Lower GI Clinical Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the four terms used to distinguish hernias.

A
  • reduced: can be manipulated back through defect
  • irreducible: cannot be reduced w/out surgery
  • incarcerated: irreducible hernia with contents trapped
  • strangulated: ischaemia is occurring, leading to necrosis and potential sepsis; associated with extreme tenderness/erythema, and systemic upset (e.g., vomiting, fever).
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2
Q

Describe the surgical management of inguinal (direct/indirect), umbilical, and femoral hernias.

A
  • surgical repair is with mesh placement
  • inguinal: distinction between indirect and direct does not change management. refer for routine surgery
    – unilateral hernia: open approach
    – bilateral/recurrent: laparoscopic approach
    – complications: bruising, wound infection, chronic pain, recurrence, damage to ilioinguinal nerve
  • umbilical: most common in neonates, babies and toddlers; if non-strangulated, the approach is typically watch and wait:
    – small, asymptomatic: if still present at 4-5yr, elective surgical repair
    – large or symptomatic: elective repair 2-3yr
  • femoral: much more common in women and has a much higher chance of strangulation, so requires emergency surgical repair
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3
Q

Describe the signs and management of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH).

A
  • important cause of respiratory distress in the newborn and is associated with pulmonary hypoplasia
  • the main sign is the presence of (tinkling) bowel sounds on respiratory examination and may be picked up on chest XR
  • initial management is to prevent air entry to the gut; therefore intubate and ventilate if cyanotic
  • definitive management is with surgical repair of the diaphragm
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4
Q

Topic: scrotal swellings
Give the signs and management of the following scrotal swellings: inguinal hernia, testicular cancer, epididymo-orchitis, epidydimal cyst, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and hydrocele.

A
  • inguinal hernia: cannot get ‘above’ swelling on exam, may have cough reflex; Mx: routine surgical mesh repair
  • testicular cancer: discrete testicular nodule, +/- signs of metastasis; Ix: testicular USS, serum AFP and beta-HCG; Mx: orchidectomy via inguinal approach
  • epidydmo-orchitis: tends to be associated with urinary symptoms (dysuria, discharge) due to Chlamydia infection. AS OPPOSED TO TORSION, elevating the testis eases tenderness & the cremaster reflex is present
  • epidydimal cysts: painless, separate nodules posterior to the testis therefore can get ‘above’ on exam; Mx: excised surgically
  • hydrocele: transilluminates, non-painful and fluctuant. can get ‘above’ on exam. can be presenting feature of testicular cancer in young men.
  • testicular torsion: severe, sudden onset pain associated with undescended testes in young or adolescent males. AS OPPOSED TO EPIDYDIMO-ORCHITIS pain is not eased on testis elevation (patient often refuses exam) and cremaster reflex is absent; Mx: urgent surgery and fixation of BOTH testes
  • varicocele: ‘bag of worms’ (varicosity of pampiniform plexus); typically left as drains into renal vein. associated with infertility and may be presenting sign of RCC. Mx is conservative unless infertility is the concern -> surgical or radiological management
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5
Q

Give the significant differences between Crohn’s and Ulcerative Colitis.

A
  • Crohn’s disease: CROHNS and NESTS
    – CROHNS
    — cobblestone appearance on endoscopy
    — rose-thorn ulcers
    — obstruction of bowel
    — hyperplasia of mesenteric lymph nodes
    — narrowing of intestinal lumen
    — skip lesions
    – NESTS
    — no blood or mucous
    — entire GI tract
    — skip lesions
    — terminal ileum most common location + transmural (full colon thickness)
    — smoking is a risk factor
  • Ulcerative colitis: CLOSEUP
    – CLOSEUP
    — continuous disease
    — limited to colon and rectum
    — only submucosa affect
    — smoking protective
    — excretes blood +/- mucous
    — use aminosalicylates
    — primary sclerosing cholangitis
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6
Q

Give the key differences between Crohn’s and Ulcerative Colitis regarding extra-intestinal symptoms, complications, and histology.

A
  • extra-intestinal:
    – Crohn’s: gallstones (reduced bile acid resorption) and oxalate renal stones (reduced calcium resorption); weight loss
    – UC: PSC, uveitis
  • complications:
    – Crohn’s: bowel obstruction, fistulae
    – UC: colorectal cancer
  • histology:
    – Crohn’s: increased goblet cells, granulomas
    – UC: decreased goblet cells, crypt abscess (neutrophil infiltration)
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7
Q

Describe the radiological differences between Crohn’s and Ulcerative Colitis.

A
  • Crohn’s with small bowel enema (increased specificity and sensitivity for the terminal ileum, the most commonly affected area)
    – Kantor’s string sign (narrowing of colon)
    – proximal bowel dilation
    – rose thorn ulcers, fistulae
  • UC with barium enema
    – loss of haustrations
    – scantly preserved mucosa gives the appearance of polyps - these are pseudopolyps
    – drainpipe colon: narrowing and shortening of the colon
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8
Q

Describe the grading of haemorrhoids.

A
  • grade 1: no prolapse, just prominent blood vessels
  • grade 2: prolapse upon bearing down, but spontaneous reduction
  • grade 3: prolapse upon bearing down, requires manual reduction
  • grade 4: prolapse with inability to be manually reduced.
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9
Q

Describe the management of haemorrhoids.

A
  • conservative management
    • soften stool (increase fibre and fluid intake)
    • topical local anaesthetics, steroids
  • outpatient procedures
    • rubber band ligation (1st line)
    • injection sclerotherapy (2nd line)
  • surgical management (haemorrhoidectomy) is reserved for those with large, symptomatic disease that does not respond to previous management
    • includes Doppler-guided haemorrhoidal artery ligation and stapled haemorrhoidopexy
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10
Q

Describe the presentation and subsequent management of thrombosed haemorrhoids.

A
  • significant pain, tender lump
  • O/E a purplish, oedematous, tender, subcutaneous perianal mass
  • if <72hr, consider for excision
  • otherwise, manage conservatively with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia, with a view to symptoms resolving within 10 days
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11
Q

Describe the presentation and management of anal fissures.

A
  • longitudinal or elliptical tears of the squamous lining of the distal anal canal
  • very painful rectal bleeding
  • 90% occur at the posterior midline (6 o’clock); if elsewhere, consider secondary causes (e.g. Crohn’s)
  • may be associated with sentinel skin tags
  • management of an acute fissure:
    • soften stool (high fibre diet, high fluid intake)
    • bulk-forming laxitaves > lactulose
    • lubricants, topical anaesthetic, analgesia etc. prior to defecation
    • once chronic (>6wk), add topical GTN
    • sphincterotomy (or Botox) can be considered if GTN ineffective after 8 weeks
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12
Q

Describe the histology associated with Solitary Rectal Ulcer Syndrome (SRUS).

A

Mucosal thickening and a lamina propria replaced with collagen and smooth muscle (fibromuscular obliteration)

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13
Q

Name the symptoms associated with colorectal cancer.

A
  • change in bowel habit
  • rectal bleeding or blood in the stool
  • abdominal pain or discomfort
  • unexplained weight loss
  • anaemia (fatigue, weakness, dyspnoea)
  • bowel obstruction (30% of large bowel cancers present this way)
  • asymptomatic (FIT screening)
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14
Q

Describe the investigations for colorectal cancer.

A
  • FBC (?IDA - low Hb, ferritin, MCV)
  • LFTs (raised may indicate liver mets)
  • U&Es (raised calcium may indicate bone metastases)
  • colonoscopy with biopsy is the gold standard investigation
  • CT abdo/pelvis can be used in patients with significant co-morbidity or frailty
  • TNM staging is performed with CT CAP
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15
Q

Describe the Dukes staging system of colorectal cancer (and how it relates to the TNM classification).

A
  • Dukes A: TNM 1,0,0 or 2,0,0 (invasion into the bowel wall but not through it)
  • Dukes B: TNM 3,0,0 or 4,0,0 (invasion through the bowel wall but not involving lymph nodes)
  • Dukes C: TNM X,1,0 or X,2,0 (involvement of lymph nodes)
  • Dukes D: TNM X,X,1 (widespread metastases)
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16
Q
A