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Anesthesia Pharm (Spring 2025) > Local Anesthetics II (Exam IV) > Flashcards

Local Anesthetics II (Exam IV) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the average pKa of local anesthetics?

A

8

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2
Q

What is the function of the Alkalinization of LA Solutions?

What are the benefits of alkalinization?

A

Alkalinization increases the percentage of lipid-soluble or non-ionized forms.

  • Faster onset of action
  • Speeds onset of peripheral and epidural blocks by 3 to 5 mins.
  • Enhances the depth
  • Increase the spread (i.e., epidural)
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3
Q

Regarding weak bases, the pKa is ________ pH.

A

before

ex. pKa 9, pH 7 → 9 - 7 = +2

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4
Q

Regarding weak acids, the pKa is ________ pH.

A

after

ex. pKa 9, pH 7 → 7 - 9 = -2

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5
Q

Nicely negative numbers are _________.

A

non-ionized

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6
Q

If Drug V (weak base) has a pKa of 9.1, will the drug be more ionized or nonionized at physiological pH?

A

pKa - pH
9.1 - 7.4 = +1.7

Drug V will be more ionized at physiological pH.

Weak Bases, pKa before pH
Weak Acids, pKa afterpH

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7
Q

If the pKa of LA (a weak base) is at 4.5, will the drug be more ionized or nonionized at physiological pH?

A

pKa - pH
4.5 - 7.4 = -2.9

LA will be more non-ionized at physiological pH.

Weak Bases, pKa before pH
Weak Acids, pKa afterpH

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8
Q

LA1’s pKa is 9.2, and LA2’s pKa is 7.5. Which of the following are correct when placed in physiological pH? Select 2 answers.

A. LA2 has more non-ionized components
B. LA1 has more ionized components
C. LA2 has more ionized components
D. LA1 has more non-ionized components

A

B and C

LA1
9.2 - 7.4 = +1.8 (ionized)

LA2
7.5 - 7.4 = +0.1 (ionized)

Weak Bases, pKa before pH
Weak Acids, pKa afterpH

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9
Q

What adjuvant medications prolong the duration of local anesthetics?

A
  • Dexmedetomidine
  • Magnesium
  • Clonidine
  • Ketamine
  • Dexamethasone
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10
Q

What will be the results of combining LA Chloroprocaine & Bupivacaine?

A
  • Produce a rapid onset
  • Tachyphylaxis (bupivacaine)
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11
Q

What is added to 30 mL of LA to alkalinize the drug?

A

1 mL of 8.4% Sodium Bicarbonate

This will increase the non-ionized form of LA.
Make sure the mixture does not contain any precipitate.

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12
Q

Combining local anesthetics and getting toxic effects is a synergistic process. T/F ?

A

False. Additive. (1+1 =2)

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13
Q

Compare the onset of action between chloroprocaine and bupivacaine.

A

Chloroprocaine: Rapid
Bupivacaine: Slow

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14
Q

What vasoconstrictors can be utilized with local anesthetics?

A

Epinephrine
Phenylephrine

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15
Q

Why is it important to use vasoconstrictors with LA?

A
  • The duration of action of a LA is proportional to the time the drug is in contact with nerve fibers.
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16
Q

What are the results of using vasoconstrictors with LA?

A
  • Produce vasoconstriction
  • Increased neuronal uptake of LA
  • α-adrenergic effects may have some degree of analgesia
  • No effect on the onset rate of LA
  • Enhanced cardiac irritability with inhaled anesthetics
  • Systemic absorption → HTN (tachycardia)
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17
Q

What is epinephrine 1:200,000 mean?

Convert that to mcg/mL.

A

1:200,000 means 1 gram of epinephrine is dissolved in 200,000 mL of solvent.

  • 1g/200,000 mL
  • 1000mg/200,000 mL
  • 1 mg/200 mL
  • 1000 mcg/200 mL
  • 10 mcg/2 mL
  • 5 mcg/mL
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18
Q

Compute 1:500,000 to mcg/mL

A

2 mcg/mL

  • 1 g/500,000 mL
  • 1000 mg/500,000 mL
  • 1 mg /500 mL
  • 1000 mcg/500 mL
  • 10 mcg/5 mL
  • 2 mcg/mL

Shortcut: 1,000,000 divided by the solvent number. 1 million/500,000 = 2 mcg/mL

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19
Q

Epinephrine as an additive to LA’s:
* 1:200,000 epi =
* 1:500,000 epi =
* 1: 10,000 epi =
* 1:1,000 epi =

A
  • 5mcg/mL
  • 2mcg/mL
  • 100mcg/mL
  • 1000mcg/mL or 1mg/mL
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20
Q

Local anesthetic strengths:
* 0.25% =
* 0.5% =
* 1% =
* 2% =
* 4% =

A
  • 2.5mg/mL
  • 5mg/mL
  • 10mg/mL
  • 20mg/mL
  • 40mg/mL
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21
Q

What percent lidocaine is most commonly used in the OR?

A

2% which equals 20mg/mL

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22
Q

Your surgeon injected 20 mLs of Bupivacaine 0.25% with 1:200,000 of Epi.

What are the total mgs for Bupivacaine and the total mcgs for Epinephrine?

A

Bupivacaine:
0.25% = 2.5 mgs/mL
2.5 mgs x 20 mLs = 50 mgs total

Epinephrine:
1:200,000 = 5 mcg/mL
5 mcg x 20 mLs = 100 mcg total

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23
Q

What is the most common use of local anesthetics?

A

Topical,

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24
Q

What is the Lidocaine Recommended Max Single Dose for Spinal?

A

100 mg

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25
Q

Mepivacaine Recommended Max Single Dose

Mepivacaine Recommended Max Single Dose with/Epi

Mepivacaine Recommended Max Single Dose for Spinal

A

400 mg

500 mg w/ Epi

100 mg

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26
Q

Prilocaine Recommended Max Single Dose

A

600 mg

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27
Q

Bupivacaine Recommended Max Single Dose

Bupivacaine Recommended Max Single Dose with/Epi

Bupivacaine Recommended Max Single Dose for Spinal

A

175 mg

225 mg w/ Epi

20 mg

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28
Q

112.5 mg of Bupivacaine with Epi and 250 mg of Lidocaine with Epi were given during surgery.

What are the percentages of each LA based on the recommended max single dose in mg?

A

Max single dose of Bupivacaine with Epi: 225 mg
112.5/225 = 50%

Max single dose of Lidocaine with Epi: 500 mg
250/500 = 50%

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29
Q

Where are topical anesthetics applicable?

A

Applicable on the mucous membranes of the nose, mouth, tracheobronchial tree, esophagus, or GU tract.

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30
Q

Which anesthetic has localized vasoconstriction that will decrease blood loss and improve surgical visualization?

A

Cocaine (4-10%)

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31
Q
  • Which anesthetic is great with surface anesthesia?
  • Inhalation of this drug does not alter what?
  • What does it cause?
A
  • Lidocaine (2-4%)
  • airway resistance
  • vasodilation
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32
Q

Which local anesthetics are not effective for topical anesthesia?

A

Procaine and Chloroprocaine

These drugs do not penetrate mucous membranes as effectively as cocaine or lidocaine.

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33
Q

What is does LTA stand for?

A
  • Lidocaine tracheal anesthesia
  • prefilled with 4mLs of 4% lidocaine which equals a total of 160mg of lidocaine endotracheally.
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34
Q

Eutectic Mixture of LA (EMLA) contains what two local anesthetics?
Dose:
Onset:

A

Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5% = 5% LA
Dose: 1 to 2 g/ 10 cm2 area
Onset: 45 mins

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35
Q

EMLA has to be applied for ____ hours before skin graft.

A

2 hours

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36
Q

EMLA can be applied for 10 minutes before any of these procedures:

A
  • Cautery of genital warts
  • Venipuncture, lumbar puncture
  • Arterial cannulation (comparable Nitroglycerine)
  • Myringotomy
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37
Q

What considerations should one have when using EMLA ?

A
  • Caution with methemoglobinemia due to the prilocaine
  • No open skin wounds
  • No amide allergy patients
38
Q

Other Topical Anesthesia Preparations besides EMLA

A
  • Amethocaine (EMLA-like)
  • Tetracaine 4% Gel
  • Lidocaine 7%
  • Tetracaine 7%
39
Q

What is considered local infiltration with LA?

A

Extravascular placement of LA (subcutaneous injection)

40
Q

What LAs are used on inguinal operative sites for local infiltration with an LA?
* The duration is ___ by adding 1:200,000 epi.

A
  • Lidocaine 1% or 2%
  • Ropivacaine 0.25%
  • Bupivacaine 0.25%
  • Doubled
41
Q

What are the contraindications of using epinephrine on LA for local infiltrations?

A
  • Not to be given intracutaneously or into tissues at end arteries such as fingers, toes, ears, nose, penis

Can cause ischemia and necrosis.

42
Q

How is Peripheral Nerve Block achieved?

MOA?

A

Achieved by LA injection into tissues surrounding individual peripheral nerves or nerve plexuses.

MOA: diffusion from outer mantle to central core of nerve along a concentration gradient.

* Smallest sensory and ANS fibers first, then larger motor and proprioceptive axons.* They will feel numbness first, then won’t be able to move their arm last.

43
Q

What area (proximal or distal) is affected first with local anesthetic administration?

A

The proximal area (site of LA administration) is affected first and then distal.

44
Q

When the peripheral nerve block is wearing off, what comes back first? Proximal or Distal?

A

Proximal comes back first & then distal.

45
Q

Peripheral Nerve Block onset of action is dependent on the local anesthetic’s _________.

46
Q

For a peripheral nerve block what is the onset of:
* Lidocane?
* Bupivicane?

A
  • 3 minutes
  • 15 minutes
47
Q

The duration of a peripheral nerve block depends on the _____ of the local anesthetic.

48
Q

What are the benefits of a continuous infusion block?

A
  • Improved pain control
  • Less nausea
  • Greater satisfaction
  • Additives are used with continuous infusion blocks (ie: Ketolorac, Ketamine, Decadron)
49
Q

What are 4 examples of peripheral nerve blocks?

A
  • Interscalene
  • Axillary
  • Femoral
  • Sciatic
50
Q

What sign on the ultrasound are you looking for in a interscalene block?

A

Stoplight sign

51
Q

What is a Regional Bier Block?

A

Bier Block IV regional injection of LA into an extremity isolated from the rest of the systemic circulation with a tourniquet.

Sensation and muscle tone return dependent on tourniquet release

52
Q

What LA is commonly used in Bier Block?

53
Q

Who invented the Bier block?

A

August Bier

54
Q

What are the steps to performing a Bier Block?

A

IV start
Exsanguination
Double cuff
LA injection
IV D/C

55
Q

What is the sequence of blockades for a segmental block in Neuraxial Anesthesia?

A
  1. SNS (Myelinated preganglionic B fibers)
  2. Sensory (Myelinated A, B fibers, unmyelinated C fibers)
  3. Motor (Myelinated A-δ and unmyelinated C fibers)
56
Q

Which of the following will be the last sign associated with injection of an anesthetic for neuraxial blockade?

A. NIBP
B. Heart Rate
C. Cold Alcohol Pad
D. Leg Movement

A

D. Leg Movement

57
Q

Which of the following will be the first 2 signs associated with injection of an anesthetic for neuraxial blockade?

A. NIBP (SNS)
B. Heart Rate (SNS)
C. Cold Alcohol Pad (Sensory)
D. Leg Movement (motor)

A

NIBP decrease
and HR decrease

58
Q

How is a Spinal Anesthesia Block (SAB) produced?

A

Subarachnoid local anesthetic injection

59
Q

What is used for confirmation of a Spinal Anesthesia Block (SAB)?

60
Q

What is the principal site of action for sub arachnoid block?

A

Preganglionic fiber

61
Q

For SAB, the _______ effect is on the same level of denervation.

62
Q

For SAB, the _______ effect is 2 spinal segments cephalad (above) of the sensory block.

For SAB, the _______ effect is 2 spinal segments below the sensory block.

63
Q

If the sensory block is at T5, where is the SNS block?

A

T3

This SNS block will trigger an asystole event.

64
Q

What dermatomes correspond with our cardiac accelerator?

A

T1 to T4.
Do not block the SNS of T1-T4

65
Q

Clinical Scenario Slide:
If the assessed sensory level after SAB is T6 ( Top of Xiphoid Process), what are the blocked SNS and motor levels?

A

SNS Block: T4 (nipple line)
Motor Block: T8 (lower edge of rib cage

66
Q

On the dermatone man, where is T10?

A

Umbilical region

67
Q

What are the most common local anesthetics used in SABs ?

A

Most common: Tetracaine, Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Ropivacaine, and Levobupivacaine

68
Q

What factors affect SAB dosage?

A
  • Height of patient (volume of subarachnoid space)
  • Segmental level of anesthesia desired
  • Duration of anesthesia desired
69
Q

For SAB, ____ is more important than ____ of drug (%) or the volume (mLs) of the solution injection.

A

Dose; Concentration

70
Q

What is the dose of bupivacaine for the scenario below?

5 ft tall patient = ____mL of 0.75% Bupivacaine
+ ______ mL for every inch above 5ft, 2mL total ( 1½ hours to 2 hours)

A

1 mL
0.1 mL

For someone who is 5’5”, you will give 1.5 mL of bupivacaine for a SAB.

71
Q

What dose of 0.75% bupivacaine would be indicated for a 6’7” patient undergoing a SAB?

A

2.9mL

1mL for 5ft tall
1.9mL for other 19inches

However, the max is 2mLs total

72
Q

For SAB, the _________ of LA is important in determining the spread of the drug.

A

specific gravity

73
Q

What can be added to LA so that its specific gravity can increase?

What can be added to LA so that its specific gravity can decrease?

A

Glucose added → hyperbaric solution.

Distilled water added → hypobaric solution

74
Q

Which side will you want to position a right-hip arthroplasty patient on if they receive a hyperbaric LA solution?

A

Right side lying, the hyperbaric solution will “sink.”

75
Q

Which side will you want to position a right-hip arthroplasty patient on if they receive a hypobaric LA solution?

A

Left side lying, the hypobaric solution will “float”.

76
Q

The most common LA used in Epidural Anesthesia.

A

Lidocaine

Good diffusion through tissue and safer

77
Q

What is the onset of epidural anesthesia?

A

Onset: 15 to 30 minutes

78
Q

Epi 1:200,000 with ___________ offers no advantage in an epidural block.

A

bupivacaine

79
Q

Can epidural anesthesia cross the placental barrier with OB and C-section patients?

A

Yes. Lidocaine will cross the BBB more than bupivicaine because it is more rapid in onset of action

80
Q

How long is the effect on the fetus with epidural anesthesia?

A

24-48 hours

81
Q

What is the difference between SAB and epidural blocks?

A

No differential zone of SNS, sensory, and motor blockade. The zones are all the same with epidurals.
Larger doses are required for epidurals to have the differential sensory, SNS, and motor blockade zones

82
Q

What is considered an acceptable additive to both epidural and SAB to produce a synergistic effect?

83
Q

What is Tumescent liposuction?

A

Subcutaneous infiltration of large volume (5L or more)

84
Q

What makes up the tumescent solution?

A
  • Diluted Lidocaine (0.05% to 0.1%)
  • Epinephrine 1:100,000
85
Q

What causes the tumescent effect?

A

The taunt stretching of overlying blanched skin d/t large volume → Tumescent Effect

Fat can be aspirated without blood loss and provide prolonged post-op analgesia.

86
Q

Where is tumescent usually administered?

A
  • Thigh
  • Abdomen
  • Hips
  • Buttocks
87
Q

When is the plasma peak for tumescent anesthesia?

A

12 to 14 hours s/p injection.

88
Q

What is the dose for Regional Anesthesia Lidocaine with Epi for tumescent liposuction?

89
Q

Highly diluted Lidocaine with Epi Tumescent dose.

A

35 to 55 mg/kg

90
Q

What is the theory with the Tissue Buffering System?

A

1 gram of SQ can absorb up to 1 mg of Lidocaine

Anesthesia Pharm (Spring 2025) (20 decks)

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