mean? CAT I, II, III.
A

Certified to provide guidance down to a height higher or equal to: CAT I = 200ft, CAT II = 50ft, CAT III = runway surface and along the runway.

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16
Q
  1. Distances from the threshold we can intercept G/S AND LOC.
A

Distance 17 = 35 degrees, distance 25 = 10 degrees.

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17
Q
  1. What does N and 100& mean on the oxygen mask?
A
  • 100% = the mask delivers 100% oxygen.
  • N = Provides flight crew mix of air and oxygen. Mixture changes with cabin altitude = the higher cabin altitude = the more oxygen mask provides until the mask supplies 100% oxygen.
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18
Q
  1. What does EMERGENCY pressure selector means on the mask?
A

Use of this selector creates an overpressure which eliminates condensation or fogging of the mask and prevents smoke, smell or ashes entering the mask. Overpressure supply is only available only when the N/100% selector is set on the 100% position.

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19
Q

When can we get partial pressurization failure?

What can we do if it happens during climb?

What can we do if it happens during cruise?

A

Due to faulty pack or a failure in the pressurization control itself.

Consider reducing speed (possible return) and or stop climb.

Descend to lower altitude (during single pack operation) = not emergency descend in this case.

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20
Q

During Emergency descend, who must the crew rely on the CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning?

A

Flight crew must rely on red CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT warning even if not confirmed on CAB PRESS SD page because this warning can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor, different from the one used to control the pressure and display the cabin altitude on the SD.

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21
Q

When we use speedbrakes during emergency descendwhy do we monitor VLS?

A

We do it to avoid the activation of the AOA protection which will if activated retract the speed brakes and AP disconnection.

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22
Q
  1. Which 3 conditions should be meet if we are going to continue the LVO approach past 1000ft AAL when we had a failure before?
A
    1. Failure management procedures (ECAM/RESETS/C/L) completed.
  1. Status of the aircraft = landing capability and management of failure re-assessed and when applicable, corresponding landing minima inserted in MCDU
  2. Approach briefing amended taking into account the new situation.
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23
Q
  1. Below 1000ft and above alert height, when should we perform a go-around? 2
A

Amber caution (single chime) or landing capability degradation. (tex. from CAT3 DUAL to CAT3 SINGLE).

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24
Q
  1. If we get red AUTOLAND below alert height (CAT III) or below DH, what should we do?
A

Go-around is mandatory except if visual references at the moment of the occurence are sufficient and flying conditions such that a manual and visual landing can be safely performed.

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25
Q
  1. What is alert height?
A

Alert Height is a height above the runway, based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail-operational automatic landing system, above which a Category III approach would be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurred in one of the redundant parts of the automatic landing system, or in the relevant ground equipment.

Below = We can disregard if we have fail operational (two systems) = the other will take over and land in CAT 3 SINGLE EXCEPT if the RED AUTOLAND warning is triggered. Even then we can continue manually if we have visual references.

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26
Q

We are going to land fail passive (CAT 1 and CAT 2 and CAT III A) which means we have DA/DH = CAT 3 SINGLE. What do we need to see on DA/DH?

A

CAT 1 and CAT 2:
a segment of at least three consecutive lights,
which are:
* The centre line of the approach lights, or
* Touchdown zone lights, or
* Runway centre line lights, or
* Runway edge lights, or
* A combination of these.

Also a lateral element of the ground pattern like approach lighting crossbar, threshold lights /green) or barrette of the TDZ lights.

CAT III A = DH to low = everything above except approach lights because we have passed them.

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27
Q
  1. On which height is the autoland light armed?

Triggered if? 4

A

200ft RA.

BOTH AP´s trip off, excessive beam deviation is sensed, LOC or GS transmitter or receiver fails, RA discrepancy of at least 15ft is sensed.

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28
Q

We are going to land CAT III DUAL = fail operational with DH. What do we need to see on DH?

A

At least one centre line light to be attained and maintained by the pilot.

29
Q
  1. Emergency evacuation: What do you say 1000ft above aerodrome? 500ft AAL?
A

1000ft = Cabin crew at stations, cabin crew at station

500ft = Brace brace

30
Q
  1. When is the soft go around function active?
    How do we perform a soft go-around?
A
  • Only with both engines operative.
  • We apply TOGA initially, and then we read FMA and set the thrust to MCT (MAN GA SOFT will appear on FMA). At thrust reduction altitude, we see LVR CLB on FMA and we set CLB.
31
Q
  1. When can we consider damage when we do the emergency descend? How do we do with the speed?
A

LOUD BANG OR HIGH CABIN V/S.
We set the SPD/MACH button to SPEED to prevent IAS from increasing. We should also consider decrease the speed to prevent stress on the structure.

32
Q
  1. When we do the emergency descend it says landing gear down consider = how do we do it?
A

We slow down to VLE (250kt), extend the LDG gear and then increase the speed to 280kt. MAXIMUM SPEED.

33
Q
  1. How can we see if engine is damaged or not?
A

If we have values on N1 and N2 = no damage. If 0 = damage. We can suspect damage if we observe two or more of the following symptoms: Loud bang, rapid increase of EGT above the red line, important mismatch of the rotor speeds (N1), significant increase of vibrations/buffeting, hydraulic system loss, repeated or uncontrollable engine stalls.

34
Q
  1. If we get go around above the missed approach altitude how do we do?
A

We call cancel approach, we don’t touch the thrust levers, disarm the APPR button and descends to the missed approach altitude with V/S.

35
Q
  1. What is an IR and what does it provide? 8
A

Laser based inertial reference system (aircraft sensors) which provides attitude, heading, aircraft position, track, heading, acceleration, ground speed and the flight path vector.

36
Q
  1. What is VREF and how do we insert VREF+15 in the FMGC?
A

VREF = VLS CONF FULL (speed 50ft above the threshold).
1. We check the value on our VLS with CONFIG FULL in PERF page. Say VLS = 135.
2. Then we change from CONFIG FULL to CONFIG 3.
3. We then add 15kt to it and now we set VAPP as (135+15) = 150kt.

37
Q
  1. TOF: below which speed will the ground spoilers not deploy and the auto brake not active?
A

BELOW 72KT.

37
Q
  1. What is SEC and how many do we have?
A

Spoiler elevator computer = responsible for controlling and deployment and retraction of the spoilers as well as providing input to the elevator system to control the aircrafts pitch attitude. We have 3 SECs.

38
Q
  1. When we use speedbrakes, which spoilers are deployed?
  2. When we use roll control, which spoilers are deployed?
  3. When ground spoilers deploy, which spoilers are deployed?
A

3 central surfaces to increase drag.

Four outer spoilers.

All spoilers to dump lift and increase drag.

39
Q

How can we compare both FMs with GPIRS position if we get NAV/FMS POS DISAGREE?

A
  • Compare the positions of both FMs with the GPIRS position, on the MCDU POSITION MONITOR PAGE. If one FM position agrees with onside GPIRS position = use associated AP/FD. If both FM POSITIONS DO NOT AGREE with onside GPIRS, GPS DESELECT and use RAW DATA (vectors).
40
Q

During approach we get ICE PROTECTION PITOT HEAT FAULT. What can we consider?

A

Info is coming from ADRs and system is controlled by three PHCs (probe heat computers) so we switch off affected ADR and if icing suspected = we can consider applying unreliable airspeed procedure.

Before that it can be good to crosscheck values between PFD1, ISIS and PFD2.

41
Q

Imagine we are going to do overweight landing. At very high weights VFE CONF 1 is close to VLS. How do we select CONF 1?

A

Deselect A/THR, decelerate to or slightly below VLS and configure flaps 1 when below VFE. Engage A/THR again.

42
Q

What is ELAC and how many do we have?

A

We have in total 2 ELCAS. It is Elevator and aileron computer. On good thing about it is if we loose both of them, we will enter direct LAW when gear down but the A/THR remains.

43
Q

Describe what ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 does seperatly and what if one of them fail etc.

A

ELAC 1 controls the ailerons and ELAC 2 controls the elevator and the horizontal stabilizer. If ELAC 1 fails, ELAC 2 controls the ailerons. This is not the case when transferring elevator controls. ELAC 2 controls left and right elevator through yellow and green hydraulic system. If ELAC 2 fails, it is passed to ELAC 1 which controls the elevators through blue hydraulic system. If we dispatch aircraft with ELAC 2 fault, ELAC 1 controls the elevators through blue hydraulic system. If blue hydraulic system fails = there is no backup left. ELAC 1 and 2 does not transfer elevator control to SECs (spoiler elevator computer).

44
Q

Maximum allowable fuel imbalance:

A

Less than 6 tons = 400kg.
Between 6 and 12 tons = 500kg.
More than 12 tons = 600kg.

45
Q

SNIFF ENOS

A
  • Start valve opens, N2 increase, IGNITER, Fuel flow increase
    EGT increase, N1 increase, Oil pressure increase, Start valve closed
46
Q

TEM discussion DAY 1: Three things:

A
  1. Possibility of WX/RWY conditions change during departure / in case of return required. (OVERWEIGHT LANDING PROCEDURE). Engine operations in cold weather, possibility of de-icing (FUEL), slippery runways/conditions.
  2. What if/consequences of re-occuring the reported failure = NAV/FMS POS DISAGGRE.
  3. Configuration/automation management during departure.
47
Q

RWYCC3, max crosswind

A

15kt

48
Q

RWYCC2, max crosswind

A

10kt

49
Q

When is engine secured with damage?

A

Agent 1 is discharged.

50
Q

OEI go-around. Left dead, which do we press at go-around?

A

Always opposite so in this case right rudder.

51
Q

What will happen when we get ELAC 1+2 fault?

A

We will loose AP ans when gear down = direct law. A/THR remains!

52
Q

Anything to think about when you are going to perform overweight landing and you have ELAC 1 + 2 fault?

A

ELAC 1 + 2 fault says land with flaps 3 and overweight QRH procedure says land with flaps full unless specified by ABN PROC. Also for go-around according to overweight procedure we should use CONF 1+F which means we go from flaps 3 to flaps 1+F.

53
Q

Engine failure, what will show up on FMA regardiing thrust levers?

A

It will show THR MCT = We go down to climb and then up again to MCT.

54
Q

Engine failure, what is important for PM to do after flaps?

A

Do not forget to disarm spoilers and retract lights.

55
Q

When you fly 2D appraoch, what is very important to not forget?

A

DO NOT FORGET TO SET YOUR MISSED APPROACHA ALTITUDE WHEN YOU START YOUR DESCEND ON FINAL

56
Q

What is important to not do after go-around?

A

Do not select V/S or push to level off when in ALT STAR!

57
Q

CAT II, minimum DH? RVR?
How many AP must be armed?

A

Minimum 100ft. RVR = 300m
One AP at least.

58
Q

Cat III fail passive (single), minimum DH? RVR?
How many AP must be armed?

A

Minimum 50ft. 200m.
One AP at least

59
Q

CAT III with DH, how many APs and what must be visible on FMA?

A

Two AP must be engaged and we must have CAT 3 DUAL on FMA

60
Q

CAT III without DH, how many APs and must be visible on FMA? RVR?

A

Two APs must be engaged and we must have CAT 3 DUAL on FMA. RVR = 75m.

61
Q

ELAC 1 + 2 fault, what about ailerons?

A

Both ailerons are INOP, roll control from roll spoilers only (SEC).

62
Q

How many smoke detectors do we have in forward and aft cargo?

A

2 detectors in front and 4 in the aft.

63
Q

Colour on tawxiway centerline?
Lights?

A

Steady yellow.
Green.

64
Q

Signs on airport is divided into two sections, which are?
How do the mandatory signs look like and consists of? 3

A

Mandatory signs and information signs

Red background with white text. Holding positions, intermediate holding positions and no entry signs.

65
Q

How is the information signs? 3

A

Black and yellow. Location (yellow on black), direction and destination (both = black on yellow).

66
Q

Two kind of protections available for ILS during LVO, they are?

A

Critical area and sensitive area.

67
Q

Ceilometers are located? It can detect?

A

500-1500m before respective threshold below approach centerline.
3 clouds layers up to 12000ft.