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ZKC - Trails > LOAs/SOPs > Flashcards

LOAs/SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

How do APA (Centennial Airport) and BJC (Rocky Mountain Metro) arrivals need to be routed?

A

Over FRAAY or CAARS and then the DUNNN Star as indicated by the ATC Preferred Route (APR) cyan colored coding
(ZDV/ZKC LOA)

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2
Q

MCI Approach has control of all terminal area arrivals __ nm from the boundary for descent and turns not to exceed __ degrees

A

20nm, 90 degrees

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3
Q

Does speed info on arrivals need to be forwarded to MCI Approach?

A

No

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4
Q

During On Course Operations -

ZKC may delete the use of

A

Arrival Routes and crossing restrictions

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5
Q

Non-Mode C aircraft shall be _____ _______ prior to handoff

A

Verbally coordinated

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6
Q

During On Course Operations-

Tracon will use ____

A

ADRs

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7
Q

During On Course Operations-

MCI may delete the use of ___

A

Gates

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8
Q

ZKC and MCI Approach will operate in the “On-Course” configuration from ___ to ____

A

11pm to 6am local

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9
Q

MCI Turbo Jet Arrivals shall be assigned a ____

A

STAR

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10
Q

MCI Turbojet satellite arrivals from the northwest shall be assigned direct _____, direct _____

A

Direct JSONN, direct JUDAA

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11
Q

MCI Turbojet Arrivals shall cross JHAWK, BQS, JSONN, TYGER or the boundary at

A

12,000 feet

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12
Q

In the event of an overtake for aircraft landing at an airport other than MCI, you may issue a crossing restriction of

A

11,000 feet

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13
Q

MCI Runway 19 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

JHAWK

A

Pilot Discretion 12,000 (Long side)

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14
Q

MCI Runway 19 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

TYGER

A

Pilot Discretion 12,000 ft (Long Side)

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15
Q

MCI Runway 19 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

BQS

A

Cross at 12,000 (short side)

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16
Q

MCI Runway 19 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

JSONN

A

Cross at 12,000 ft (short side)

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17
Q

MCI Runway 1 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

JSONN

A

Pilot Discretion 12,000 (Long Side)

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18
Q

MCI Runway 1 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

BQS

A

Pilot Discretion 12,000 (Long side)

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19
Q

MCI Runway 1 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

TYGER

A

Cross at 12,000 (short side)

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20
Q

MCI Runway 1 Turbojet Crossing Restriction

JHAWK

A

Cross at 12,000 (short side)

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21
Q

OJC/IXD turbojet arrivals cross TYGER at ____

A

11,000

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22
Q

OJC/IXD turbojet arrivals cross JHAWK at _____

A

7000

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23
Q

FLV/STJ turbojet arrivals cross BQS at ____

A

11,000

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24
Q

FLV/STJ turbojet arrivals cross JSONN at ____

A

7000

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25
Q

If MCI is in North or South flow, turbojet arrivals landing at satellite airports coming from the east between BQS and TYGER inclusive, may be routed:

A

Direct LEXIN, direct LYMES, direct dest, cross LEXIN at 8,000

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26
Q

MCI in east or west flow turbojet arrivals shall cross JSONN, TYGER, JHAWK, BQS at ____

A

12,000 ft

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27
Q

OJC/IXD turbojet arrivals entering MCI Approach from TYGER through JHAWK inclusive will be cleared:

A

Direct destination, cross boundary at 6000ft

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28
Q

STJ Turbojet arrivals entering MCI Approach from JSONN through BQS inclusive may be cleared:

A

Direct destination, cross boundary at 6,000 ft

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29
Q

Turboprop/Piston arrivals shall be routed through an arrival gate ____ on the long side and ____ through ____ on the short side

A

11,000 feet long side

10,000 through 8000 on the short side

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30
Q

Turboprop/Piston arrivals in MCI Approach airspace AOB ___ may be cleared ____

A

AOB 7000 may be cleared direct destination

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31
Q

OJC/IXD turboprop/piston arrivals entering MCI Approach from JSONN through BQS may be cleared _______ to cross the boundary ______

A

May be cleared direct destination to cross the boundary AOB 10,000

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32
Q

Turbojet/Turboprop aircraft landing TOP/FOE operating AOA ____ shall be cleared _____ and cross MCI at ______

A

AOA 16,000 shall be cleared direct LEXIN..MCI..OZAKI..TOP/FOE and cross MCI at 16,000

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33
Q

Turbojet/Turboprop aircraft landing TOP/FOE north of a line of IRK may be cleared _____ and shall cross MCI at _____

A

Direct MCI..OZAKI..TOP/FOE and shall cross MCI at 16,000

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34
Q

Turbojet/Turboprop aircraft landing TOP/FOE shall be handed off to:

A

The west departure controller

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35
Q

MCI Approach has control for turns ___ of MCI and clear aircraft direct TOP/FOE prior to comm change from 44

A

West

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36
Q

Turbojet/Turboprop aircraft landing LWC operating AOA ____ shall be cleared _____ to cross the MCI/ZKC eastern boundary at ______

A

AOA 16,000 shall be cleared direct MCI..LWC to cross the boundary at 16,000

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37
Q

Turbojet/Turboprop aircraft landing LWC shall be handed off to:

A

Appropriate departure controller

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38
Q

Turbojet aircraft landing TOP/FOE/LWC AOB ____ shall cross the boundary at ____

A

15,000 shall cross the boundary at filed altitude

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39
Q

Turboprop/Piston aircraft landing TOP/FOE/LWC shall cross the boundary at ____ or _____ if lower

A

12,000 or filed altitude if lower

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40
Q

TRACON has control for descent ____nm from the boundary

A

20nm

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41
Q

TOP/FOE/LWC arrivals exit MCI Approach airspace descending to ____ or level at ____

A

Descending to 6000 or level at 4000

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42
Q

ZKC has control for descent and radar vectors up to ____ degrees ____ nm from the Sector 44 shelf/MCI approach boundary

A

30 degrees, 10 nm from the boundary

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43
Q

ZKC may assume control of departures/overflights for ___ degree turns ___ nm from MCI VOR or when aircraft is out of ____ assuming aircraft is at least ___ miles from the arrival gate

A

90 degrees turns, 20 nm from the MCI VOR or when the aircraft is out of 11,000. Aircraft must be at least 2.5 miles away from the arrival gate

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44
Q

Turboprop/Piston aircraft will be assigned ___ or requested altitude if lower. In the event of an overtake, TRACON can assign ____ to one of the aircraft.

A

15,000 feet or requested altitude if lower. TRACON can assign 8000 to an aircraft if an overtake exists

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45
Q

Aircraft departing STJ entering FPA46 Northbound shall be assigned ___ or filed altitude if lower. ZKC has control for climb and radar vectors toward filed route or destination leaving ___

A

Shall be assigned 5000 ft, ZKC has control for climb and vectors leaving 4,000 ft

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46
Q

Overflights enter and exit MCI Approach airspace ____

A

On Course

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47
Q

ZKC may hold at ____, _____, _____, _____, at _____ through ______

A

JSONN, BQS, JHAWK, TYGER at 7000 through 14,000 feet

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48
Q

ZMP/ZKC

Data Blocks shall reflect the aircraft’s ____ at the time of handoff

A

Assigned Altitude

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49
Q

ZKC/ZMP

Handoffs shall be made to appropriate sector for aircraft’s _____

A

Altitude assignment

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50
Q

ZKC/ZMP

Acceptance of an automated radar handoff constitutes approval coordination for the aircraft to _____________

A

Climb or descend to the displayed altitude

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51
Q

Interim altitudes is ____ between ZKC/ZMP

A

Authorized

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52
Q

ZKC/ZMP

If unable to approve coordinated altitude, receiving controller shall:

A

Verbally coordinate with transferring controller prior to accepting handoff

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53
Q

AIT Procedures between ZKC/ZMP is allowed if:
Aircraft have ___
Both Centers are operating on ____

A

Aircraft have a functioning Mode C transponder

Both centers are operating on ERAM with Surveillance Data Processing, Flight Data processing and safety alert processing

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54
Q

ZMP/ZKC may assume control for beacon code changes and turns not more than ____ degrees when the aircraft is AOA _____ and within ____nm from the boundary

A

Turns not more than 20 degrees when the aircraft is AOA 10,000 and within 20nm from the boundary

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55
Q

ZKC between 0600-2359 shall clear aircraft landing at DSM east of ___ to enter ZMP AOB ____ descending to ___. Descent may be pilot’s discretion

A

East of J21 to enter AOB FL280 descending to FL240.

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56
Q

DSM Arrivals between 0600-2359:
Transfer comms to Sector __ when EDST indicates they’ve accepted the handoff by the boundary. Otherwise transfer comms to Sector ___

A

Transfer comms to Sector 27 (OMA Lo), if not accepted by boundary transfer to Sector 38 (LMN)

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57
Q

Turbojet/turboprop aircraft landing at OMA or OFF airport AOA ____ shall be routed via _____ or ______

A

AOA 11,000 shall be routed via the TIMMO or MARWI Stars. They may be routed direct MARWI

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58
Q

Aircraft landing at LNK, OMA, OFF and MLE entering ZMP west of BACNN must be AOB _____ descending to _____. Descent may be pilot’s discretion

A

AOB FL280 descending to FL240

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59
Q

Aircraft landing LNK, OMA, OFF and MLE east of BACNN must be AOB ____. ZKC releases control for descent to ___ within ___nm from the boundary

A

AOB FL320, ZKC released control for descent to FL240 within 20nm from the boundary

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60
Q

When ____ sector is open, clear aircraft landing LNK, OMA, OFF and MLE operating AOA ____ to ____ or lower as coordinated.

A

HAWKI Sector 43 is open, aircraft operation AOA FL350 to FL340 or lower as coordinated

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61
Q

Aircraft landing at GRI west of ZMP 38/39 boundary enter ZMP airspace AOB ___ descending to ___

A

AOB FL280 descending to FL240

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62
Q

ZKC shall clear all aircraft departing MCI Approach entering ZMP Sector 38 (LMN) to ___ or requested altitude if lower. ZMP has control to climb these aircraft to ___ or requested altitude if lower within ___ miles of the ZMP/ZKC boundary

A

Enter ZMP at FL270, ZMP has control to climb aircraft to FL310 or lower if within 30 miles of the ZMP/ZKC boundary

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63
Q

ZKC between 2200-0800 shall transfer comms for aircraft AOA ____ to the sector _____
(ZMP)

A

Aircraft AOA FL240 to the sector designated in Field E of the data block.

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64
Q

When ZMP 40 (Artic) is combined with 42/43 (WILD, HAWKI) ____ frequency will not be used

A

134.22

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65
Q

ZMP releases control for descent within ___ nm from the boundary for aircraft landing at ____, ____, ____, ____, ____.

A

Within 20 nm of the boundary for aircraft landing at MCI, IXD, OJC, FLV, MKC.

66
Q

ZMP Shall clear aircraft landing STL west of ____ via ____ STARS

A

West of J21 via ANX/TRAKE/KAYLA Stars

67
Q

ZMP shall clear aircraft landing at STL and STL Satellite airports (SUS, BLV, CPS) to enter ZKC AOB ____ from 0900-2000 Monday through Friday. Arrivals entering ZKC west of ___ may remain at altitude

A

Enter ZKC AOB FL350. Arrivals entering west of J41 may remain at altitude.

68
Q

Aircraft on V161 on the LMN transition to the BQS Star shall be assigned ( without an APREQ):

A

Northbound - “Odd” altitudes

Southbound - “Even” altitudes

69
Q

ZKC/ZAU may assume control for ___ on contact

A

Beacon code changes

70
Q

Interim altitudes are _____ between ZAU/ZKC

A

Authorized

71
Q

During AIT between ZKC/ZAU, coordination only needs to be effected when departure point is ____

A

Less than 5 minutes flying time from the boundary

72
Q

Aircraft landing within 60 nm of the ZAU/ZKC boundary must enter AOB ____

A

FL230

73
Q

ZKC/ZAU Midshift procedures:
Between 2201-0559 either center releases control on all aircraft within ___ miles from boundary for ___ degree turns and descent

A

Within 20 miles from the boundary for 30 degree turns and descent

74
Q

Required Turboprops routes landing DEN:

A

GLD.DANDD Star
GCK.DANDD Star
SELLS.DANDD Star

75
Q

ZDV/ZKC

Flights originating less than __ flying time from the boundary must be coordinated

A

5 Minutes

76
Q

ZKC/ZDV Time revisions of ____ or less need not be forwarded by the transferring controller if reasonable assurance exists that a radar handoff can be completed

A

15 minutes or less

77
Q

Radar Handoff designated points that may be used between ZKC/ZDV:

A

NATOMA - ZDV/ZMP/ZKC boundaries
TRI-POINT - ZDV/ZAB/ZKC boundaries
CASTLE - J182/ZDV/ZKC boundaries

78
Q

Receiving controller has control for turns up to ___ degrees left or right of course within ___ nm of the ZDV/ZKC boundary

A

Turn up to 20 degrees within 30nm of the boundary

79
Q

ZKC/ZDV

Altitude info contained in the date block including an interim altitudes is considered ____

A

Coordination

80
Q

ZKC/ZDV

Handoffs must be directed to the appropriate ____ for the aircraft’s altitude assignment

A

Sector

81
Q

ZKC/ZDV
Controller making a handoff, point out, or issuing traffic does not need to _______ the altitude the aircraft is climbing/descending to, or is maintaining, as long as _________

A

Does not need to verbally coordinate the altitude info as long as the data block accurately displays this information

82
Q

SLN Arrivals on or north of ___ must have clearance to ___ or assigned altitude if lower. ZKC has control for descent to ____.
(Denver LOA)

A

On or North of J24 must have clearance to FL250. ZKC has control for descent to FL240

83
Q

Transponder codes may be changed ___ upon initial contact between ZKC/ZDV

A

Without coordination

84
Q

Aircraft landing COS AOA 110 must be routed:

A

GLD.OZZZY Star
GLD..HGO..BRK
LAA.OZZZY Star
LAA..HGO BRK

85
Q

Forward arrival information to COU tower at least ___ minutes prior to the transfer of comms. Information shall be forwarded via FDIO or inter phone and if necessary shall include the _______.

A

At least 5 minutes, shall include the arrival sequence.

86
Q

Comms should be transferred to COU tower prior to ____nm from the airport

A

Prior to 7nm from the airport

87
Q

Transfer aircraft requesting ____ clearances or _____ to COU Tower

A

SVFR clearances or practice VFR instrument approaches

88
Q

Center will be responsible for ______ when tower is not providing visual separation

A

Initial separation between successive IFR departures

89
Q

Center will issue ____ and _____ instructions to COU Tower

A

Issue departure and release instructions

90
Q

With COU Tower assumed departure times within plus or minus ____ minutes may be utilized without coordination

A

Plus or minus 3 minutes

91
Q

Center shall forward arrival info to TOP, FOE and COU towers at least ___ minutes prior to transfer of comms. Info shall be transferred via FDIO or inter phone and if necessary shall include ____

A

At least 5 minutes prior to comm change and shall include arrival sequence if necessary

92
Q

Transfer comms to TOP Tower at least ___ nm from the airport

A

At least 7nm from the airport

93
Q

Transfer aircraft requesting _____ clearances or ______ to TOP Tower

A

SVFR or practice VFR instrument approaches to tower

94
Q

TOP Tower will advise center before making any _____ inside Class D airspace that could affect the separation with other IFR Traffic.

A

Before making any flight path adjustments inside Class D Airspace

95
Q

Center will be responsible for _____of successive IFR departures with TOP Tower is not providing visual separation

A

Initial separation

96
Q

Assumed departure times within plus or minus ___ minutes may be used between TOP Tower and ZKC

A

3 minutes

97
Q

Center shall have control for ___ on all departures within Class D airspace when the aircraft is at or above the ______

A

Control for turns on all departures when aircraft is at or above the local MIA

98
Q

Aircraft landing in MCI Approach airspace from FOE with a filed altitude above ____ ft will be advised that ____ will be their final altitude.

A

5000 ft, 5000 ft

99
Q

Minimum Interval Takeoff/Cell aircraft filed above ___ shall be assigned a block altitude of ____ through _____ and to expect final altitude 10 minutes after departure

A

Above 5000 ft shall be assigned a block of 4000 through 5000 ft.

100
Q

Ensure aircraft AOB ____ enter STJ RAPCON airspace in ____ and at the _______

A

AOB 5000 enter STJ RAPCON airspace in level flight and at the right altitude for direction of flight

101
Q

Aircraft AOA _____ enter STJ RAPCON at or descending to _____

A

AOA 6,000, enter at or descending to 6,000

102
Q

Acceptance of a point out by MCI Approach to Rosecrans field or Amelia Earhart equals approval for RAPCON to what?

A

Continue descent to the destination airport.

103
Q

STJ RAPCON can assume control of arriving aircraft for turns and descent up to ___ degrees left or right of course, ___ nm from the boundary

A

30 degree turns, 10nm from the boundary

104
Q

ZKC/ZMP may assume control of aircraft exiting STJ RAPCON airspace for climb and turns of up to ___ degrees left or right of course within ___ miles of the RAPCON boundary

A

Turns up to 30 degrees left or right of course within 10 miles

105
Q

ZKC/ZMP shall ensure overflights through STJ RAPCON airspace AOB _____ enter in ____ and ______

A

AOB 5000 enter in level flight and right altitude for direction of flight

106
Q

If FDIO is INOP, forward STJ RACPON estimates and beacon code at time of handoff and prior to STJ boundary. Proposed flight plans shall be forwarded at least ___ minutes prior to P-Time.

A

Forwarded at least 20 minutes prior to P-Time

107
Q

STJ RAPCON beacon codes:
____ - internal IFR ops
____ - VFR ops
____ - Lifenet codes

A

0220 - 0237 Internal ops
0300 - 0317 VFR ops
0206, 0205, 0203, 0204, 0213 for Lifenet

108
Q

When FDIO is INOP, forward arrival and overflight estimates to SZL RAPCON at least ___ minutes prior to the RAPCON boundary

A

At least 5 minutes

109
Q

Center may assume control for turns up to ___ degrees within ___ miles of SZL RAPCON boundary

A

Turns up to 45 degrees within 10 miles of boundary

110
Q

Center shall ensure overflights AOB ___ enter SZL RAPCON boundary in ____

A

AOB 9000 enter in level flight

111
Q

Sectors 40/42 release control for descent and turns up to ___ degrees for aircraft landing in MZU or MCI Approach airspace
(Whiteman LOA)

A

Descent and turns up to 45 degrees

112
Q

ZKC shall transfer arrival info on all IFR, SVFR and overflights to SZL at least ___ minutes prior to transfer of communications

A

At least 5 minutes

113
Q

ZKC shall forward the time the aircraft will ____ to SZL tower

A

Enter class D airspace

114
Q

ZKC shall forward revised estimates to SZL tower when actual time will vary by ___

A

More than 3 minutes

115
Q

Inform SZL tower of arrival sequence when there is ______

A

More than one arrival

116
Q

If SZL Tower is closed, the airport should also be considered _____. If an aircraft is inbound after closure, defer approach clearance until tower is ____.

A

Airport will also be considered closed. Defer approach clearance until tower is open.

117
Q

When FDIO is INOP, forward arrival and overflight estimates including center assigned beacon code at least ____ minutes prior to MZU boundary. Departure flight plans should be forwarded at least ___ minutes prior to P-Time

A

Forward arrival and overflight estimates at least 10 minutes to boundary, forward departure flight plans at least 20 minutes before P-Time

118
Q

Clear arrivals in MZU airspace AOA ___ to be at or descending to _____

A

AOA 8000, be at or descending to 8,000

119
Q

Aircraft AOB _____ landing in MZU airspace shall be ____ at their en route altitude, correct for direction of flight.

A

AOB 7000, shall be level at their en route altitude

120
Q

MZU Approach may descend/vector an aircraft in a receiving controllers airspace after ____ is accomplished, radio contact is ____ and the aircraft is within ___ miles of Approach/Center boundary.

A

After handoff is accomplished, radio contact is established and the aircraft is within 10 miles

121
Q

Center may vector departing aircraft up to ____ degrees either side of the flight plan once the aircraft is at least ___ miles from the departure airport (MZU LOA)

A

May vector up to 30 degrees, once the aircraft is at least 10 miles from departure airport

122
Q

Center shall have control for turns within _____ miles of the MZU Approach boundary

A

10 miles

123
Q

Non mode C arrivals to MZU shall be ____

A

Verbally coordinated

124
Q

If FDIO is INOP with SGF, forward arrival and overflight estimates, including center assigned beacon codes at least ____ minutes prior to the boundary. Departure flight plans should be forwarded at least ____ minutes prior to P-Time.

A

Forward estimates at least 10 minutes prior to boundary, forward departures at least 20 minutes prior to P-time

125
Q

SGF and ZKC shall verbally coordinate ___ on non-mode C aircraft

A

Altitude

126
Q

Clear SGF terminal area arrivals direct their destination. Aircraft operating AOA ____ shall be assigned _____. Aircraft AOB ____ shall cross the boundary _____ at ______.

A

Aircraft operating AOA 16,000 shall be assigned 16,000. Aircraft AOB 15,000 shall cross the boundary level at the right altitude for direction of flight

127
Q

Center may assume control of EOS, NVD and JLN arrivals within ____ miles of boundary

A

10 miles

128
Q

Center may vector aircraft up to ____ degrees left or right once the aircraft is ___ miles or more from SGF

A

Up to 30 degrees once the aircraft is 10 miles or more from SGF

129
Q

Clear aircraft departing NVD landing in SGF Approach airspace to ___ or requested altitude, whichever is lower.

A

15,000

130
Q

Traffic crossing from one ZKC sector to another shall be released for turns without addition concurrence. Turns shall only be initiated when the aircraft is ___ or less from the boundary and shall not exceed ____ degrees.

A

The aircraft is 15 miles or less from the boundary and shall not exceed 15 degrees

131
Q

Traffic crossing from one ZKC sector to another shall be released for _______ on contact without addition coordination

A

Speed adjustment

132
Q

When an aircraft is subject to a TMI, or has an APR it shall be initiated/applied __________

A

As soon as practical

133
Q

HOST Embedded Route Text shall be applied by _________

A

The last ZKC sector the aircraft will pass through

134
Q

In no case shall an aircraft be permitted to exit ZKC without a ____, _____ or _____ that has not been applied unless prior coordination with receiving facility or TMU has been accomplished

A

TMI, APR or HERT

135
Q

Route Action Notification (RAN) of an airborne reroute (ABRR) TMI should be initiated by _______ to receive the notification

A

The first controlling sector

136
Q

Static TMI’s
EWR/JFK - _______
DTW - ________
MMUN - _______

A

EWR/JFK - Do not reroute beyond last fix in ZKC (24/7)
DTW - Do not reroute (0800-1830)
MMUN - Do not reroute (24/7)

137
Q

What are the two ways controllers can record PIREP info?

A
  1. By completing the worksheet and forwarding it to the FLM/CIC
  2. Entering the PIREP in ERIDS and verbally notifying the FLM/CIC
138
Q

Prior to releasing or deactivating TRUMAN MOA/ATCAA to Whiteman, Sector 42 shall coordinate with what sectors?

A

52 (COU Lo), 48 (EMP Lo), 40 (IRK Lo), 28 (SGF Hi) and 30 (HLV Hi - if applicable)

139
Q

Sector 48 shall inform Sector ___ of the active runway at MCI and any changes to the active runway

A

Sector 02 (ICT Hi)

140
Q

Sector 66 shall release control for turns and descent on all MCI terminal area arrivals ____ nm from the Prarie/Trails common boundary

A

15 nm from the bounday

141
Q

MCI Area departures on the Royal SID, Arenz or Bodyn transition, or through the SIFER gate - Sector 32 (TRX Hi) has control of these aircraft when the aircraft is AOA ____

A

FL180

142
Q

For MCI area departures routed via the Lakes SID - SPI transition, Rivers has control for turns up to __ degrees when the aircraft is AOA ___

A

Rivers has control for turns up to 10 degrees when the aircraft is AOA FL180

143
Q

MCI Area Northbound departures filed above FL230 -
Sector 44/48 shall handoff departures that will enter ZMP 38 (LMN) airspace to ___. They shall enter an interim altitude in the data block and complete the handoff to 38. 44/48 shall assign the altitude observed in the data block and then transfer communications to ___.

A

Handoff to 26. They enter the interim altitude and handoff to Sector 38. Once handoff is accepted, 44/48 will assign the altitude in the data block and then transfer communications to 38.

144
Q

Sector 66 shall have control for descent and turns within ___ nm of the Prarie/Trails boundary for aircraft landing at ___ and ____

A

Within 15 nm of the boundary for aircraft landing at MHK and FRI

145
Q

Sector 44/48 shall have control for descent and turns within ___ nm of the Prarie/Trails boundary for all aircraft landing ___, ____, ____ and ____.

A

Within 15 nm of the prarie/trails boundary for all aircraft landing at EMP, TOP, FOE, LWC

146
Q

Aircraft landing within the OMA and LNK terminal area (OMA, LNK, OFF, MLE) entering Sectors 26/47 north of J96 shall cross the 26/32 boundary AOB ____

A

FL320

147
Q

Aircraft landing LNK, MLE, OFF, OMA entering 26/47 south of J96 shall cross the 26/92 boundary AOB ____

A

FL360

148
Q

Between 0600 and 2200, Flint Hills shall descend OMA/LNK area arrivals to enter Trails AOB ____ and DSM arrivals AOB ____.

A

OMA/LNK AOB FL360, and DSM AOB FL370

149
Q

FL360 IOFDOF is allowed for OMA/LNK arrivals, true or false?

A

True

150
Q

Ozark shall descend all OMA area arrivals to enter Trails AOB ____.

A

FL380

151
Q

Trails controllers should ensure STL area arrivals cross the 26/47/32-92 boundary AOB ____

A

FL370

152
Q

MCI Area arrivals filed over the JHAWK Star shall be routed either __ ___ or direct ___ then JHAWK Star

A

Routed either ICT EMP or direct EMP then JHAWK Star`

153
Q

Sector 50 releases control of all IRK arrival aircraft to sector 40 upon _______________. Pilot discretion decent does not require coordination.

A

Transfer of radar identification and transfer of communications

154
Q

All aircraft landing within the ICT terminal area from Sector 26 shall be AOB ____ descending to _____. Pilot discretion is approved.

A

Shall be AOB FL350 descending to FL 240.

155
Q

ICT area arrivals from 44/48 - sector 66/68 has control for ____ upon contact.

A

66/68 has control for lower on contact

156
Q

All Fort Worth Area arrivals transitioning from Trails to Flint Hills at a _____ altitude do not require an APREQ

A

Westbound altitude

157
Q

Forward arrival and estimate times, including beacon codes to FRI GCA at least ____ minutes prior to GCA Boundary

A

At least 5 minutes

158
Q

Arrivals into Marshall GCA from 44 operating AOA ____ shall be at or descending to _____. Aircraft AOB ____ enter in level flight.

A

Operating AOA 8000 shall be at or descending to 8000, Aircraft AOB 7000 enter in level flight

159
Q

Marshalll GCA may assume control of arriving aircraft for descent and turns up to ____ degrees

A

Descent and turns up to 45 degrees

160
Q

Center may assume control of a departure coming out of Marshall GCA for turns up to ___.

A

45 degrees

161
Q

KSLN Arrivals operating AOA 110 shall be assigned ____.

A

11000

162
Q

TOP and FOE arrivals from FRI GCA -

Once we receive comms we have control for turns up to ___ and descent to ____.

A

Turns up to 20 degrees and descent to 5000.

ZKC - Trails (5 decks)

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