Low Visibility Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Define fail operational

A

If in the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically. Following a failure the system become fail passive and an automatic landing can be completed.

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2
Q

Define fail passive

A

If in the event of a failure, there is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude. The landing cannot be completed automatically.

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3
Q

When does the red Autoland light become active?

A

Below 200’ RA

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4
Q

Define Alert height

A

A height above touchdown above which a CAT3 Autoland would be discontinued if a failure occurred in either aircraft or ground equipment. A failure between 1000’ and Alert Height (100’ RA) leading to downgraded capability, a go around is flown.

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5
Q

What do you do if you experience any failure leading to downgraded capability displayed on the FMA between 1000’ and Alert Height (100’ RA)

A

Go Around

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6
Q

What happens if you experience a failure below alert height?

A

The failure would be ignored and the approach and landing continued except in the case of a RED AUTOLAND light.

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7
Q

When will ATC initiate LVPs at the latest?

A

≤ 200 ft ceiling or ≤600 m RVR

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8
Q

What should you consider when briefing the threats associated with LVPs (5 items)

A
  • Need for alternate airfield
  • Potential holding required
  • Actions in case of downgrades
  • Review of task sharing from the QRH
  • WLM during taxi
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9
Q

How do we know what approach the aircraft is capable of? (4 items)

A
  • Required equipment for CAT 2 and CAT 3.
  • ECAM Status page
  • MEL
  • FMA
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10
Q

ILS CAT2 AND CAT3 Autoland is approved in CONF 3 and CONF FULL.

In the case of engine out what config must each type fly zed approach?

A

A320 CEO: Fail passive autoland - FLAP FULL only.

A319/A320 NEO: Fail passive autoland - FLAP 3 or FLAP FULL.

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11
Q

Where can the maximum wind conditions be found?

A

Operational data in the quick access folder.

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12
Q

Which RVR is controlling for all instrument approaches with an MDA, DA or DH?

A

Thouchdown RVR

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13
Q

If the mid point and stop end RVR’s are reported and relevant, what RVR is controlling?

A

All are controlling

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14
Q

What is the minimum RVR values for an approach with roll out guidance at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end?

A

Touchdown: As published on the chart
Mid-point: 75 m
Stop-end: 75 m

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15
Q

What is the minimum RVR values for an approach without roll out guidance at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end?

A

Touchdown: As published on the chart
Mid-point: 125 m
Stop-end: 75 m

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16
Q

How many consecutive approaches can be attempted when there has been a go around due to weather conditions?

A

2 consecutive approaches

3 in exceptional circumstances when a go around has been flown for non-weather related reasons providing the commander is satisfied that landing is assured.

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17
Q

Define ‘safe landing’

A

In the context of fuel schemes, a landing at an adequate aerodrome with no less than the final reserve fuel remaining in compliance with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima.

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18
Q

Does CAT 1 provide enough precision for automatic roll out?

A

No

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19
Q

Where is the approach ban point?

When can you continue beyond the approach ban point?

A

1000 ft above airport elevation or in the case DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000 ft above the aerodrome.

You can continue past the approach ban point provided the TDZ RVR, and MID/STOP if reported and relevant are above minimum.

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20
Q

If the RVR deteriorates below minimum after you have passed the approach ban point, can you continue the approach?

A

Yes

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21
Q

Autoland task sharing:

1000 RA:
800’ RA:
700’ RA:
500’ RA:
350’ RA:
200’ RA:
100’ RA:
40’ RA:
30’ RA:
Touchdown:

A

1000 RA: Fully configured and stable
800’ RA: Landing Inhibit
700’ RA: FMGC Data Lock
500’ RA: “Stable” or “Unstable Go-around”
350’ RA: CM1 checks course on the PFD
200’ RA: Red Autoland light becomes active
100’ RA: Alert Height
40’ RA: FLARE
30’ RA: THR IDLE
Touchdown: Check ROLL OUT

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22
Q

What 7 conditions will trigger the Red Autoland Light?

A
  1. Loss of both APs
  2. Loss of LOC >15 ft
  3. Loss of GS >100 ft
  4. Deviation from LOC/GS
  5. Rad alt discrepancy >15 ft
  6. FMGS detects long flare
  7. FMGS detects early/untimely flare
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22
Q

What do you do in the event of a master caution or downgrade above 1000’?

A

Resolve by 1000’
- ECAM/QRH procedure completed
- Required Equip QRH check
- App landing capability check
- RVR Check
- DH adjust

Otherwise - Go Around

23
Q

What do you do if you experience a master caution or downgrade below 1000’ to alter height (100’ RA)?

A

Go Around

24
Q

Below 200’ when the Red Autoland Light is active. If you get a Red Autoland Light, what do you do?

A

Go Around

25
Q

If you experience a failure below Alert Height (100’ RA) what do you do?

A

Continue in the exception of a Red Autoland Light

26
Q

What are the visual references required for a CAT 1 approach?

A

Elements of the approach lighting system.

27
Q

What are the minima for a CAT 1 approach?

A

min 200’ AAL
550m RVR

28
Q

What are the visual references required for a CAT 2 approach?

A

3 consecutive lights and a lateral element.

28
Q

What are the minima for a CAT 2 approach?

A

100’ Radio
350m RVR

29
Q

What are the visual references required for a OTS CAT11 approach?

A

Same as CAT 2

30
Q

What are the minima for a OTS CAT11 approach?

A

100’ Radio
350m RVR

31
Q

What are the visual references required for a CAT 3 WITH DH?
a) With CAT3 Single displayed
b) With CAT 3 Dual displayed

A

3 consecutive lights (CAT3 Single displayed - fail passive)
1 centreline light (CAT3 Dual displayed - fail operational)

32
Q

What are the minima for a CAT 3 WITH DH approach?

A

50’ radio
200m RVR

33
Q

What are the visual references required for a CAT 3 WITHOUT DH?

A

None

34
Q

What are the minima for a CAT 3 WITHOUT DH approach?

A

N/A
75m RVR

35
Q

When does the approach lights usually begin from?

A

900m prior to the runway threshold.

36
Q

Where is the PAPIs usually located in distance after the runway threshold?

A

300m

37
Q

What is the usual length of the white TDZ lighting?

A

900m

38
Q

What do continuous red centerline lights mean at the end of the runway?

A

Final 300m

39
Q

What do alternating white and red centerline lights mean at the end of the runway?

A

600m left

40
Q

What equipment is required for the Automatic Roll Out function to operate?

A
  • NWS and Antiskid
  • Minimum of CAT 2 ground equipment
  • Not approved on contaminated runway

Remember to disconnect the AP before leaving the centerline.

41
Q

Can you do OETA in taxi in during LVPs?

A

No

42
Q

Should you complete any checks while moving during LVPs?

A

No

43
Q

Does an Autoland need to be reported in the Tech Log?

A

Yes

44
Q

What is the PA that must be given to passengers if conducting a low visibility takeoff?

A

“Due to low visibility conditions, it is a requirement that all PED are switched off until after take-off.”

45
Q

What should you do to check that the airport capability is not more restrictive than aircraft capability?

A

Check the airfields AOI

46
Q

When must CM1 be PF for a low visibility takeoff?

A

When the RVR is <550m

47
Q

What is the PA that must be given to passengers if conducting a low visibility landing?

A

“Due to low visibility conditions, it is a requirement that all PED are switched off until the aircraft is parked on stand.”

48
Q

A take-off alternate must not be further than … nm from the departure aerodrome. It is required when performance or meteorological conditions prevent a return to the departure aerodrome.

A

320

49
Q

EasyJet is not ETOPS approved. All flights must remain within … hour at … cruise speed, of an adequate aerodrome. This equates in still air to:

A319:
A320:
A321:

A

1 hour
OEI cruise speed

A319: 380 nm
A320: 400 nm
A321: 400 nm

50
Q

OMA 8.1.2.1.3: What is the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two engine aeroplanes without approval?

A319:
A320:
A321:

A

A319: 380 nm
A320: 400 nm
A321: 400 nm

51
Q

What is FALS?

A

Full Approach Light System

52
Q

What is IALS?

A

Intermediate Approach Light System

53
Q

What is BALS?

A

Basic Approach Light System

54
Q

What is NALS?

A

No Approach Light System