LO Flashcards

1
Q

Name three types of interstitial lung disease.

A

▪ Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
▪ Sarcoidosis
▪ Cell mediated
▪ US black>white
▪ Granulomas
▪ Hilar lymphadenopathy (On chest X-ray)
▪ Raised angiotensin converting enzyme (Biomarker used for diagnosis)
▪ Involves the lungs but this is a systemic disease
▪ Idiopathic Pulmonary fibrosis
▪ A group of condition called IPF
▪ Lower part of the lungs is lost and becomes scarred and become fibrous tissue
▪ Sometimes it is part of systemic disease
▪ Once established, prognosis is like lung cancer
▪ Pattern on chest x-ray look like honeycomb

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2
Q

There are several types of interstitial lung disease. One is Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis). Describe the immune response behind this condition. And how it presents.

A

▪ Type III (immunocomplex formation) and type iv (cell mediated)
▪ Antigen that instigates this reaction is antigen present in bird fancier (from bird feathers) or in grain (farmer’s lung)
▪ Presents as an acute illness (SOB due to inability for proper gas exchange due to inflammation around the bronchi which reduces diameter, and thickening of alveoli which affects efficient gas exchange)

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3
Q

Lung cancer can be Benign, primary malignant, or secondary malignant. Explain.

A

Benign e.g. mesenchymal
Primary malignant
▪ The conversion of cells from one type of mature cell to another type of mature cell = metaplasia (In lungs due to noxious stimulus from pseudo columnar of the epithelium to squamous )
▪ Secondary genetic changes after metaplasia which cause progressive disordered proliferation and maturation = dysplasia
▪ When there is invasive it becomes malignant
▪ Carcinomas = malignant epithelium tumors
Secondary Malignant
▪ Secondary cancer in lungs is common
▪ Usually not the presenting feature - usually have major problems else where by this point
▪ Sarcoma spread by blood, so is renal carcinoma and lymphoma
▪ Sometimes patient present with renal carcinoma through an X-ray showing canon/snooker balls on the scan

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4
Q

List primary epithelial types of cancer.

A
▪ Squamous (40%) (some times called non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC))
	▪ Common 
	▪ History of smoking 
	▪ Air pollution
	▪ Asbestos
	▪ Fibrosing lung disease
	▪ TNM staging

▪ Adenocarcinoma (from granular) also NSCLC
▪ Also common 40%
▪ Associated with smoking
▪ Lung scar (sometimes if you have had tuberculosis and had a scar you will develop cancer in that scar)
▪ Asbestos

▪ Adenocarcinoma - bronchoalveolar (cancer cell replace alveolar cell)
▪ Variant of adenocarcinoma
▪ Pattern of spread - intrapulmonary dissemination (you cough the cells up then aspirate them making them spread around the lungs)

▪ Small cell undifferentiated (from primitive neuro endocrine cells - not doing very much but with some function taken up and producing amines and various mediators - they are undifferentiated, they can grow very rapidly, and can cause death very rapidly - initially they respond well to chemotherapy however)
▪ Tend to be neuroendocrine
▪ Has paraneoplastic effects
▪ Neurological - e.g. demyelination

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5
Q

What is meant by paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

▪ Series of symptoms caused by the tumor, but not directly due to its presence, it is due to immunological response that is caused by substances produced by the tumor - this can affect any of the bodies systems. For example, clubbing is a symptom of paraneoplastic syndrome
▪ It is due to what the tumor produces l
▪ For example:
▪ Bioactive amines or peptides
○ ADH - so you cannot produce urine
○ PTN-Like peptides - causes release of calcium
○ ACTH - causing adrenal hyperplasia but also pigmentation

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6
Q

What is a common paraneoplastic syndrome in Squamous Cell Carcinoma (NSCLC)?

A
  • Humoural Hypercalcaemia

- Tx ; Fluids, Bisphosphnates

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7
Q

What is a common Paraneoplastic syndrome in small cell carcinoma?

A
  • SIADH
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8
Q

Name the malignancy of the pleura.

Describe main features of mesothelioma.

What is the benign equivalent of mesothelioma?

A

Name the malignancy of the pleura.
- Mesothelioma (malignancy arising from the lining cells of the pleura - grows along the pleura - )

Describe main features of mesothelioma.
▪ Almost always associated with asbestos
▪ Incidence is rising
▪ Long lag period: 20-40 years
▪ Male: Females 5:1 - reflects industrial exposure to asbestos)

What is the benign equivalent of mesothelioma?
▪ Fibrous pleural plaques (may ship yard worker who do not develop mesothelioma develop fibrous plaques)

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9
Q

Anti-B and Anti-A are which immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

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10
Q

If you are blood group O, what antibodies do you have?

A
  • Anti A and Anti B

AB = No naturally occurring antibodies

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11
Q

Individuals who are Rhesus negative and receive Rhesus positive blood will produce which immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

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12
Q

Which reaction is more dangerous in terms of haemolysis?

A
  • IgM (as it rapidly activates complement system leading to immunocomplexes which destroy the red blood cells) however in IgG Fc Receptors on macrophages will bind IgG-coated red blood cells then gradually destroy them
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13
Q

Cause, presentation, and management of transfusion reactions

A

Acute hemolytic Reactions
Symptoms: back pain, jaundice, dark urine, chills, fainting or dizziness, fever, flank pain, skin flushing
Management: stop transfusions, the rest depends on the severity of the reaction (symptom management, or ABC resuscitation)

Delayed Hemolytic Reactions (Manifests 2-14 days after transfusion of RBC component)
Symptoms: similar to acute reaction but less severe
Management: most have benign course and require no treatment

Urticaria (over the chest or abdomen, mild – treat with hydrocortisone) or anaphylaxis (Allergic reaction)

Febrile Proteins (Non-haemolytic - Reaction caused by antibodies against donor plasma protein/antigens on contaminating white blood cells (leukocytes and HLA antigens) – rare as all white blood cells in donated blood are now depleted
Symptoms: fever and chills during transfusion
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14
Q

Define a biomarker.

A

A tumour marker is anything present in or produced by cancer cells or other cells of the body in response to cancer that provides info about the cancer

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15
Q

Due to insufficient sensitivity and specificity (Which are limitations of tumor biomarkers), tumour marker are not well equipped to spot tumours. Based on this, define the role of tumour biomarkers.

A

They are extremely useful for determining whether a tumour is responding to treatment or assessing whether it has recurred

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16
Q

Name the two types of tumour markers.

A

Circulating tumour markers (in blood, urine, stool, bodily fluids)
• Estimate prognosis
• Detect any cancer after treatment
• Assess response to Tx
• Monitor whether cancer can become resistant to Tx
Tissue tumour markers (In the sample taken by biopsy)
• Stage and/or classify cancer
• Estimate prognosis
• Select appropriate treatment (targeted therapy)

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17
Q

State the difference between prognostic and predictive biomarkers.

A

Prognostic marker used to estimate the course and severity of the disease which is better for population level, while predictive is to predict whether treatment will be effective which is better suited on an individual level.

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18
Q

Give biomarker examples for colorectal, lung and renal cancer.

A

Colorectal
• CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen) (elevated preoperative CEA levels in resectable colorectal cancer is associated with poor prognosis)
• RAS gene mutations - presence of this indicates the lack of response to certain therapy

Lung (NSCLC)
• EGFR mutation analysis - looking for activating mutations in EGFR where there is abnormal hyperactive signaling - USE drug called erlotinib
• KRAS mutation analysis - activating mutations too - here erlotinib wont work but they will receive some other therapy

* ALK (Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase) rearrangement analysis - this is found in 4% of patients with NSCLC (due to deletion or translocation leading to formation of fusion protein). This is mutually exclusive with EGFR and KRAS mutations
* PD-L1 - this biomarker is used when you want to decide which check point inhibitor to use

Renal Cancer - No current approved markers, but some are being studied

But there is some anti-PD-L1 drugs which block the PD-L1 receptor on the T cells which the tumor cells usually bind to make sure they are not attacked by immune system. This way the immune system begins to recognize the tumor cells again.

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19
Q

Appreciate the evolving treatment of lung cancer

A
  • Conventional chemotherapy - good for small undifferentiated
  • Targeted, small molecule - good for squamous and adeno
  • Immuno-oncology and check point inhibitors - antibodies which inhibit check points, these check points usually allow immune cells (like T cells) to recognize tumor cells as own cells and not attack them. Inhibiting these check points (e.g. PD1 inhibition allows the immune cells of the body to destroy tumor cell in some instances
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20
Q

PD-L1 levels (a biomarker) can be used to decide which check point inhibitor to use against certain lung cancers.

A) What would you use in a Squamous Cell NSCLC with PD-L1 levels <50%

B) >50%?

A

A)
- Anti-PD1, carboplatin and paclitaxel

B)
- Anti-PD-1

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21
Q

List where you would find tumour markers.

A
▪ Blood 
▪ Urine 
▪ Stool 
▪ Tumours
▪ Other tissue or bodily fluids
(Note: genomic markers such as tumour gene mutations and patterns of tumour gene expression are being used as tumour markers now)
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22
Q

Describe the clinical features and initial management of Malignant Spinal Cord Compression .

A

Oncological Emergency

A) Presentation:
- Neurological symptoms such as paralysis, paresis (muscular weakness caused by nerve damage), loss of sensation, and incontinence, and also pain

B) Management:

  • Commece dexamethasone immediately if you suspect it (16mg OD then continue 8mg OD)
  • Then other scans can be
  • then irradiation can be done (radiotherapy within 6-24 hrs = good chance of remission)
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23
Q

If it takes longer than 72< hrs to get a person with Malignant Spinal Cord Compression to radiotherapy what are the implications on recovery?

A
  • they can maintain present state
  • you stop the situation from getting worse
  • remission of symptoms no longer likely
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24
Q

Explain Vena Cava Superior Syndrome.

A

▪ Group of symptoms caused by the obstruction of the superior vena cava
▪ Sx: swelling of face/neck/upper body/arms, SOB, and Coughing

  • Irradiation therapy same day!!
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25
Q

Explain Total or large partial atelektasis.

A

▪ Atelectasis = collapse or incomplete expansion of lung parenchyma

  • Irradiation therapy same day!
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26
Q

If someone has a diffuse bleed due to a tumour what is the first action/

A
  • Same day irradiation therapy
27
Q

What are the characteristics of tumours that are at higher risk of causing tumour lysis syndrome?

A
  • High cell turnover
  • Rapid growth rate
  • High tumour bulk

Examples:

  • Poorly differentiated ones like Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • All leukaemias
  • others like melanoma may cause it too
28
Q

what is the difference between a chemo/RT TLS and an auto-TLS?

A
  • In auto there is no hyperphosophtaemia as the cells have a lot of phosphate in them anyway so when they die and spill them out, they are reabsorbed by other tumour cells and reused
29
Q

List symptoms of Tumour lysis syndrome.

A
  • Restess, irritable
  • Weak
  • Fatigue
  • Nausea, vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • muscle cramp
  • joint pain
  • Decreased urination/cloudy urine
  • seizure

Cx:

  • aki
  • Loss of muscle control
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
30
Q

Describe how you would treat tumour lysis syndrome.

A
  • IV Hydration
  • Allopurinol or Rasburicase to reduce uric acid
  • IV Calcium to normalise hypocalcaemia
  • Treat Hyperphosphotaemia and Hyperkalamaemia as per guidelines
  • Treatment if AKI in TLS = haemodialysis
31
Q

What is Rhabdomylosis?

A
  • Muscle cells due to various reason will die and release myoglobin, potassium, phosphate, and creatinine kinase - this condition leads to AKI

Sx: Fatigue, oedema, muscle aches, red-brown urine,

32
Q

What is the model that is used to talk about Anticipatory Care Planning?

A
  • RED-MAP
  • Ready
  • Expect
  • Diagnosis
  • Matters
  • Actions
  • Plan
33
Q

What are some of the main symptoms that you have to deal with in palliative care?

A
  • Pain
  • Breathlessness
  • Anxiety and Agitation
  • Fatigue
34
Q

Describe WHO pain ladder?

A

1-
- Non-opioid +/i adjuvant

2- Weak Opioid (Codeine) +/- non-opioid (para) +/- adjuvant

3- Opioid for moderate to severe pain +/- non-opioid +/- adjuvant

35
Q

Differentiate between Acute and chronic cough.

A
  • Acute = <3 weeks
  • Subacute = 3-8 weeks
  • Chronic = >8 weeks
36
Q

What is performance status and why is important?

A

→ Standardised criteria for measuring how the disease impacts the patient’s daily activities
→ Looks at how well the person can take care of themselves, their daily activity, and physical activity
Important as it determines whether the patient is well enough for treatment, and track changes in the patient’s level of functioning

37
Q

What drug can you use for palliative care purposes for a patient suffering from breathlessness?

A

Morphine

38
Q

What medication used for hypercalcaemia?

A

Pamidronate (alters bone formation in the body and slows bone loss)

39
Q

(Start of End of Life Week) – Describe how the immune system can promote tumour progression.

A

Through inflammation, macrophages (M2), B Cells

40
Q

What cells by the immune system kill tumours?

A
  • Cytotoxic T-Cells (CD8+) - (these are the most important)

- Macrophages (M1)

41
Q

Name a prognostic and predictive feature of the immune system in relation to tumours.

A
  • Densities of specific immune cells in the tumour microenvrioment
  • High CD8, CD4 and M1 Macrophages = good prognosis
  • High density of M2 macrophages = poor prognosis (THESE CELLS PROMOTE TUMOUR GROWTH AND Vascular Endothelial Growth Factors (VEGF) which promotes angiogenesis)
42
Q

How does the immune system identify cancer cells?

A
  • through tumour-specific antigens
43
Q

What are the hall marks of cancer?

A
  • Sustaining proliferative signalling
  • Evading growth suppressors
  • Activating invasion and metastasis
  • Enabling replicative immortality
  • Induce angiogenesis
  • Resisting cell death
44
Q

What is the role of T-cell in responsing to tumours?

A
  • they play a role in the anti tumour response as they activate the CTL response and they also activate macrophages (M2)
45
Q

what are immune check points?

A
  • These aer signalling pathways that inhibit the immune response
46
Q

Name two T-cell inhibitory pathways.

A
  • CTLA-4
  • PD-1

(these are receptors expressed on T-cells and then there is inhibitory ligands on tumour cells which when they bind to the receptors they inhibit the immune response)

47
Q

What drugs are used for Chronic Myeloid?

A

Oral Active tyrosine kinase inhibitor

48
Q

What is brain dead?

A
  • No neural activity!

1- Unreceptivity and unresponsivity
2- No movement or breathing
3- No reflexes (fixed dilated pupils)

49
Q

What is persistent vegetative state?-

A
  • Brain stem remains functional
  • Open their eyes, grimace, swallow, and breath spontaneously
  • No behavioural evidence of awareness
50
Q

What is the difference between primary cause of death and secondary/Contributory cause of death?

A

The primary cause of death (Part I) should be the condition which led directly to death
Part II should include any “contributory” causes of death.

51
Q

When do you report the deatj to the procurator fiscal?

A
  • A doctor, registrar, or the police may report a death to the Procurator Fiscal. For example, if the cause of death is unknown or the death was sudden or suspicious
  • – Deaths which require investigation include:
  • Unnatural death
  • Public health hazard death
  • Deaths of children
  • Specific deaths under medical care
  • Deaths requiring investigation in the public interest
52
Q

Describe the benefits and limitations of renal transplantations.

A

▪ Benefits
○ Cost benefit - £241,000 over ten years in comparison to dialysis
▪ Problems
○ Patients with multimorbidity will not handle the procedure
○ Patients with cancer or other active disease may not be appropriate
○ Cardiovascular disease
○ More people are on waiting lists than kidneys are being donated
○ Waiting lists 2.5-3 years for a deceased donor kidney to become available

53
Q

Explain ABO system and renal transplants.

A
  • Donor and recipient have to be same blood group
  • However can be incompatible in some cases
  • If they are incompatible, the recipient has to go desensitisation

1- Reduction of the B lymphocytes pool using Anti-CD20 antibody
2- Plasmapheresis

54
Q

Explain MHC antigens/Human leukocytes Antigens (HLA) and renal transplants.

A
  • HLA’s are found in cell membranes
  • when someone gets a renal transplant the donated organ will be recognised as a foreign body mainly because of differences between donor/recipient major HLA
  • The differences lead to cellular (T-Cell_ and antibody-mediated responses
  • When there is a transplant antigens are compared
  • HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-DR
55
Q

List common infections in renal transplants.

A

1- CMV (fever, malaise, pneumonitis, heptatitis, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
2- P.Jiroveci (severe respiratory illness in immunocompromised patients) - cough, fever ,sob, hypoxia

56
Q

List Potential complications of renal transplant.

A
  • Arterial/vein thrombosis
  • Hyperacute rejection
  • Acute rejection (weeks after)
  • BK virus nephropahty (within months)
  • Renal artery stenosis (within months)
  • Infections (Anytime, CNI toxicity also anytime)
57
Q

What is a common cause of mortality and morbidity in kidney transplant patients?

A
  • Cancer due to immunosuppression, oncogenic viruses, and altered T cell immunity
58
Q

What are common cancers associated with renal transplants.

A

1- Basal and Squamous cell
2- Post-Transplant lymphoprolierative disorders
3- Cervical

59
Q

What is the single most frequent cause of death in transplant recipients?

A
  • Cardiovascular disease
60
Q

What is IgG Lambda Myeloma?

A
  • IgG is the faulty antibody produced by the plasma cells
    • G = the heavy chain of the antibody
      Lambda = the light chain (Light chains can either be Lambda or Kappa)
61
Q

List some causes of peripheral neuropathy.

A

▪ Alcohol
▪ Diabetes
▪ Drug-induced (Some chemotherapy drugs and anti-HIV)
▪ B12 Deficiency
Connective Tissue Disease e.g. Rheumatoid Arthritis or Lupus

62
Q

List some clinical symptoms of Peripheral Neuropathy

A

Altered sensation to touch, pain, position sense, muscle weakness, autonomic symptoms (E.g. bladder control and dizziness on standing)

63
Q

What drug would you give for peripheral neuropathy pain?

A

Gabapentin

64
Q

Describe the indications for dialysis in a patient with progressive CKD.

A

▪ No absolute cut off
▪ Average is 7ml/min/1.73 according to renal association
▪ Different factors need to be considered: blood tests, examination findings, and symptoms
Hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and refractory fluid overload are indications for starting treatment