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Immunology Practice Exam 1 > Look a rainbow! Do me on it > Flashcards

Look a rainbow! Do me on it Flashcards

1
Q

The largest physical barrier to be defended are the mucous membranes. T/F?

A

true

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2
Q

Commensal microbiota in the gut compete with pathogens for nutrients and attachment sites. T/F?

A

true

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3
Q

Lysozyme, defensins, cathelicidins and histatins are all examples of what?

A

antimicrobial enzymes/peptides

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4
Q

Thick or impaired mucus flow predisposes an individual to what?

A

chronic infection

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5
Q

What cells of the immune system are prolific cytokine factories?

A

T helper cells

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6
Q

What cell acts as a liaison between the innate and adaptive immune systems?

A

dendritic cell

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7
Q

Inflammation is an ADAPTIVE immune cell response. T/F?

A

false (innate immune cell response)

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8
Q

What is NOT a function of antibodies?

A

Apoptosis

Natural Killer cells and killer T cells do that

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9
Q

What ARE functions of antibodies?

A

Neutralization
Opsonization
Compliment activation

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10
Q

What function of antibodies “tags” a cell for destruction?

A

Opsonization

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11
Q

What is NOT a function of the complement system?

A 
Antigen presentation 
(Macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells do that)
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12
Q

Is the complement system phagocytic?

A

NO

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13
Q

What is the function of C3a and C5a?

A

Chemoattractant

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14
Q

What is the function of C5b?

A

Form membrane attack complexes

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15
Q

What is the function of C3bBb?

A

Convertase (split more C3 and C5)

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16
Q

What is the function of C3b?

A

bind to the cell membrane

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17
Q

What is the most numerous WHITE blood cell in the blood?

A

Neutrophil (50-70%)

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18
Q

What is the most numerous RED blood cell in the blood?

A

Erythrocyte

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19
Q

What monosaccharide found on the surface of many pathogens can trigger the activation of complement?

A

Mannose

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20
Q

What professional phagocyte normally circulates in the blood?

A

Neutrophil

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21
Q

What professional phagocyte normally circulates in tissue?

A

Macrophage (circulate as monocytes)

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22
Q

What is a precursor for dendritic cells?

A

Monocytes

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23
Q

What is NOT characteristic of a primed macrophage?

A

Major producer of TNF

hyperactive macrophage characteristic

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24
Q

What are the 3 stages of macrophages?

A
  1. resting
  2. primed
  3. hyperactive
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25
Q

What is up-regulated by an activated neutrophil and binds to endothelial ICAM allowing the neutrophil to stop?

A

Integrin

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26
Q

What is expressed by endothelial cells and binds to selectin ligand?

A

selectin

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27
Q

What is expressed on the surface of neutrophils?

A

selectin ligand

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28
Q

Natural killer cells kill by what mechanism?

A

Apoptosis

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29
Q

Necrosis is what type of immune response?

A

inflammatory

30
Q

NK cells bind what antibodies to allow it to kill via antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity?

A

IgG

31
Q

What is the most Abundant antibody class in the human BODY?

A

IgA

32
Q

What antibody is released in response to allergiEs?

A

IgE

33
Q

What is the first and largest antibody produced following antigen recognition?

A

IgM

34
Q

All B cell receptors (tethered antibodies) on any given B cell are identical. T/F?

A

true

35
Q

Besides a B cell receptor on a B cell, name another type of receptor that would likely be present.

A

Compliment receptor

36
Q

Mast cells binding what antibody will cause mast cells to degranulatE?

A

IgE

37
Q

Which antibody is most commonly found in a mother’s breast milk?

A

IgA

38
Q

Which antibody can confer passive immunity from the mother to the fetus and crosses the placenta?

A

IgG (most abundant antibody in the BLOOD)

39
Q

What enzyme do mast cells release during degranulation?

A

histamine

40
Q

In consideration of the heavy chain modular design, which gene segment has the MOST variations ( ~ 40) to choose from?

A

V (MOST)

41
Q

In consideration of heavy chain modular design, what is the function of the B cells?

A

“cut and paste” different constant regions

42
Q

In consideration of the heavy chain modular design, which gene segment has the LEAST variations ( ~ 6) to choose from? Which segment has ~ 10 variations? ~25?

A 
J = 6 (LEAST)
C = 10
D = 25
V= 40 (MOST)
43
Q

What is expressed on an NK cell that binds to a Fas protein on the invader, triggering apoptosis?

A

Fas ligand

44
Q

What is the function of Perforin?

A

Pokes a hole in the membrane, injects enzymes which trigger apoptosis

45
Q

In a B cell receptor, what is the function of Igα and Igβ?

A
  • **sends an activation signal to the nucleus

- attaches the receptor to the cell membrane

46
Q

What is the function of disulfide bridges?

A

bind the heavy chains together

47
Q

In an antibody, what is the function of the paratope?

A

Bind to the epitope, part of the antigen

48
Q

Almost all cells in the body express MHC I. T/F?

A

true

49
Q

MHC II is typically found with which cells in the body?

A

antigen presenting cells

50
Q

What 3 types of Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) express MHC II?

A

Activated dendritic cells
Activated macrophages
Activated B cells

51
Q

The helper T cell co-stimulates the B cell by expressing what?

A

CD40 ligand

52
Q

After a B cell has found its cognate antigen and proliferates, most of these proliferating B cells become what?

A

Plasma cells

53
Q

What cells are considered “antibody factories” and are found in the spleen or bone marrow?

A

Plasma cells

54
Q

What are 3 functions/characteristics of IgA?

A
  • unable to fix complement
  • found in mother’s milk
  • can coat pathogen and prevent mucosal attachment
55
Q

What is the result of B cell activation without T cell help?

A

can ONLY produce IgM (default antibody class)

56
Q

What is the most abundant antibody in the BLOOD?

A

IgG

57
Q

What antibody typically targets parasites?

A

IgE

58
Q

What normally prevents endogenous peptides from loading onto MHC II?

A

Invariant chain

59
Q

Stimulation of what nerve(s) can attenuate or inhibit inflammation mediated by splenic macrophages?

A

Vagus nerve

60
Q

All antigen presenting cells express B7 co-stimulatory proteins. T/F?

A

true

61
Q

What is the function of MHC I?

A

Displays endogenous peptides

62
Q

What is the function of MHC II?

A

Displays foreign (exogenous) peptides

63
Q

Which MHC on average can display longer peptides? How many AA for each?

A

MHC II = 13-25 AA

MHC I = 8-11 AA

64
Q

B7 displayed on macrophages can act as a co-stimulatory molecule to the antigen presenting MHC. What receptor on the B cell binds B7?

A

CD28

65
Q

Toll-like receptors are best described as which of the following?

A

Pattern recognition receptors

66
Q

What antigen presenting cell, phagocytizes antigen at the battle site, displays it on MHC II and travels back to a lymph node to activate T cells?

A

Activated dendritic cells

67
Q

What is the major antigen presenting function of activated macrophages?

A

re-stimulate T cells at the battle site

68
Q

What is the major antigen presenting function of activated dendritic cells?

A

re-stimulate T cells at the lymph node

69
Q

What is the major antigen presenting function of activated B cells?

A

concentrate antigen

70
Q

What antibody is the major mucosAl antibody, can bind to pathogens in the gut and prevent attachment (neutralization) to mucosAl cells?

A

IgA (does not fix complement)

71
Q

What substance is released from degranulating mast cells and is associated with anaplylactic shock systemically?

A

Histamine

72
Q

What 2 substances are released by helper T cells?

A

interferon and IL-1 (cytokines)

Immunology Practice Exam 1 (1 decks)

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