Local Anesthetics (Exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

What factors determine the rate and extent of systemic absorption of local anesthetics?

A
  • Site of injection
  • dose
  • physicochemical properties
  • addition of epinephrine
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2
Q

Decreased absorption leads to ________ systemic toxicity

A

Decreased absorption leads to decreased systemic toxicity.

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3
Q

Which areas have more rapid uptake of local anesthetics - greater vascularity or more fat?

A

Greater vascularity leads to more rapid uptake than areas with more fat.

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4
Q

What is the order of absorption rates for local anesthetics?

A

Interpleural > intercoastal > caudal > epidural > brachial plexus > sciatic/femoral > subcutaneous.

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5
Q

What is the relationship between total dose and absorption of local anesthetics?

A

The greater the total dose, the greater the absorption.

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6
Q

How do lipid solubility and protein binding affect absorption?

A

Higher lipid solubility and protein-bound compounds have decreased absorption.

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7
Q

How are local anesthetics distributed in the body?

A

Rapidly throughout all body tissues.

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8
Q

What factors does distribution depend on?

A
  • Organ perfusion
  • Partition coefficient
  • Plasma protein binding
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9
Q

Which organs are most vulnerable to local anesthetic toxicity?

A

Cardiovascular and central nervous systems.

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10
Q

How are esters eliminated?

A

Hydrolysis of ester by plasma cholinesterases.

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11
Q

How are amides eliminated?

A

Mixed function oxidase system of liver (e.g., p450).

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12
Q

What factors increase toxicity of local anesthetics?

A
  • young and old
  • Pregnancy
  • Hepatic disease
  • Decreased cardiac output
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13
Q

Why do young and old increase toxicity?

A

due to decreased clearance and increased absorption.

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14
Q

How does pregnancy affect local anesthetic clearance?

A

Decreased clearance in pregnancy increases potential for toxicity.

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15
Q

Why hepatic disease and decreased cardiac output increase toxicity?

A
  • ↓ perfusion or liver metabolism → slower clearance.
  • Avoid regional blocks in shocky or low perfusion states.
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16
Q

What is the relative potency ranking of local anesthetics?

A

Bupivacaine = levobupivacaine > etidocaine > ropivacaine > mepivacaine = lidocaine = prilocaine > esters.

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17
Q

Which local anesthetic is the weakeast?

A

prilocaine, seen mainly in EMLA cream

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18
Q

How do local anesthetics affect the central nervous system?

A

Most local anesthetics are liphophilic –> They readily cross the blood-brain barrier and toxicity is dose-dependent.

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19
Q

What is complex behavior of bupivacaine?

A
  • Highly lipid-soluble → crosses BBB.
  • Also highly protein-bound, which limits free drug in circulation.
  • May cause cardiac toxicity before CNS symptoms, or vice versa — depends on dose and patient factors.
20
Q

What happens at low plasma levels of local anesthetics?

A

CNS depression/sedation occurs (early sign)

21
Q

What happens at higher plasma levels of local anesthetics?

A

CNS excitation progressing to SZ.
Example: Patient with recurrent V-tach was stabilized on lidocaine drip, gradually increased up to 6 mg/min →Developed CNS signs (sedation, tics, agitation) → classic signs of lidocaine toxicity

22
Q

Why other Sodium Channel Blockers don’t cause CNS toxicity (quinidine, procainamide)?

A
  • high protein binding
  • lower lipophilicity
  • large molecular size
23
Q

How can overt toxicity of local anesthetics be avoided or masked?

A

By benzodiazepines and barbiturates. They raise the seizure threshold.
(However, SZ may emerge later during recovery b/c GABA drugs wear off).

24
Q

Which one is the strong motor and sensory block?

A

Bupivicaine

25
Q

Which one is more favor in labor?

A

Ropivacaine: less dense motor block, allows more mobility

26
Q

What factors increase the potential for CNS toxicity in local anesthetics?

A
  • Decreased protein binding
  • decreased clearance
  • rapid rate of intravenous administration acidosis
  • increased pCO2.
27
Q

High dose or low dose causes Cardiovascular Toxicity?

A

Requires higher doses, unless using a high-potency agent (e.g., bupivacaine).
For example: Lidocaine: relatively safe unless dosed excessively will cause cardiovascular toxicity (bradycardia, hypotension, or smoldering arrhythmias).
Except: Bupivacaine: more likely to cause cardiac arrest (VT/VF, asystole) at lower doses.
On the other hand, CNS toxicity doesn’t require higher dose of local anesthetics.

28
Q

How does cardiovascular toxicity differ between lidocaine and bupivicaine?

A
  • Lidocaine (lower potency) typically exhibits CV toxicity as hypotension, bradycardia, hypoxia
  • whereas bupivicaine (higher potency) demonstrates sudden CV collapse secondary to ventricular arrhythmias that are resistant to treatment (QRS width/duration widened)
29
Q

What is a characteristic of bupivicaine’s action?

A
  • Bupivicaine dissociates slower during diastole (prolonged blockade at Na channels)
  • Crosses BBB → inhibits vasomotor center (NTS) → hypotension and loss of autonomic tone.
  • peripheral sympathetic inhibition → direct vasodilation → worsen perfusion during CPR
30
Q

Bupivacaine = levobupivacaine > etidocaine > ropivacaine > mepivacaine = lidocaine = prilocaine > esters.
Which side is more cardio toxic? which side is more neuro toxic?

A

From ropivicaine to the left : cardio toxic
From ropivicaine to the right: neuro toxic

31
Q

What causes neurotoxicity in local anesthetics?

A
  • Injury to Schwann cells
  • inhibition of fast axonal transport
  • disruption of blood/nerve barrier
  • decreased blood flow with ischemia
32
Q

Which one is more resistant to damage? peripheral nerves or spinal cord?

A

peripheral nerves

33
Q

What are transient neurologic symptoms (TNS) after spinal anesthesia?

A

Pain radiating from lower back to buttocks and lower extremities.

34
Q

What are the risk factors for TNS after spinal anesthesia?

A
  • Spinal administration of lidocaine (up to 40%, except in OB, OB population immuned to lidocaine induced TNS)
  • lithotomy position
  • ambulatory surgical status
  • arthroscopic knee surgery
  • obesity
35
Q

When do transient neurologic symptoms typically occur after surgery?

A

12-23 hours after surgery, with recovery usually within a week.

36
Q

What is the treatment for transient neurologic symptoms after spinal anesthesia?

A

Opioids, NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, warm heat and positioning, and possible trigger point injections.

37
Q

What must be ruled out when diagnosing transient neurologic symptoms?

A

Other causes such as hematoma, abscess, or cauda equina syndrome.

38
Q

What is procaine?

A

Aminoester derivative of para-aminobenzoic acid with a max single dose of 7mg/kg, max of 350 - 600 mg, cap at 350mg for children

39
Q

What are procaine’s properties?

A
  • has a high pKa and poor lipid solubility → make it a relatively weak local anesthetic with a slow onset and short duration of action (30-60 minutes).
  • Toxicity is limited by rapid hydrolysis.
40
Q

What are the clinical uses of Procaine?

A
  • used for infiltration (0.25-1%) and spinal anesthesia (50-200 mg).
  • not used topically and has very limited use in epidural, peripheral block, and intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA).
41
Q

What are the characteristics of Chloroprocaine?

A
  • derivative of procaine
  • max single dose of 800 mg (1000 mg with epinephrine).
  • has a rapid onset of action with more rapid metabolism than procaine (plasma half-life 30 seconds).
  • Used as Infiltration—1%
  • Used in Epidural and peripheral nerve block—2-3%
  • Intravenous—inhibits sympathetic response to laryngoscopy
  • and intubation
  • Used primarily for epidural anesthesia during c-section
42
Q

What are the benefits of using Chloroprocaine?

A

Chloroprocaine has rapid onset, decreased toxicity, and rapid recovery and discharge.

43
Q

What is the drawback of chloroprocaine?

A

EDTA as a preservative (>40 ml) can cause severe paravertebral muscle spasm after resolution of the epidural block; this can be avoided by using <25 ml of preservative-free formulation.

44
Q

What are the characteristics of Tetracaine?

A

Tetracaine is a butylaminobenzoic acid derivative of procaine with a max single dose of 20 mg.
It is potent and long-acting.

45
Q

How is tetracaine used in spinal?

A
  • For spinal use, it is administered at 0.5-1% concentration with a 3-5 minute onset and a duration of 2-3 hours (duration increased to 4-6 hours if co-administered with epinephrine).