LO Flashcards

1
Q

A blood type can donate to

A

A or AB

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2
Q

B blood type can donate to

A

B or AB

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3
Q

AB bloody type can donate to

A

AB

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4
Q

what blood type is universal?

A

O

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5
Q

A fresh frozen plasma can donate to

A

A or O

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6
Q

B fresh frozen plasma can donate to

A

B or O

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7
Q

AB fresh frozen plasma can donate to

A

A,B,AB,O

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8
Q

O fresh frozen plasma can donate to

A

O

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9
Q

pathophysiology of haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Rh D immunogenic stimulation of maternal Rh negative blood cells to produce antibodies against antigens of RH positive blood cells upon exposure resulting in IgG crossing the placenta.

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10
Q

treatment for haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Use of anti-D prophylaxis at any potential sensitising event (praevia, trauma) and routine at 28/40.

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11
Q

erythrocyte derives from

A

erythroblast->reticulocyte->erythrocyte

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12
Q

platelets arise from

A

megakaryocyte

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13
Q

neutrophils role

A

ingest and destroy pathogens bacteria and fungi

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14
Q

eosinophils role

A

parasites and allergy

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15
Q

stem cell growth regulated by

A

erythropoietin, G-CSF, thrombopoietin agonists

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16
Q

neutrophils growth hormonal stimulation by

A

Interleukins and Colony stimulating factors CSFs

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17
Q

reticulocyte count is the measure of

A

red cell production

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18
Q

full blood count constituents

A
hg 
RBC
platelets
WBC
neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils
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19
Q

main haematological tests

A

clotting factors and clotting times, chemical assays for iron, B12, folate, marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy, lymph node biopsy, imaging (CT or plain film)

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20
Q

normal male 12-70 haemoglobin

A

140-180

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21
Q

normal male >70 haemoglobin

A

116-156

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22
Q

normal female 12-70 haemoglobin

A

120-160

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23
Q

normal female >70 haemoglobin

A

108-143

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24
Q

anaemia bone marrow pathophysiological points

A

cellularity, stroma, nutrients

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25
Q

anaemia red cell pathophysiological points

A

membrane, haemoglobin, enzymes

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26
Q

anaemia destruction pathophysiological points

A

blood loss, haemolysis, hypersplenism.

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27
Q

hypochromic microcytic matrix of investigations

A

serum ferritin

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28
Q

hypochromic microcytic low serum ferritin then..

A

iron deficiency

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29
Q

hypochromic microcytic normal serum ferritin then..

A

thalassaemia, secondary anaemia or sideroblastic anaemia

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30
Q

normochromic normocytic matrix of investigations

A

reticulocyte count

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31
Q

normochromic normocytic anaemia reticulocyte count normal

A

hypoplasia, marrow infiltrate

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32
Q

normochromic normocytic anaemia reticulocyte count increased

A

acute blood loss, haemolysis

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33
Q

macrocytic anaemia matrix investigations

A

bone marrow, B12 folate

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34
Q

macrocytic anaemia matrix if B12 and folate deficiency

A

megaloblastic

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35
Q

macrocytic anaemia matrix if no B12 or folate deficiency

A

myelodysplasia, marrow infiltrate drugs

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36
Q

inherited anaemia symptoms

A

anaemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, pigment gallstones.

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37
Q

general features of anaemia

A

tiredness, pallor, breathless ness, swelling of ankles, dizziness, chest pain. Must find out underlying causes whether bleeding, malabsorption, lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly.

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38
Q

MCH refers too

A

mean cell haemoglobin (colour)

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39
Q

MCV refers too

A

mean cell volume (Size)

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40
Q

iron metabolism

A

absorbed iron bound to either mucosal ferritin and lost or enters the duodenum via ferroportin to transferrin and then ferritin in the liver or haemoglobin

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41
Q

iron metabolism is regulated by

A

Regulated by hepcidin which is produced by the liver in response to high iron or inflammation to block the ferroportin

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42
Q

history for iron metabolism

A

dyspepsia, GI bleed, menorrhagia, diet, pregnancy. May have koilonychia, atrophic tongue and angular cheilitis

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43
Q

treatment for iron anaemia

A

diet, oral iron

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44
Q

haemoglobin consists of

A

two alpha chains and two beta chains with iron and a heme group in the centre of each

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45
Q

people inherit for haemoglobin

A

Inherit 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains with gamma and delta parts

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46
Q

normal adults percentage for haemoglobin

A

(A97% 2A-2B: B2% 2A-2D: (F)foetal 1% 2A-2G)

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47
Q

homozygous alpha zero thalassaemia outcome

A

incompatible with life

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48
Q

beta thalassaemia major outcome

A

transfusion dependent anaemia: presents 3-6 months, expansion of ineffective bone marrow, bony deformities, splenomegaly, growth retardation. Requires blood transfusion 4-6* a week with chelation ( desferrioxamine) to prevent iron overloading

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49
Q

beta thalassaemia treatment

A

bone marrow transplantation

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50
Q

red cells breakdown in the reticuloendothelial system

A

with macrophages in spleen, liver, lymph nodes lungs etc.

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51
Q

how is red cells recycled in the reticuloendothelial system

A

the globin amino acids are reused, haem is broken down into iron which is reused and haem which becomes biliverdin and then bilirubin which is bound to albumin in plasma (unconjugated).

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52
Q

principles of the direct antiglobulin test in assessing haemolysis

A

detects antibody or complement or red cell membrane: regents of anti-human IgG or anti-complement. Binds to antibodies on cells and causes agglutination, implies immunity basis for haemolysis.

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53
Q

membrane inherited anaemia pathophysiology

A

skeletal proteins responsible for maintain red cell shape and deformability

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54
Q

example of inherited membrane anaemia

A

hereditary spherocytosis, autosomal dominant defects causing spherical red cells that are removed by the reticuloendothelial system.

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55
Q

what does hereditary spherocytosis cause

A

anaemia, jaundice neonatal, splenomegaly, pigment gallstones

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56
Q

Treatment for hereditary spherocytosis

A

folic acid, transfusion, splenectomy

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57
Q

two types of inherited enzyme anaemia

A

Pentose Phosphate shunt

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58
Q

pentose phosphate shunt enzyme anaemia pathophysiology

A

phosphate dehydrogenase protects from oxidative damage via NADPH vital for glutathione that detoxifies free radicals. Absence results in blister and bite cells.

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59
Q

presentation of pentose phosphate shunt

A

neonatal jaundice, drug, broad bean or infection precipitated jaundice and anaemia with intravascular haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, splenomegaly and pigment gallstones.

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60
Q

pyruvate kinase deficiency presentation

A

reduced ATP, rigid cells, anaemia, jaundice, gallstones

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61
Q

pathophysiology of sickle cell

A

. Effected beta sickle chains when the RBC’s become deoxygenated they then turn permanently sickle; as a result there is haemolysis then endothelial activation, inflammation, coagulation activation, dysregulation of vasomotor tone and vaso-occlusion.

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62
Q

sickle cell anaemia inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

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63
Q

sickle cell anaemia presentation

A

painful bone crisis, chest crisis, stroke, hyposplenism, and infection risk, chronic haemolytic anaemia with gallstones and aplastic crisis, sequestration crisis

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64
Q

sickle cell anaemia pain crisis treatment

A

analgesia opiates, hydration, oxygen, maybe antibiotics for infection

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65
Q

sickle cell anaemia pain crisis long term managment

A

vaccination, penicillin, prophylaxis, folic acid. Episodic blood transfusion, hydroxycarbamide, bone marrow transplantation and gene therapy.

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66
Q

defects in haem synthesis pathophysiology

A

: mitochondrial defect resulting in sideroblastic anaemia or defects in cytoplasmic steps results in porphyria’s

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67
Q

acquired haemolytic anaemia types

A

immune (extravascular) or non-immune (intravascular)

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68
Q

haemolytic anaemia treatment

A

folic acid, immunosuppression via steroids, remove spleen, treat underlying causes consider transfusion.

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69
Q

blood clot formation physiology

A

vessel damage->exposure of subendothelial collagen with release of Tissue factor and Von-Willebrand factor, ADP, epinephrine and thrombin. Platelet then releases more VWF, thrombin, ADP, calcium and serotonin that forms the phospholipid surface for coagulation as its enzyme scramblase switches the membrane of the cell.

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70
Q

fibrin cascade physiology

A

exposure of tissue factor to V7, this then becomes activated and stimulate ten X, this can then produce thrombin from prothrombin, thrombin can then cleave fibrin from fibrinogen.

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71
Q

thrombin can go on to activate

A

activate factor 11 which activates factor 9 and 8 which leads to activation of factor ten and loads of thrombin.

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72
Q

natural anticoagulants

A

tissue factor pathway inhibitor, protein C and S, anti-thrombin

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73
Q

fibrinolysis clears up the clot via

A

via T-Pa and U-PA activating plasminogen into plasmin to cleave fibrin into fibrin degradation products -> D-Dimer.

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74
Q

red thrombus consists of

A

fibrin and red cells causing back pressure arising from stasis and hypercoagubility in the venous pathway

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75
Q

diagnosis of red thrombus

A

pre-test probability wells and Geneva, D-dimer and imaging Doppler US, Potential for V/Q scan if pulmonary symptoms. Gold standard for pulmonary is CT angiogram

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76
Q

arterial thrombosis pathophysiology and presentation

A

white clot formed by the platelets and fibrin that goes on to result in ischaemia and infarction, secondary to atherosclerosis

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77
Q

red thrombus Doppler US signs

A

looking at compressibility of veins, enlargement and echogenic material.

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78
Q

environmental risk factors for arterial thrombus

A

age, smoking, sedentary lifestyle, hypertension, diabetes, obesity, hypercholesterolaemia.

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79
Q

environmental risk factors for venous thrombus

A

increasing age, pregnancy, hormonal therapy, tissue trauma, immobility, surgery, obesity, systemic disease, family history

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80
Q

heritable thrombophilia genetic risk factors

A

Factor V Leiden, prothrombin.

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81
Q

microvascular thrombus is

A

principally in disseminated intravascular coagulation. It is a mix of platelets and/or fibrin resulting in diffuse ischaemia.

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82
Q

DIC can be caused by

A

caused by septicaemia, malignancy, eclampsia, gangrene and organ failure. Leads to the consumption of platelets and clotting factors leading to bleeding

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83
Q

DIC can be treated by

A

Requires careful slow doses of anticoagulants to stop the consumption but avoid bleeding despite the increased PT time.

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84
Q

haemophilia history

A

bruising, epistaxis, post-surgical bleeding, menorrhagia, Post-partum, post trauma, severity of bleeding.

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85
Q

haemophilia features

A

haemarthrosis, muscle haematoma, CNS bleeding, retroperitoneal bleeding, post-surgical bleeding.

86
Q

haemophilia complications

A

synovitis, chronic haemophilic arthropathy, neurovascular compression, stroke.

87
Q

diagnosis for haemophilia

A

clinical prolonged APTT (Activated partial Thromboplastin Time), normal PT, reduced FVIII or FIX, genetic analysis

88
Q

treatment for haemophilia bleeding diathesis

A

prophylactic for severe haemophilia recombinant coagulation factor replacement (FVIII/IX), DDAVP, tranexamic acid, future considerations of gene therapy, use of enisozimab.

89
Q

treatment for haemophilia

A

splints, PT analgesia, synovectomy, joint replacement.

90
Q

Von Willebrand disease treatment

A

tranexamic acid, topical application, OCP etc.

91
Q

severe haemophilia percentage of coagulation factor activity

A

<1% is severe

92
Q

moderate haemophilia percentage of coagulation factor activity

A

1-5% moderate

93
Q

mild haemophilia percentage of coagulation factor activity

94
Q

haemophilia A and B is linked to

A

X chromosome

95
Q

platelet type thrombocytopenia presents with

A

mucosal, epistaxis, purpura, menorrhagia, GI

96
Q

decreased production thrombocytopenia presents with

A

marrow failure, aplasia, infiltration

97
Q

increased consumption thrombocytopenia

A

immune ITP, non-immune DIC, hypersplenism

98
Q

clinical presentation of thrombocytopenia

A

petechia, ecchymosis, mucosal bleeding, rare CNS bleeding.

99
Q

immune thrombocytopenic purpura treatment

A

steroids, splenectomy, thrombopoietin analogues

100
Q

liver failure acquired cause of haemostatic failure

A

loss of clotting factors (1,2,5,7,8,9,10,11) prolonged PT, APTT, reduced fibrinogen, cholestasis results in depleted vitamin K.

101
Q

drugs that can cause haemostatic failure

A

warfarin, heparin, aspirin

102
Q

haemorrhagic disease of the new born treatment

A

immature coagulation system, vit K deficient, treatable via vit k injection.

103
Q

principles of leukaemogenesis

A

mutlii stage process that involves acquired genetic alteration in a long lived cell that confers a proliferative advantage enabling it to dominate the tissue. Depending on the behaviours of the mutations drastically different outcomes.

104
Q

haematological malignancy can occur in what age groups?

A

occurs all age groups, adult males commonly more than females

105
Q

acute haematological malignancy key points

A

: cells do not differentiate, bone marrow fails and rapidly fatal

106
Q

chronic haematological malignancy key points

A

differentiate, no bone marrow failure, survivable for a few years

107
Q

most lymphomas arise from

A

the stress of affinity maturations within the germinal centres of lymph nodes that B cells undergo mutations of immunoglobulin gene failure.

108
Q

chronic lymphomas leukaemia pathophysiology

A

not an issue with the stem cell but a mature lymphoid cell originating in the germinal centre of the lymphoid tissue. Likely to have massively swollen lymph node as a result.

109
Q

leukaemia difference to lymphoma

A

bone marrow involving stem cells, lymphoid progenitor, progenitor B, pre B, immature B cells

110
Q

lymphoma difference to leukaemia

A

lymphoid tissue involving memory b cell, mature naïve B cell, plasma cell.

111
Q

lymphadenopathy when it is haematological malignancy

A

consider leukaemia is rubbery localised and painless, or generalised and painless. Systemic symptoms include fever, drenching sweats, loss of weight, pruritis and fatigue.

112
Q

indications for red cell transfusion

A

anaemia, prevent organ damage, improve quality of life in the patient with un-correctable anaemia, prepare a patient for surgery or speed up recovery, reverse damage by own cells

113
Q

platelets infusion indications

A

thrombocytopenia , prophylactically to stop bleeding, dilutional thrombocytopenia, cardiopulmonary bypass, DIC if bleeding.

114
Q

fresh frozen plasma indications

A

low coagulation factor
replacement of coagulation factors due to major haemorrhage, DIC In presence of bleeding, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, replacement of coagulation factor deficiencies where factor concentrate unavailable.

115
Q

cryoprecipitate indications

A

low fibrinogen
hypofibrinogenemia secondary to massive transfusion, DIC bleeding and fibrinogen <1g/L, bleeding associated with thrombolytic therapy causing hypofibrinogenemia, renal or liver failure with abnormal bleeding, inherited hypofibrinogenemia if fibrinogen concentrate unavailable

116
Q

blood bank protocol

A
group and screen/Save
cross match
group specific blood
two sample policy
sample valid for 72 hours
117
Q

main hazards of blood transfusion

A

haemolytic transfusion reaction
transfusion associated dyspnoea
transfusion associated circulatory overload.

likely reactions I being febrile with pyrexia, then allergic with urticaria.

118
Q

chronic myeloid leukaemia features

A

anaemia, massive splenomegaly, weight loss, hyperleukostasis (venous congestion, altered consciousness, respiratory failure, fundal haemorrhage, gout (hyper metabolic state).

119
Q

chronic myeloid leukaemia lab features

A

High WCC, high platelets, anaemia, blood film shows all stages of white cell differentiation and increased basophils, hypercellular bone marrow, presence of Philadelphia chromosome (9;22).

120
Q

treatment of chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitors (imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib), direct inhibitors of BCR-ABL, allogeneic transplantation only in TKI failures.

121
Q

features of acute myeloid leukaemia

A

bone marrow failure, anaemia, thrombocytopenic bleeding (purpura, mucosal membrane bleeding), infection because of neutropenia.

122
Q

investigations of acute myeloid leukaemia

A

blood count and film, bone marrow aspirate, cytogenics (karyotype), immunophenotyping of leukaemic blasts, CSF examination if symptoms, targeted molecular genetics for associated acquired gene mutations.

123
Q

treatment of acute myeloid leukaemia

A

supportive care; chemo therapy (daunorubicin, cytosine arabinoside, gemtuzumab ozogamicin, CPX – 351), allogeneic stem cell transplantation, all trans retinoic acid and arsenic trioxide in low risk acute promyelocytic leukaemia, targeted treatments.

124
Q

newer treatments for acute myeloid leukaemia

A

Newer Tx’s include targeted small molecules midostaurin tyrosine kinase inhibitors inhibiting FLT3.

125
Q

polycythaemia vera features

A

headaches, itches, vascular occlusion, thrombosis, TIA, stroke, splenomegaly.

126
Q

polycythaemia vera treatment

A

venesection to reduce haematocrit, aspirin, hydroxcarbamide(stem cell suppressor)/alpha interferon, Ruxolitinib (JAK2 inhibitor in in HC failures with systemic symptoms).

127
Q

essential thrombocythemia features

A

raised platelet count, arterial and venous thromboses, digital ischaemia, gout, headache, mild splenomegaly

128
Q

treatment with essential thrombocythemia

A

treated with aspirin and hydroxycarbamide or anagrelide.

129
Q

paraprotein refers too

A

monoclonal immunoglobulin present in blood or urine. Sign of monoclonal proliferation of B lymphocyte/plasma cell.

130
Q

paraproteins are associated with

A

renal failure cast nephropathy, hyper viscosity (bleeding retinal, oral, nasal, cutaneous can lead to risk of cardiac failure, pulmonary congestion), hypogammaglobulinemia (infection risk), amyloidosis (deposition of fibrillar protein), cardiac failure, carpal tunnel syndrome, autonomic neuropathy.

131
Q

paraprotein’s are usually associated by which immunoglobulins

A

typically excess of IgG, IgA paraproteins by mature plasma cells.

132
Q

IgM paraprotein associated with

A

lymphoma made by maturing B-lymphocytes

133
Q

clinical presentation of myeloma

A

bone disease (lytic lesions, fractures, cord compression, hyper calcinemia, bone marrow failure), infections, anaemia, renal failure (CRAB)

134
Q

investigations for myeloma

A

serum protein electrophoresis for identifying monoclonal gammopathy (paraprotein).
total immunoglobulin levels (heavy chain/Fc section)
immunofixation for identifying paraprotein class
light chains (assess imbalance in the urine)

135
Q

diagnosis of myeloma requires

A

bone marrow biopsy with plasma cells

136
Q

staging of myeloma

A

of albumin and beta-2 microglobulin

137
Q

treatment for myeloma

A

chemo (Proteasome inhibitors), IMiDs (lenalidomide, pomalidomide), monoclonal antibodies, bisphosphonate therapy (zoledronic acid), RT, steroids, surgery (spinal decompression, long bone pinning), autologous stem cell transplant

138
Q

presentation of neutropenic sepsis

A

fever no localising signs, rigors, >38.5 or 2*38 degrees, chest infection, skin sepsis, urinary tract infection, septic shock

139
Q

gram positive febrile bacterial causes for immunosuppression

A

gram positive bacteria (60-70%); staphylococci MSSA, MRSA, coagulase negative, streptococci viridans

140
Q

gram-negative bacilli causes for immunosuppression

A

Escherichia coli, Klebsiella ESBL, pseudomonas aeruginosa

141
Q

fungal immunosuppression causitive agents

A

candida, aspergillus often deep-seated life-threatening lung, brain, liver, sinuses. Particularly likely to occur with monocytopenia and monocyte dysfunction.

142
Q

lymphopenia patient presentation

A

atypical pneumonia (pneumocystis Jirovecii), CMV, Viral (shingles, mouth ulcers, adenovirus, EBV). Risk of fungal and atypical mycobacteria

143
Q

prophylaxis for infection in immunosuppression

A

antibiotics, (ciprofloxacin), Anti-fungal (fluconazole), anti-viral (aciclovir), PJP (co-trimoxazole), growth-factors G-CSF for reversal of neutropenia, stem cell rescue/transplant, protective environment, I.V. immunoglobulin replacement, vaccination

144
Q

sepsis broad spectrum antibiotics

A

Tazocin and gentamicin (negative affiliated), gram positive (vancomycin and teicoplanin), post 72 hours then add I.V. caspofungin, CT for source.

145
Q

investigation for neutropenic fever

A

blood cultures, CXR, throat swab, sputum, FBC, renal and liver function, coagulation screen.

146
Q

primary immunodeficiency refers too

A

congenital, part of the immune system is missing or abnormally functioning. Often caused by mutations, some by autoimmunity. Creates predisposition to infection and tumours.

147
Q

secondary immunodeficiency refers too

148
Q

examples of innate immunity disorders

A

chronic granulomatous disease
leukocyte adhesion deficiency
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Toll-like receptor signalling defects

149
Q

causes of primary immunodeficiency

A

mutations, polymorphisms, polygenic

150
Q

mutation cause of primary immunodeficiency

A

rare and effect any part of the immune system causing severe disease.

151
Q

polymorphism causes of primary immunodeficiency

A

2 or more variants of DNA that can affect any part of the immune system and generate an increased moderate risk for infection. Most common polymorphism if for HLA alleles which is essential for HMC antigen presentation.

152
Q

polygenic causes of primary immunodeficiency

A

disorders caused by combined action of more than one gene. Common and affect mostly antibodies and may be caused by auto-immunity. Example being Common variable immunodeficiency CVID

153
Q

B cell immune deficiency may be susceptible to

A

pygogenic bacteria, enteric bacteria, viruses and some parasites, encapsulated bacteria

154
Q

T cell immune deficiency may be susceptible to

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci, viruses, atypical mycobacteria, fungi, candida, EBC, CMV, Kaposi sarcoma

155
Q

repeated infections with encapsulated bacteria is a sign of

A
defective antibody production. 
Antibody deficiency (IgG and IgA) leads to recurrent respiratory infection by pneumococcus or Haemophilus spp.
156
Q

reduced phagocytes are associated with

A

Infections with staphylococci, gram-negative bacteria, and fungi are

157
Q

complement defects predispose too

A

meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis

158
Q

Recurrent Candida infection is suggestive of

A

TH17 defects

159
Q

SCID reverse too

A

SCID – reverse combined immunodeficiency

160
Q

SCID presentation

A

die within first few months of life without treatment. Have unusual infections, diarrhoea, unusual rashes. Family history of neonatal death or consanguinity.

161
Q

SCID investigation

A

Very low lymphocyte count investigates with flow cytometry

162
Q

antibody deficiency investigations

A

IgG, IgA and IgM should be measured, specific antibody testing, check complement and neutrophil function

163
Q

SCID Tx

A

screen and stem cell transplant. Avoid live vaccines and prophylactic antibiotics

164
Q

SCID Tx

A

prevent infection, prophylactic antibiotics, immunoglobulin replacement therapy

165
Q

contrast types 1,2,3,4 hypersensitivity ABCD

A

A - Allergy
B – blood type
C - complexes
D – delayed

166
Q

contrast 1,2,3,4 hypersensitivity with short summary (1/2 words)

A

anaphylaxis
cytotoxic
immune complex
delayed

167
Q

IgE in type 1 hypersensitivity role

A

responsible for immediate hypersensitivity causing asthma or rhinitis

168
Q

IgE pathway for production in type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Produced by B cells when stimulated by IL-4 via TH2 cells.

169
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity pathophysiology

A

mediated through degranulation of mast cells and eosinophils reacting to allergen and IgE interactions. Release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes through cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways resulting in vasodilation and vascular permeability. Drop in blood pressure from the shift in fluids.

170
Q

early allergy patho

A

degranulation of mast cells and eosinophils in response to allergen and IgE reactions

171
Q

late allergy patho

A

migration of leukocytes to site in response to chemokines

172
Q

atopy refers too

A

immediate hypersensitivity reaction to environmental antigens mediated by IgE = allergy

173
Q

clinical effects of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

anaphylaxis, angioedema, urticaria, rhinitis, asthma, dermatitis, eczema

174
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity pathophysiology

A

antibody mediated hypersensitivity as a result of IgG or IgM reacting with antigen present on the surface of cells. Interacts with complement or with Fc receptor on macrophages, there is then opsonisation of target cells and immune mediated haemolysis

175
Q

clinical relevance of type 2 hypersensitivity

A

alloimmune haemolysis with ABO transfusion and rhesus antigen, autoimmune haemolysis induced by infection, drugs, or as a part of systemic autoimmune disease SLE, malignant B cells (Grave’s disease and hyperthyroidism), Goodpasture syndrome

176
Q

type 3 hypersensitivity pathophysiology

A

immune complex disease involving IgG as a result of binding to antigens and causing damage at the site or elsewhere. Failure of clearance through the complement system and phagocytes results in increased vascular permeability, neutrophil infiltration, inflammation, mast cell degranulation and thrombi formation

177
Q

clinical effects of type 3 hypersensitivity

A

glomerulonephritis (rapid onset renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, Farmer’s lung)

178
Q

pathophysiology of type 4 hypersensitivity

A

slowest form of hypersensitivity mediated by T cells, takes 2-3 days. macrophages release cytokines (IL-12) and initiate inflammation, presentation of antigens to T cells and they proliferate and attack site of inflammation. Secretion of Tumour necrosis factor TNF stimulate much of the damage.

179
Q

clinical effects of type 4 hypersensitivity

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (delayed hypersensitivity persistent TH1 and TH17 reactions), Multiple sclerosis

180
Q

central tolerance refers too

A

thymus for eliminating T cells and bone marrow for B cells.

181
Q

peripheral tolerance refers toon

A

mature lymphocytes that recognise mature self-antigens in peripheral tissues die via apoptosis

182
Q

autoimmune disease essentially refers to

A

break down of self-tolerance, self-antigens provoking an immune response through autoreactive T cells or autoantibodies (2,3,4 reactions)

183
Q

peripheral factors for auto-immunity

A

inappropriate access to self-antigens, increased local expression of co-stimulatory molecules, altered presentation of self-molecules

184
Q

genetic factors for auto-immunity

A

common polymorphisms of HLA association, AIRE mutations

185
Q

environmental factors for auto-immunity

A

infections, drugs and UV radiation

186
Q

inflammatory pathogenesis for auto-immunity

A

inflammation resulting in increased proteolytic enzymes resulting in peptides being presented to responsive T cells. Once tolerance has broken down just results in further exposure and acceleration of tissue damage

187
Q

infection pathogenesis for autoimmunity

A

antigen breakdown and presentation changes, upregulation of co-stimulation, molecular mimicry

188
Q

drugs autoimmunity pathogenesis

A

molecular mimicry, genetic variation in drug metabolism

189
Q

skin radiation autoimmunity pathogenesis

A

trigger for skin inflammation, modification of self-antigen

190
Q

non-organ autoimmune disease

A

multiple organs, associated with auto-immune responses against self-molecules through-out the body, intracellular molecules involved in transcription and translation

191
Q

organ specific autoimmune disease

A

restricted to one organ, endocrine glands

192
Q

major differences between donor and recipient

A

ABO compatibility
recipient must not have anti donor human Leukocyte antigens
Donor should match the HLA status of the recipient

193
Q

immunosuppressive drugs for preventing graft rejection

A

immunosuppressive drugs prevent rejection if given at time of transplantation; corticosteroids, T cell signalling blockers (cyclosporine and tacrolimus), IL-2 blockade (Basilixamb and rapamycin), anti-proliferative (azathioprine, mycophenolate)

194
Q

hyper acute organ rejection

A

preformed antibodies binding to ABO blood group or HLA class 1 antigens on graft, triggers type 2 hypersensitivity reaction and graft is destroyed by vascular thrombosis

195
Q

acute rejection organ pathogenesis

A

type 4 hypersensitivity, donor dendritic cells stimulate an allogeneic response in local lymph node and T cells proliferate into donor organ. Usually result of HLA mismatch.

196
Q

chronic organ rejection pathogenesis

A

allogeneic reaction mediated by T cells resulting in repeated acute rejections or recurrence of auto-immune disease

197
Q

afferent phase of organ rejection

A

donor MHC molecules on passenger leucocytes (dendritic cells) recognised by recipients CD4+ T cells

198
Q

effector phase of organ rejection

A

CD4+ T cells recruit effector cells responsible for the damage to the tissue

199
Q

define graft versus host disease

A

Donor T cells respond to allogeneic recipient antigens, mismatches in major or minor histocompatibility antigens. given immunosuppressive drugs to prevent. Often involves skin, gut, liver and lungs

200
Q

direct immunosuppressive therapy refers too

A

direct (targeted) antibodies that detect antigen on tumour and destroy target

201
Q

indirect immunosuppressive therapy refers too

A

immune system activation to destroy the tumour.

202
Q

passive infusions refer too

A

infusion of gamma globulins to reduce infection, or passive infusion of antibody specific to the toxins such as with snake or spider bites

203
Q

cytokine therapies refer too

A

form of indirect immunotherapy. Modulated cytokines (GM-CSF, pegylated IFN-Alpha, IL-2) use for specific cancer

204
Q

rituximab refers mechanism and use

A

first line for non-hodgkin’s lymphoma, specific for CD20 on sub population of B cells.

205
Q

infliximab mechanism and use

A

anti-TNF therapy used for ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis by blocking TNF

206
Q

Herceptin use

A

; binds to HER2 on cancer cells for breast cancer

207
Q

checkpoint inhibitors refer too

A

form of indirect immunotherapy; unlock gateway to adaptive immune system for powerful anti-tumour responses. Such as anti PD1/PD-L1 antibodies

208
Q

T cell immunotherapy

A

take samples of autologous T cells and allow them to overgrow with samples of the tumour for 2- 3 weeks, test for reactivity, if positive then culture and re-infuse.

209
Q

dendritic cell vaccine refers too

A

form of indirect immunotherapy; take sample from patient, culture cells with cytokines that promote APC function and transfuse with APC after uptake of tumour antigen.

210
Q

CAR-T cells refer too

A

engineered to express antigen-targeted receptors specific for tumour antigens