Local Anesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

3 structural parts of local anesthetics.

A
  1. lipophilic aromatic ring 2. An intermediate hydrocarbon chain with an ester or amide bond 3. hydrophilic tertiary or quaternary amine. Benzocaine is the only one that has a secondary amine.
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2
Q

Which LAs are chiral drugs.

A

Mepivicaine, bupivicaine, ropivicaine, and levobupivicaine

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3
Q

Which two drugs exist as racemic mixtures? What significance do the enantiomers of drugs have clinically?

A
  1. Mepivicaine and bupivicaine. 2. S enantiomers tend to be less neurotoxic and cardiotoxic than racemic mixtures or the R enantiomers of local anesthetics.
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4
Q

Which nerve fibers are the largest in diameter and the most heavily myelinated?

A

A-Alpha fibers

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5
Q

Which are the only fibers that are unmyelinated?

A

C fibers

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6
Q

Metabolism of ester LAs

A

rapid hydrolysis by plasma and tissue cholinesterase

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7
Q

Metabolism of amide LAs

A

CYP enzymes in the liver. Dealkylation and hydroxylation mechanisms.

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8
Q

Lung extraction occurs with which LAs? Which drug is known to impair this extraction from the lungs?

A

lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Propanolol, possibly due to a common receptor site.

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9
Q

What is the significance of prolonged labor in a mother who has received LA.

A

Fetal acidosis can result in accumulation of LA molecules in the fetus (ion trapping).

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10
Q

Among the amide LA, which two drugs undergo the slowest metabolism? Which is the fastest?

A

Bupivacaine and ropivacaine. Prilocaine is the fastest. Lidocaine and mepivacaine are intermediate.

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11
Q

MOA of LAs

A

They work on voltage-gated sodium channels, preventing sodium ion channel permeability. The rate of depolarization is slowed down such that the threshold potential is not reached and thus an action potential is not generated. They do NOT alter the resting transmembrane potential or threshold potential.

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12
Q

What 3 states for Na+ channels exist in during an action potential. LA bind to Na+ in what state?

A

inactivated-closed state, activated-open state, and resting-closed state. LAs bind to Na+ channels in inactivated-closed states, stabilizing these channels in this configuration and preventing their change to activated-open and resting-closed states in response to nerve impulses.

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13
Q

Where do LA bind on the Na+ receptor?

A

On the inner portion of Na+ receptors (internal gate or H gate). They also obstruct Na+ channels near their external opening to maintain channels in the inactivated-closed state.

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14
Q

What is minimum effective concentration (Cm)?

A

The minimum concentration of LA necessary to produce conduction blockade of nerve impulses. It is analogous to MAC for inhaled anesthetics.

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15
Q

Susceptibility to block depends on what factors?

A
  1. Length of nerve fiber being exposed to LA 2. Presence of myelin 3. Size of fiber (larger fibers require greater Cm) 4. Position of fiber in nerve bundle 5. The characteristics of the specific LA
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16
Q

Increased tissue pH or high-frequency nerve stimulation _____ Cm.

A

Decreases

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17
Q

Which fibers are more readily blocked first?

A

Preganglionic B fibers, even though they’re myelinated, they are the first to be encountered as they surround the outside of the nerve bundle.

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18
Q

Which nerve fibers are most SENSITIVE to LA?

A

large myelinated > smaller myelinated > unmyelinated

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19
Q

Metabolism of lidocaine

A

oxidative dealkylation in the liver to monoethylglycinexylidide (MEGX) followed by hydrolysis to xylidide

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20
Q

MEGX action and SE

A

Has approx. 80% of the activity of lido in protecting against cardiac dysrhythmias. Has a prolonged half-life, accounting for its efficacy in controlling dysrhythmias after infusion of lido is d/c’d. May be seizuregenic!

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21
Q

Which LA is associated with methemoglobinemia? Why does this occur? What is the treatment?

A
  1. Prilocaine 2. It is metabolized to orthotoluidine, which is an oxidizing compound capable of converting Hgb to its oxidized form, methemoglobin. 3. Methylene blue 1-2 mg/kg IV over 5 minutes
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22
Q

Why should mepivacaine not be used in obstetrics?

A

Fetus is unable to metabilize double ring stucture leading to a prolonged half-life and possible toxicity.

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23
Q

Compared to lidocaine, what is the duration of action and vasodilatory effects of mepivacaine?

A

Duration of action is longer than lido and it lacks vasodilator activity so epi is usually not necessary.

24
Q

What is the most important plasma protein binding site for bupivacaine and ropivacaine?

A

a1-acid glycoprotein. Protein binding 95% and 94% respectively.

25
Q

What is procaine metabolized to?

A

Paraaminobenzoic acid (PABA)

26
Q

Metabolism of chloroprocaine.

A

Chloride substitution of the aromatic ring increases the susceptibility of ester ring to hydrolysis. Most rapidly hydrolyzed of the ester LA.

27
Q

What is the longest acting ester LA?

A

Tetracaine

28
Q

What does the alkalinization of LA solutions do?

A

It shortens the ONSET of blockade, enhances the depth of sensory and motor blockade, and increases the spread of epidural blockade. It increases the % of LA existing in nonionized form.

29
Q

What is the primary site at which LA exert their action?

A

nodes of Ranvier. Voltage-gated sodium channels are located in these nonmyelinated segments; action potentials jump from node to node.

30
Q

Peripheral nerves are composed of what 3 layers of connective tissue?

A

the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium.

31
Q

What is the guarded receptor or modulated receptor hypothesis of local anesthetic action?

A

The concept that local anesthetics preferentially bind to both the open and inactivated states and not to the closed(resting) state.

32
Q

What is use-dependent or phasic block?

A

The concept that LAs work faster as the Na channels are repetitively depolarized.

33
Q

Which local anesthetic is a secondary amine and thus permanently nonionized or neutral?

A

Benzocaine

34
Q

Factors that affect the duration of action of LA

A

Systemic absorption away from the deposition site results in the offset and termination of drug effect. Absorption is affected by vascularity and blood flow of the injection area, lipid and protein binding, and addition of vasoconstrictors.

35
Q

Increased lipid solubility correlates with ____ protein binding, ____ potency, ____ duration of action, and a _____ tendency for severe cardiac toxicity.

A

increased, increased, longer, and higher

36
Q

LA are weak ___ and bind mainly to what type of protein?

A

bases. a1-acid glycoprotein

37
Q

What is the most important factor affecting the onset of action of LA?

A

Degree of ionization. The more ionized a LA, the slower the onset.

38
Q
A
39
Q

What type of block has a greater potential for toxicity?

A

Intrapleural/intracostal blocks due to higher rates of absorption

40
Q

What is state-dependent blockade?

A

block depends on the state of the sodium channel receptor: resting vs activated vs inactivated

41
Q

Local anesthetics can only gain access to receptors when sodium channels are in what state?

A

activated-open

42
Q

Local anesthetics bind more strongly when sodium channels are in what state?

A

inactivated (hyperpolarized) state

43
Q

Local anesthetics containing methylparaben (a preservative) should never be used in what type of blocks?

A

Neuraxial blocks

44
Q

pKa of 2-chloroprocaine. What accounts for the rapid onset of action despite its higher pKa?

A

9.0

The clinical use of high concentrations of the drug attenuates the ionization effect.

45
Q

Max dose of 2-chloroprocaine and duration of action

A

11 mg/kg or 800 mg total, 30-45 min

with epi: 14 mg/kg or 1000 mg, 30-90 min

46
Q

2% 2-chloroprocaine use

3% 2-chloroprocaine use

A

2% used for epidural blockade

3% used for peripheral nerve block

47
Q

2-chloroprocaine should not be used in patients with which type of allergy?

A

sulfa due to the sodium bisulfate preservative

48
Q

Clinical use for:

1% tetracaine

2% tetracaine

A

1% for spinal anesthesia; reconstituted with D10, CSF, or sterile water

2% for topical anesthetic

49
Q

Max dose of lidocaine and duration of action

A

4.5 mg/kg or 300 mg without epi; duration 30-120 min

7 mg/kg or 500 mg with epi; duration 120-360 min

50
Q

Max dose of mepivacaine and duration of action

A

5 mg/kg or 400 mg plain; duration 60-140 min

7 mg/kg or 500 mg w/epi, duration 140-200 min

51
Q

EMLA cream

A

2.5% prilocaine and 2.5% lidocaine

52
Q

Max dose of bupivacaine and duration of action

A

2 mg/kg or 175 mg total; 120-240 min

2.5 mg/kg or 225 mg total; 180-420 min

53
Q

Max dosage of Ropivacaine and duration of action

A

200 mg for minor nerve block with or w/o epi; 2-6 hr

54
Q

Management of LAST

A

Protect airway, supplemental O2, anticonvulsants for seizures (versed NOT propofol), and 20% lipid emulsion 1-3 mg/kg (bolus may be repeated 2 or 3 times) followed by continuous infusion of 0.25-0.5 mg/kg/hr

55
Q

pKa and protein binding of lidocaine

A

7.9 and 65%

56
Q

pKa and protein binding of bupivacaine

A

8.1 and 95%

57
Q

pKa and protein binding of ropivacaine

A

8.1 and 94%