LMSW Flashcards

Pass or Pass

1
Q

As a new clinical social worker you find yourself being told by your supervisor you need to
be more confrontational. This seems at odds with the social work mission, until you
supervisor explains the primary purpose of confrontation is to:

A

make a client aware of inconsistencies

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2
Q

You have been hired, by a private, non-profit agency, which works with the HIV/AIDS
population. The primary function of your unit is to educate sexually active individuals about
the disease and to help them understand the importance of testing, life-style changes and
treatment if necessary. What is the BEST way to describe your agency’s type of
prevention?

A

secondary prevention

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3
Q

Terri showed up for his appointment very upset and anxious. She stated she is frightened
because she has begun hearing the voices again. The voices that tell her she should kill
herself. She has been hearing these voices for approximately 5 years and has two prior
suicide attempts over this time. She states that the voices have become stronger over the
past week. She says she had received a call from her mother that a friend from high school
had completed a suicide attempt. Your FIRST intervention should be…

A

Begin a complete suicide risk assessment.

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4
Q

You have begun working with a family in which there is a verified history of incestuous
relationships. Of the following characteristics, which one is MOST often found in families in
which incestuous relationships have occurred?

A

Enmeshment of family members

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5
Q

You are seeing a client who brings in a plastic bag full of prescription bottles. Most are
empty but you locate one which is half full. You realize, from this prescription the client
probably is being treated for a seizure disorder. The medication you discovered was…

A

Depakote

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6
Q

You have been asked by a colleague to consult with a young couple who have two children,
ages 6 and 2. They have recently been told, their 6-year-old child has an Affective Disorder.
The diagnosis was made after a school referral to a clinical social worker. The FIRST thing
you should do for this couple is…

A

Empower the parents through education about the disorder

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7
Q

You have been working with a client who has been describing a behavior which causes
them to feel uncomfortable, distressed, and burdened. According the tenets of Ego
psychology, this type of behavior would be BEST described as…

A

Ego Dystonic

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8
Q

You are working with an adult female who is experiencing difficult relationships plagued by
feelings of abandonment, idealization and devaluation of others with high positive regard
and heavy disappointment or dislike. You believe this problem with relationships deals with
unstable childhood experiences. Of the following treatment models, which would provide the
BEST chance of success in therapy.

A

Dialectical Behavioral Therapy

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9
Q

Of the following drugs prescribed by a psychiatrist, which would be most likely prescribed
for a diagnosis which included psychosis?

A

Risperdol (Risperidone)

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10
Q

Marco is a clinical social worker who has just taken a position with a community mental
health agency which primarily serves Latino families in a 30 mile radius. When dealing with
families referred to the agency, Marco should be concerned FIRST with …

A

Determine the degree of assimilation into American culture.

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11
Q

You have just begun an initial session with a battered woman who is just starting to tell you
about the story and history of abuse. The BEST thing you can do as a therapist is…

A

Simply listen to her story and do not offer advice or suggestions.

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12
Q

According to LaFromboise, Teresa D., Joseph E. Trimble, Gerald V. Mohatt, effective
counseling strategies with Native American populations include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Assess level of acculturation
B) Include families in interventions
C) Providing therapy in a “value-free” environment
D) Acknowledge the client’s tribal and familial affiliation

A

Providing therapy in a “value-free” environment

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13
Q

You are school social worker called to a teacher’s room because they have a six-year-old child
who has scrapes on his knees and shins. At the classroom the teacher states this is not the first
time the child has come to school with scrapes on his legs. As a mandated reporter your next
BEST step is to:

A

Question the teacher about past incidents.

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14
Q

You are finishing you work with a client. As you begin the process of termination, your
PRIMARY goal is …

A

Summarize the progress and goals you have achieved

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15
Q

You are working for an agency that takes walking referrals. In the middle of your shift you have
a walking referral, concerning a female who is a battered woman. She presents as scared and
paranoid. Of the following actions, which intervention should you complete first ?

A

Obtain referrals for immediate safety

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16
Q

You are writing a proposal to your agency to begin a group therapy project. As you are listing
the different aspects of the group, you realize the most important aspect you should consider for
establishing membership in the therapy group is?

A

Client diagnoses

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17
Q

You are clinical social worker being trained in the use of cognitive behavioral therapy. Which of
the following BEST describes the progress achieved as a result of the CBT intervention?

A

Behavior the client exhibits

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18
Q

Of the following medications, which one is MOST LIKELY to be used for the treatment of bipolar
disorder?

A

Abilify

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19
Q

A common complication in alcohol dependence is elevated pulse and blood pressure, often
in the hypertension range. The BEST description for this is?

A

Direct toxicity to striated muscle

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20
Q

Excessive drinking may interfere with the absorption, digestion, metabolism, and utilization
of nutrients, particularly vitamins. Alcoholics often use alcohol as a source of calories
instead of obtaining calories from a food source.
This behavior may lead to a nutrient deficiency and malnutrition. The BEST description of
the damage done is?

A

Direct toxic effects of alcohol on the small bowel; Malnutrition, malabsorption, and ethanol toxicity; Severe neurological damage.

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21
Q

You have begun working with a number of clients who are classified as dual-diagnosed.
This means they have a mental health and a substance abuse diagnosis. The first thing you
realize is the great variety of client presentation during your sessions. When working with
this population, you should plan on focusing which diagnosis FIRST?

A

The disorder with the most severe symptoms

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22
Q

While the use of marijuana only has little impairment on a driver, mixing even small
amounts of alcohol with marijuana has severe impact on driving skills. According to the
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration’s National Center for Statistics and Analysis,
which represents the MOST accurate percent of traffic fatalities which were alcohol related?

A

about one-third

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23
Q

A social worker at a community counseling center meets with a 15-year-old girl
and her mother for an initial assessment. During the assessment, the mother
dominates the session telling the social worker that her daughter recently found out
she is pregnant and she would like her to have an abortion. The girl remains silent
throughout the session and when asked by the social worker what she wants she
states, “I don’t care.” The social worker should FIRST:

A

Meet with the daughter individually to explore her feelings about the pregnancy.

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24
Q

A 30-year-old man who came out to his family as being gay has been meeting with
a social worker for the past 3-months. During sessions, the client states that when he
is with his friends who are straight he feels the need to criticize and make fun of
other gay men. Which of the following BEST describes the client’s behavior?

A

Reaction Formation

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25
Q

A social worker has been struggling to maintain her client caseload after losing her
mother to cancer. During a recent session, a client stated that it feels like the the
social worker isn’t focused on what she’s saying. The social worker should FIRST:

A

Consult with a supervisor.

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26
Q

A school social worker has developed an educational curriculum that addresses the risks
of substance abuse and drug use to middle school classrooms. This is an example of:

A

Primary Prevention

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27
Q

A social worker is meeting with a 25-year-old woman who was laid off from her
job three months ago and since then has been struggling financially. The client
also reports that her boyfriend of four years recently broke up with her after
cheating on her with another woman. The client reports increased feelings of
hopelessness and states, “I don’t know what the point is anymore.” The social
worker should FIRST:

A

Assess the client for suicidal ideation.

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28
Q

A social worker meets with the parents of a 25-year-old man who is struggling
with substance abuse. During the session the mother states that she is frustrated
with her husband because he is constantly allowing their son to live in their home
and gives him money since he has been unable to keep a job due to his drinking.
Which of the following BEST describes the father’s behavior?

A

Enabling

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29
Q

A social worker facilitates a group for women who are survivors of childhood
sexual abuse. During a recent meeting it becomes clear that one of the women
violated group confidentiality by discussing the details of another member’s abuse
history with her husband. What should the social worker do NEXT?

A

Process the confidentiality violation during the group.

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30
Q

A client seeks services at a community mental health center. He reports that his
chief complaint is that he can’t get a job so he is “stuck living in his parents’
basement.” He is dressed in pajamas with a neck tie. He reports that his only
friends are people he knows online in an alien tracking club. He asks if the social
worker believes in ghosts. What diagnosis should be considered for this client?

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

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31
Q

A social worker is receiving repeated telephone calls from a previous client who has completed treatment and resolved the targeted problem. What should the social worker do?

A

Schedule a session to assess the client for further problems

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32
Q

How can a social worker BEST establish rapport with a client in the first interview?

A

Understand the client’s view of the problem

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33
Q

A social worker at a community mental health agency is doing a home visit
to a client as he has not gotten his medication refilled as prescribed. The
social worker learns that he has not been taking it for several weeks due to
a belief that it is not helping alleviate his thought to “just end things.” In
order to assist the client, the social worker should FIRST:

A

Conduct a suicide risk assessment

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34
Q

Upon intake, a client who professes to be “health conscious” reports
that she smokes cigarettes. When asked by the social worker if she is
aware of the health risks associated with smoking, the client states that
“the reports are filled with misinformation and the hazards are not
that great.” The client’s assertion MOST likely results from:

A

Cognitive dissonance

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35
Q

A social worker who retired more than a year ago from private
practice runs into a former client whom she has not seen in years.
The former client received grief counseling from the social worker for
several years after her mother died. The former client also recently
retired and suggests that the social worker join a local group for
retirees to which she belongs. The social worker, who has been
looking for ways to stay active, agrees to attend the next meeting. The
social worker’s actions are:

A

Problematic as she is knowingly creating a conflict of interest or
dual relationship

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36
Q

A client reports that he was recently in a serious accident at work that
has resulted in limitations in his mobility. In this situation, a social
worker should FIRST:

A

Conduct a biopsychosocial assessment to determine the impact of
the client’s physical changes on his other life domains

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37
Q

Universalism as a basis of social allocation is BEST defined as:

A

Benefits made available to an entire population as a basic right

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38
Q

Absent client consent to release records or a recognized legal exception,
what ethical duty do social workers have with regard to releasing client
information?

A

Social workers must release information only if subpoenaed to
do so

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39
Q

A school social worker is contacted by the parents of a 12-year-old boy as they would like to see his educational records based on the
belief that they contain inaccurate information about his academic achievements. Under federal law, these records are:

A

Open to inspection and review by the parents at any time

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40
Q

An example of cultural blindness in social work practice is:

A

Viewing the needs of all clients, not just those in the dominant culture, as equally important

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41
Q

A client is upset about the breakup of his marriage. He feels distraught
and does not think that he will ever have another intimate relationship.
In this situation, the social worker can BEST demonstrate empathy by:

A

Listening attentively while looking at the client as he describes his feelings

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42
Q

George Brager

A

Social Work theorist associated with community organization practice

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43
Q

Harry Specht

A

Social Work theorist associated with community organization practice

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44
Q

Saul Alinsky

A

Practitioner of Social Action

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45
Q

Stages of practice in community organization practice

A
  1. Socialization Group
  2. Primary Group
  3. Organization Development Group
  4. Institutional Relations Organization
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46
Q

DSM V: Axis I

A

Clinical syndromes and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention

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47
Q

DSM V: Axis II

A

Personality Disorders & Mental Retardation

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48
Q

DSM V: Axis III

A

General medical conditions (No DSM diagnosis belongs here, it refers only to physical disorders)

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49
Q

DSM V: Axis IV

A

Psychosocial & Environmental Problems

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50
Q

DSM V: Axis V

A

Global Assessment of Functioning

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51
Q

Severity of Disorder

A

Mild, Moderate, Severe, In partial remission, In full remission, Prior history

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52
Q

Person-in-Environment

A

Views client problems within the environmental context in which they occur

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53
Q

Systems Theory

A

Looks at the constituent parts of a client as well as how well he or she fits into their various systems of life. Suggests that interventions focus on the interaction between person and environment.

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54
Q

Ecological Perspective

A

Focused on reciprocal interactions between an individual and his or her environment. Believes that an individual’s perception of his or her environment affects overall well-being.

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55
Q

Biopsychosocial Perspective

A

Analysis of human behavior as a function of the interaction of personal, biological, psychological, and social components

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56
Q

Strengths Perspective

A

Alternative to deficit-based, problem-focused, and pathology-oriented perspectives. Orients the clinican to the client’s talents, skills, and abilities

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57
Q

Schizophrenia and psychotic symptoms medication

A

Old: Haldol (Haloperidol), Thorazine (Chlorpromazine), Mellaril (Thioridazine), Stelazine (Trifluoperazine), Prolixin (Fluphenazine), Navane (Thiothixene), Clorazil (Clozapine)

Newer or atypical: Clorazil, Risperdal, Seroquel, Olanzapine (Zyprexa), Abilify

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58
Q

Bipolar disorder medication

A

Mood stabilizers: Lithium, Tegretol, Depakote, Lamictal

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59
Q

Depression medication

A

SSRIs: Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil, Luvox, Celexa, Lexapro

Atypical antidepressants: Effexor, Wellbutrin, Cymbalta

Tricyclic antidepressants: Imipramine, Amitriptyline, Elavil

MAOIs: Nardil, Parnate, Marplan

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60
Q

Anxiety medication

A

Benzodiazepines: Ativan (Lorazepam), Xanax, Klonopin, Valium

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61
Q

Attention disorders medication

A

Amphetamine-like: Ritalin, Concerta, Adderall, Adderall XR

Non-amphetamine: Strattera

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62
Q

Delirium

A

Disturbance in consciousness or cognition that develops over a short period of time. Caused by a medical condition or is substance induced.

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63
Q

Dementia

A

Memory impairment, multiple cognitive deficits. Includes Alzheimer’s (gradual onset with progressive deterioration), vascular dementia, dementia due to HIV, Parkinson’s, or other medical conditions.

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64
Q

Rachel is in therapy for anger management. She has set a goal with her therapist to find healthy outlets to release her anger. Rachel has recently begun kickboxing and reports to her therapist that it is helpful to have a release for her pint-up feelings. Rachel engaging in a healthy activity such as kickboxing to release her anger is an example of which defense mechanism?

A

Sublimination- This defense mechanism is defined as a person engaging in a healthy activity in order to release internal emotions that are unpleasant, discomforting, or stressful.

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65
Q

In facilitating a hospital support group for bereaved parents, a social worker can discuss a personal experience of death of child to:

A

Create a sense of shared experience- The ideal purpose of self-disclosure on behalf of the facilitator is to create a shared experience amongst the group members, and increase cohesion between the facilitator and group members.

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66
Q

Emergence of symbolic thinking, animistic thinking (the belief that inanimate objects are alive), and egocentric thinking ( viewing the world from one’s own perspective and not being capable of seeing things from another person’s perspective) are characteristics of which stage of Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development?

A

preoperational- ages 2-7

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67
Q

A young couple present for counseling following police intervention for domestic violence. He admits to drinking “a few too many sometimes, usually only 8-10 beers”. The FIRST step for hte social worker to take is:

A

provide informed consent for treatment- Before information can be provided (such as resources), or gathered (such as a safety concerns), the social worker must inform the clients consent, and limitations to consent

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68
Q

On a Mental State Examination, the least remarkable piece of information is:

A

the client’s social status in the community- The Mental Status exam focuses on client’s psychological, emotional, and cognitive abilities

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69
Q

Christine has been described by her mother as a normal and healthy child since her birth. However, one and a half months ago she began regurgitating her food and re-chewing it after every meal. She has been checked by her primary medical physician who found no physiological symptoms, thus the referral to your practice. No other DSM-5 diagnostic symptoms are present except those described above. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

A

rumination disorder- a condition in which a person keeps bringing up food from the stomach into the mouth and re-chewing the food. This disorder usually starts after 3 months, following a period of normal digestion. This disorder often gives the child control and can be seen as attention seeking.

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70
Q

Prior to assigning a diagnosis to a client, a clinical social worker should first rule out:

A

general medical conditions and substance-related disorders- these should always be considered first, and then ruled out if appropriate. Many mental health disorders share symptoms that are often present with medical conditions or substance abuse-related disorders.

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71
Q

A couple requests help in improving their 7 year marriage. When you ask them about their goals, they begin to argue almost immediately. The husband states his wife nags him too much about chores. The wife states her husband is lazy. How should you proceed with establishing treatment goals?

A

Assist them in establishing treatment goals to help them learn how to improve communication and resolve conflict.

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72
Q

A social worker has started to treat a woman who has been diagnosed with dependent personality disorder. The woman reports a variety of failed relationships. She acknowledges that she often makes unhealthy choices in the kinds of partners that she picks. When establishing a therapeutic relationship with a client, what sort of information should the social worker keep in mind?

A

The client may be superficially compliant with treatment to try to gain approval but may struggle to make lasting changes.

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73
Q

Bobby and Betty have 3 kids, Billy, Bambi, and Brooke. During therapy Bambi sits in between the parents and looks at mom before answering any question. Dad shakes his head every time she looks at her mom. Which of the following should a structural therapist probably do?

A

Direct child to sit next to brother and sister and mom and dad next to each other.

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74
Q

If a client is suffering from panic attacks, which of the following interventions, along with deep breathing would probably be most beneficial?

A

Interoceptive training are a type of conditioning technique where the therapist helps the client become more capable of recognizing and coping with social cues, triggers, and early signs of panic attacks.

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75
Q

Mack is in an automobile accident, which nearly claimed his life, leaving him in intensive care for two months followed by three months of physical rehabilitation. What is your FIRST intervention strategy?

A

The first intervention will be to facilitate him telling his story and personal truth.

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76
Q

Sacral refers to

A

The sacrum is the portion of the vertebrae column between the lumbar vertebrae and the structures of the coccyx.

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77
Q

__________ - antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and agitation

A

Abilify

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78
Q

__________ - stimulant used to treat ADHD

A

Adderall

79
Q

__________ - used as a sleep aid, cause drowsiness

A

Ambien

80
Q

__________ - tricyclic antidepressant

A

Anafranil

81
Q

__________ - benzodiazepine, used to relieve anxiety

A

Ativan

82
Q

AASPIRINS

A
Acknowledge the client
Assess
Start where the client is
Protect the client
Intoxicated
Refer
Informed consent
Non-judgmental stance
Self-determination
83
Q

A fifteen year old girl has been sent home from school on three occasions for drinking alcohol at school. Each time, the mother becomes angry and threatens to punish the girl but is convinced by the father to give her another chance. Which of the following BEST characterizes the father’s behavior in this situation?

a. triangulation
b. enabling
c. advocating
d. manipulating

A

b. enabling

84
Q

Parents continually refuse to communicate with their child who is in a residential treatment facility. The social worker should FIRST:

a. respect the parent’s need for separation by not contacting them
b. request that the child be discharged
c. contact the parents about the child’s placement
d. assess the child’s response to the parents’ actions

A

d. assess the child’s response to the parents’ actions

85
Q

Common indicators of sexual, physical and emotional abuse include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. violence against younger children
b. sexualized behavior
c. isolation
d. stuttering

A

d. stuttering

86
Q

The concept of gender roles is BEST defined as:

a. attitudes and behaviors attached to individuals because of their sex
b. an individual’s sex orientation and/or preference
c. biological characteristics that influence an individual’s behavior
d. interplay of biological and sociocultural influences

A

a. attitudes and behaviors attached to individuals because of their sex

87
Q

Which type of interviewing question is MOST likely to generate client defensiveness?

a. open ended
b. closed
c. leading
d. why

A

d. why

88
Q

When interviewing a client whose speech patterns are different from the social worker’s, the social worker’s PRIMARY consideration should be that:

a. communication patterns vary due to economic conditions
b. speech is influenced by culture and experience
c. psychosocial conditions will cause variations in speech
d. speech is influenced by group taboos and norms and may indicate false beliefs

A

b. speech is influenced by culture and experience

89
Q

The initial symptoms of schizophrenia MOST often occur between which of the following years of age?

a. 6 to 12
b. 13 to 16
c. 17 to 45
d. 16 to 60

A

c. 17 to 45

90
Q

Which of the following approaches would be MOST appropriate to use in evaluating client satisfaction with the social worker’s provision of services?

a. using a single system design, evaluate the quality of services
b. in the final interview, ask the client about their level of satisfaction
c. after submitting process recordings, ask supervisor for feedback
d. at termination, ask clients to complete a service evaluation and satisfaction form

A

d. at termination, ask clients to complete a service evaluation and satisfaction form

91
Q

When conducting an assessment of the risk factors of child abuse for a child of a different ethnic background, a social worker must FIRST:

a. be aware of how personal cultural biases affect the social worker’s ability to deal with issues of diversity
b. realize that assessment models are not a substitute for clinical judgment or experience
c. use a strengths’ perspective rather than a deficit model to form a partnership with the child’s family
d. understand the need for appropriate eye contact, tone of voice and question techniques during the assessment

A

a. be aware of how personal cultural biases affect the social worker’s ability to deal with issues of diversity

92
Q

A social worker is receiving a client with long-standing depression. It becomes known that the client has racist beliefs. The social worker should:

a. respectfully confront the client’s prejudiced beliefs
b. educate the client about the negative effects of racism
c. refer the client to another therapist who might have similar belief
d. respect the client’s beliefs and focus on the presenting problem

A

d. respect the client’s beliefs and focus on the presenting problem

93
Q

Piaget created ________

A

theory of cognitive development

94
Q

Erikson worked in _______

A

Human psychosocial development theory

95
Q

Jesse Taft and Virginia Robinson started _______

A

Functional theory

96
Q

Ackerman was the _____

A

Father of Family Therapy. Psychoanalytic approach

97
Q

Bandura focused on ______

A

Motivational needs, drives, impulses, cognition toward action or change

98
Q

Skinner worked with _______

A

Learning and reinforcement, emphasis on consequences

99
Q

ID

A

Instinct and primitive behaviors

100
Q

Ego

A

Dealing with reality

101
Q

Superego

A

Our sense of right and wrong

102
Q

Psychosocial Development: Oral Stage

A

Birth - 1 year

103
Q

Psychosocial Development: Anal Stage

A

1 - 3 years old

104
Q

Psychosocial Development: Phallic Stage

A

3 - 6 years old

105
Q

Psychosocial Development: Latent Period

A

6 - 12 years old

106
Q

Psychosocial Development: Genital

A

12 years old and older

107
Q

Sinemet (medication)

A

primary medication used for Parkinson’s disease

108
Q

Primary Prevention

A

Keeps conditions known to result in a problem from occurring

109
Q

Secondary Prevention

A

Limit severity of problem. Early identification.

110
Q

Tertiary Prevention

A

Rehabilitory efforts to assist client who has already experienced a problem

111
Q

ECAR

A

Explore Clarify Assess Refer

112
Q

A patient who is described as “oriented times four” (or “oriented x4”) is able to
demonstrate awareness of which of the following four features:
A. Name, date, city, season.
B. Age, current year, location, and situation.
C. Name, gender, ethnicity, marital status.
D. Person, place, time, situation.

A

D. Person, place, time, situation

113
Q

Define the terms reliability and validity in evaluative testing:
A. A test is reliable if it is easy to use and valid if it is commonly used
B. A test is reliable if it produces consistent results and valid if it measures what it claims to measure
C. A test is reliable if it includes Likert scale response options and valid if it has been endorsed by major research institutions
D. A test is reliable if it measures what it reports to measure and valid if it produces consistent results

A

B. A test is reliable if it produces consistent results and valid if it measures what it claims to measure

114
Q

Executive functioning broadly refers to:
A. The skill and capacity of a leader to lead
B. Higher order cognitive functions and capacity
C. Administrative policy and guidelines
D. A bureaucratic leadership style

A

B. Higher order cognitive functions and capacity

115
Q

As a supervisor in a counseling clinic, you are approached by clerical staff asking how long they should retain patient counseling records. The best answer you could give is:
A. Until the client is no longer being seen
B. Until the patient dies
C. Until the statute of limitations expires
D. As long as possible, preferably indefinitely

A

D. As long as possible, preferably indefinitely

116
Q

You have been seeing a significantly depressed client for some months and have been carefully keeping records following each session. Recently the client became upset with you, as he felt you have been critical of his life and past decisions. During your last session, the client seemed overly suspicious and even a bit paranoid, despite your efforts
to reassure him and regain rapport. The next day, the client shows up without an
appointment and demands to see your clinical notes. Your BEST response would be to:
A. Tell the client to make an appointment to review his records
B. Tell the client he is not permitted to see your private notes
C. Immediately give the client a photocopy of his records
D. Give the client the original record, after you have made a copy

A

A. Tell the client to make an appointment to review his records

117
Q

Identify the difference between psychotherapy and counseling:
A. Psychotherapy is generally considered to be long-term in nature and counseling to be more short-term
B. Psychotherapy uses a specific systems approach while counseling is less bound by theory
C. There is no difference between the two terms
D. The term psychotherapy may only be used properly when referring to psychoanalysis

A

A. Psychotherapy is generally considered to be long-term in nature and counseling to be more short-term

118
Q

You have just had your first session with a 24-year-old college student. She is seeing you following the break-up of a two-year relationship, which occurred without warning about six weeks prior to this visit. As she explained it, “He met someone else and just
moved on.” She has been having trouble sleeping and concentrating on her studies since that time. Today she presents as dysphoric and tearful, but is affectively expressive and responsive to humor and other interactive stimuli. The university she attends is a considerable distance from her family and friends, leaving her with limited support during this difficult time. The most appropriate diagnosis would be:
A. Primary Insomnia
B. Major Depression
C. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
D. Acute stress disorder

A

C. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood

119
Q

You work for a major corporation as a counselor. The available services are broad, and include family therapy and couples counseling. You were sought out by a husband,
experiencing significant marital discord. He is employed by the corporation, and he took the first steps to enter couples counseling. After a few sessions, it becomes clear that the
wife has traits of a serious Axis II disorder, and over time you begin seeing her
exclusively. It has been two months since your last contact with the husband. Please identify your primary client.
A. The husband
B. The wife
C. The corporation
D. The couple

A

B. The wife

120
Q

What primary condition is treated by monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs),
serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A. Attention Deficit Disorders
B. Eating Disorders
C. Sleep Disorders
D. Depressive Disorders

A

D. Depressive Disorders

121
Q

You are called to evaluate the 4-year-old child of a Southeast Asian family. The child has been ill for some days, and was brought to the emergency room with a temperature of
102° and symptoms of a pulmonary viral infection. During the medical examination, the
physician noted numerous long, reddened welts on the child’s skin, with superficial
ecchymosis (bruising) and petechiae (minute hemorrhages) across the child’s chest,
suggestive of some form of abuse. Through an interpreter, he learned that a healing “shaman” had repeatedly performed a “coin rubbing” procedure in an attempt to draw out “bad wind” or “bad blood.” You view the child’s back, and also see these marks. A nurse notes that “coin rubbing” to induce healing is common among traditional Vietnamese, Chinese, Hmong, Cambodians, and Laotians. She suggests that there is no need to report
it as abuse. You don’t want to alienate the family or cause them to avoid seeking health
care. As a social worker your best response would be to:
A. Concur with the nurse and close the case
B. Call a local Southeast Asian cultural center to learn more
C. Call CPS and let them decide
D. Call the police and request an investigation

A

C. Call CPS and let them decide

122
Q

You have been called to see the family caregiver of a 32-year-old developmentally
delayed dependent adult with a hand print bruise on his arm. The caregiver reports having to restrain the patient forcibly when the patient tried to leave the facility and run into busy traffic. The physician reports that the patient has no other old bruises, and you see no evidence of fear on the part of the patient when interacting with the caregiver. You realize, however, that a report must be filed, due to the nature and circumstances
surrounding the injury. After interviewing the caregiver and consulting with the
physician, he tells you that his nurse will be calling Adult Protective Services, so you
need not bother. The proper response is:
A. To thank the physician and nurse for saving you this burden
B. To call APS later and make sure they received the nurse’s report
C. To call the care facility’s licensing board and make a report there
D. To call APS yourself

A

D. To call APS yourself

123
Q

You are working with a 42-year-old executive who is coping with the after-effects of a business failure and subsequent personal bankruptcy. He is generally coping well, but
he reveals a past history of alcoholism and indicates that he is struggling with a desire to resume drinking. You encourage him to follow with an Alcoholics Anonymous group, but he responds that he thinks he can manage without such help. You have a personal drinking history yourself, and you recognize the warning signs. You then consider revealing your personal story and bolster your recommendation that he seek help, to demonstrate the level of your personal understanding and empathy, and to motivate him to take further action. The BEST course of action would be:
A. To withhold this information, because it involves personal disclosure by a therapist in a professional counseling relationship
B. To share your story, because it is entirely relevant to the client’s specific situation
C. To share your story, because the consequences if the client returns to drinking are potentially severe
D. To disclose limited information, being careful not to reveal too much about your own history, in order to motivate the client

A

A. To withhold this information, because it involves personal disclosure by a therapist in a professional counseling relationship

124
Q

You are hired by a private practice therapist who operates a court-supervised violent offender treatment program. One of your responsibilities is to screen new client referrals,
to ensure that only low-risk, first-time offenders are accepted into the program. In this process, you are to have each client sign a treatment consent form, which also includes a detailed consent for release of information. You note that instead of the usual time and target limits, the form allows information to be released at any time to “any law enforcement agency,” “any spouse, ex-spouse, or significant other,” “any welfare or abuse protection agency,” etc. You ask about the ethics of having clients sign this form, and you are told, “It’s a hassle to try and get specific information releases, and the safety
of the public is at stake. Use the form.” Your BEST response is to:
A. Use the form as directed
B. Refuse to use the form
C. Call your licensing board and discuss the form
D. Call law enforcement and discuss the form

A

B. Refuse to use the form

125
Q

A study attempts to measure the efficacy of a new antidepressant medication. A “control” group of depression sufferers will receive only a placebo, while an “intervention” group will receive the new medication. In this study, the “null hypothesis” would state the following:
A. The intervention group will report fewer symptoms of depression than the control group
B. The control group will report fewer symptoms of depression than the intervention group
C. Both the control group and the intervention group will report fewer numbers of depressive symptoms
D. There shall be no measurable difference in depression symptom reporting between the control group and the intervention group

A

D. There shall be no measurable difference in depression symptom reporting between the control group and the intervention group

126
Q

In statistical research, a “Type I Error” (also called an “alpha error,” or a “false
positive”) refers to:
A. Failing to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false
B. A failure to randomize research participants, thereby potentially introducing bias
C. Rejecting the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
D. Assuming a normal statistical distribution when it is skewed

A

C. Rejecting the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true

127
Q

In statistical research, a “Type II Error” (also called a “beta error” or “false negative”) refers to:
A. A failure to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false
B. Erroneously selecting a statistical analysis model based upon invalid assumptions
C. Rejecting the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
D. Making an error in mathematical calculations, upon which a finding is based

A

A. A failure to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false

128
Q
According to Bush et al (2003), what percentage of people who successfully commit suicide have made a prior attempt?
A. 76%
B. 23%
C. 49%
D. Less than 10%
A

C. 49%

129
Q
In terms of quality assurance in social work practice, what does the acronym “CQI” represent?
A. Certification of Quality Institute
B. Communication Quality Index
C. Command of Quality Indicators
D. Continuous Quality Improvement
A

D. Continuous Quality Improvement

130
Q
Identify the missing step in Albert R. Roberts seven-stage crisis intervention model: 1) assess lethality; 2) establish rapport; 3) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; 4) deal with feelings; 5) explore alternatives; 6) develop an action plan; 7) follow-up. The third step is:
A. Evaluate resources
B. Identify problems
C. Environmental control
D. Collateral contacts
A

B. Identify problems

131
Q

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) refers to:
A. A quality improvement plan for crisis counselors
B. A method for reducing stress in “first-responders”
C. A communication-based stress evaluation technique
D. A way to rank the stress inherent in various encounters

A

B. A method for reducing stress in “first-responders”

132
Q

According to J.W. Drisko (2009), the five key factors required for a quality
therapeutic relationship between client and clinician are: 1) affective attunement; 2) mutual affirmation; 3) joint efforts to resolve missteps; 4) __________; and 5) using
varying types of empathy. The fourth key factor is:
A. Use of humor
B. Accepting criticism
C. Capacity to trust
D. Goal congruence

A

D. Goal congruence

133
Q
A woman describes herself as happily married, yet she occasionally engages in episodic sexual contacts with other men. When asked what motivates her episodes of infidelity, she provides a rather vague initial response and finally states, “I guess I just don’t know.” According to Freud, what area of cognition is involved in her behavior?
A. The subconscious mind
B. The preconscious mind
C. The conscious mind
D. The unconscious mind
A

D. The unconscious mind

134
Q
Freud described the concept of pain (whether physical or emotional) as arising through the psychic process of:
A. Repression
B. Introjection
C. Cathexis
D. Fixation
A

C. Cathexis

135
Q

You meet with a client who has been struggling financially. It becomes apparent that he must reduce his standard of living in order to maintain financial solvency. He therefore sells his large luxury automobile and purchases a small but reliable economy vehicle, realizing considerable savings. According to Heinz Hartmann’s “Ego
Psychology” this kind of accommodation is an example of:
A. Defensive functioning
B. Alloplastic behavior
C. Integrative functioning
D. Autoplastic behavior

A

B. Alloplastic behavior

136
Q

According to “Object Relations Theory,” an infant’s separation and individuation
from its mother should largely be complete by the time the infant is aged:
A. 24 months
B. 5 months
C. 14 months
D. 9 months

A

A. 24 months

137
Q
Self-Psychology, as postulated by Heinz Kohut, acknowledges that personality is partly formed by social structure. A cohesive self is achieved by incorporating the perceptions and functions of healthy significant others and objects into an internalized
self structure through a process called:
A. Empathic mirroring
B. Rapprochement
C. Differentiation
D. Transmuting internalization
A

D. Transmuting internalization

138
Q

The primary focus of Gestalt Psychology, as founded by Frederick Perls, is on:
A. The developmental issues and the past, as they influence the present
B. The “here and now”
C. Adaptation and the future
D. Moral development

A

B. The “here and now”

139
Q
According to Erik Erikson’s model of the Psychosocial Stages of Development, individuals over the age of 50 are moving into the following stage:
A. Ego integrity versus despair
B. Intimacy versus isolation
C. Identity versus role confusion
D. Generativity versus stagnation
A

A. Ego integrity versus despair

140
Q

The capacity to understand death is a developmental process. From ages 2-5, death is not understood as permanent and may be viewed as sleep. From ages 5-9, death’s
permanence may be recognized, but some children may not understand it will happen to them (external symbols such as angels and skeletons predominate). By age ten (but more often around age seven, especially if loss of a pet or loved one has occurred), death is understood as permanent, irreversible, and inevitable. The two developmental stages that encompass these increasingly elaborate understandings (in ascending order), as identified by Piaget, are:
A. Formal operational, concrete operational
B. Pre-operational, formal operational
C. Pre-operational, concrete operational
D. Sensorimotor, pre-operational

A

C. Pre-operational, concrete operational

141
Q

An early cognitive theorist, who worked directly with Freud, established a theoretical orientation that differed from Freud’s in three key features: 1) an individual’s personality is best perceived as a whole, rather than as having hierarchical segments or parts; 2) social relationships drive behavior more than sexual motivations; and 3) current beliefs
and thoughts play a far greater role in human behavior than is suggested via psychoanalytic theory, which is based largely in the unconscious and in past experiences and beliefs. The name of this theorist is:
A. Lawrence Kohlberg
B. Anna Freud
C. Albert Ellis
D. Alfred Adler

A

D. Alfred Adler

142
Q
Which cognitive-behavior approach incorporates a theory of emotion known as the “ABC Theory of Emotion”?
A. Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy
B. Rational emotive therapy
C. Functional analytic psychotherapy
D. Cognitive analytic therapy
A

B. Rational emotive therapy

143
Q
In working with a client, you become aware that she persistently behaves in ways to please or gain the approval of others. While this is not always problematic, you discover that she is obsessed with wearing the “right” clothes, living in the “right” neighborhood, and marrying the “right” person. At present, her finances are in a shambles as she tries desperately to “keep up with the Joneses,” and her romantic life is suffering, as she only pursues relations that she believes others think are optimum, rather than judging relationships on more personally relevant values, such as her feelings for them, baseline compatibility, etc. Utilizing Kohlberg’s Theory of Moral Development, specify the Level and Stage of moral development that applies to this individual:
A. Conventional Level, Stage 3
B. Pre-conventional Level, Stage 1
C. Post-conventional Level, Stage 6
D. Conventional Level, Stage 4
A

A. Conventional Level, Stage 3

144
Q

Name the four kinds of reinforcement used in Operant Conditioning Theory, as established by B.F. Skinner:
A. Positive reinforcement, conditioned stimulus, consequence responses, and negative reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement, punishment, conditioned responses, and antecedent events
C. Consequence response, deprivation responses, rewards, time-out responses
D. Positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, and extinction

A

D. Positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, and extinction

145
Q

Identify the four steps (in the proper order) that Albert Bandura formulated to operationalize Social Learning Theory:
A. Attention, retention, reproduction, motivation
B. Attention, motivation, retention, reproduction
C. Motivation, retention, reproduction, attention
D. Reproduction, motivation, attention, retention

A

A. Attention, retention, reproduction, motivation

146
Q

You have a client experiencing significant cognitive dissonance. She considers herself as a very principled person, and holds herself to very high standards of conduct. She very openly condemns drinking, gambling, and other “vices,” yet she reveals that she
has long struggled with a desire to gamble. Her very vigorous denunciations of gambling, even while harboring a desire herself, constitute the application of what defense mechanism?
A. Projection
B. Rationalization
C. Reaction formation
D. Substitution

A

C. Reaction formation

147
Q

You have been contacted by a couple to assist them with issues of marital discord.
They have been married about six months. The wife presents as vulnerable, tearful, and anxious, and the husband presents as angry and overwhelmed. The wife openly claims that “he has never loved me,” and expresses anger that he married her without “the proper feelings.” The husband responds that he has “done everything possible” to “prove” his love (to the point of near bankruptcy and jeopardizing his employment with frequent
absences), but nothing is sufficient. During the interview, you discover that she has had many short-term relationships in the past, that she has a history of suicide gestures and “fits of rage.” Further, she frequently demands a divorce and then begs him to stay, is routinely physically assaultive, etc. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Intermittent explosive disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

A

D. Borderline personality disorder

148
Q

Developmentally, a child that can walk independently both sideways and backwards,
climb stairs, throw objects, jump with two feet, and that knows several words and short phrases would be approximately:
A. 9-12 months old
B. 15-17 months old
C. 18-19 months old
D. 2 years old

A

C. 18-19 months old

149
Q
Identify the gender and typical age when the “Electra Complex” occurs:
A. Females, 3-7 years of age
B. Males, 3-6 years of age
C. Females, 8-12 years of age
D. Males, 6-12 years of age
A

A. Females, 3-7 years of age

150
Q

A group of individuals with one or more characteristics (social, physical, religious, or
cultural) identified as being subordinately distinct in a larger societal context is referred to as a:
A. Heterogeneous group
B. Minority group
C. Target group
D. Homogeneous group

A

B. Minority group

151
Q

T/F: Social Workers should work with diverse clients only if they have had specific training in that client’s unique cultural background.

A

False

152
Q

Cultural competence in individual social work practice is best defined as:
A. The ability to work well with diverse groups
B. Receiving excellent training in diversity
C. The possession of a wide-ranging knowledge of many diverse groups
D. The ability to recognize stereotypes, prejudiced views, and biases

A

A. The ability to work well with diverse groups

153
Q
Basing one’s feelings, attitudes, and beliefs regarding a specific group of people upon preconceived ideas, rumors, and inferences is BEST defined as:
A. Bias
B. Prejudice
C. Stereotyping
D. Singling out
A

B. Prejudice

154
Q
Basing the opportunities, options, and benefits available to a specific group of people based upon preconceptions and assumptions is BEST defined as:
A. Bigotry
B. Discrimination
C. Prejudice
D. Misogyny
A

B. Discrimination

155
Q

Identify the four most common minority classifications:
A. Ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, culture
B. Religion, race, gender, sexual orientation
C. Age, appearance, social standing, gender
D. Age, gender, race, sexual orientation

A

D. Age, gender, race, sexual orientation

156
Q
The belief that your personal background (i.e., race, culture, religion, etc) is superior to that of others is known as:
A. Stereotyping
B. Racism
C. Ethnocentrism
D. Elitism
A

C. Ethnocentrism

157
Q

Identify the five classifications of race most commonly used:
A. Asian, Black, Hispanic, Native American, White
B. Asian, Black, Native American, Spanish, White
C. African, Asian, Indian, Spanish, White
D. Asian, Black, Mexican, Native American, White

A

A. Asian, Black, Hispanic, Native American, White

158
Q
Presenting symptoms that may appear to reflect from mental illness, but which actually arise from specific cultural practices, beliefs, or values, are referred to as:
A. Belief-based symptoms
B. Iatrogenic symptoms
C. Factitious syndromes
D. Culture-bound syndromes
A

D. Culture-bound syndromes

159
Q

In obtaining an interpreter for a non–English-speaking client, your best option would be to select:
A. Another staff person at the facility or agency
B. A professional interpreter
C. A friend of the client
D. A relative of the client

A

B. A professional interpreter

160
Q

Upon first meeting a client, a therapist should begin by taking the following steps (in the order listed):
A. Summarize legal and ethical obligations, complete a counseling contract, explore the client’s presenting problem, and assess the client
B. Complete a service contract, summarize legal and ethical obligations
C. Establish rapport, summarize legal and ethical obligations, complete a service contract, and assess the client
D. Assess the client, summarize legal and ethical obligations, complete a service contract, and establish a rapport

A

C. Establish rapport, summarize legal and ethical obligations, complete a service contract, and assess the client

161
Q
A form of client assessment that focuses on a client’s social and relational functioning is known as:
A. A genogram
B. A social status examination
C. A social resource review
D. A social assessment report
A

D. A social assessment report

162
Q

A diagram that helps individual and families to visually depict the quality of
individual and/or family relationships with others, within a community, and with
important resources in their lives (e.g., food, shelter, work, school, health care, etc) is
called:
A. An eco-map
B. A family diagram
C. A genomap
D. A relational diagram

A

A. An eco-map

163
Q

Assessing a client by means of a checklist or questionnaire is particularly useful when:
A. The client doesn’t want to see the therapist
B. The client is unsure how to describe the situation, or if it is complex or risk laden and the therapist needs to be thorough
C. The therapist is too busy to see the client personally
D. The therapist wishes to avoid a client interview

A

B. The client is unsure how to describe the situation, or if it is complex or risk laden and the therapist needs to be thorough

164
Q
Identify the most commonly used intelligence measurement scale:
A. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale
B. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
C. Binet-Simon Intelligence Scale
D. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
A

D. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

165
Q

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM), in its current
version (the DSM-IV-TR), is used to diagnosis mental disorders. It also allows for the entry of related factors through a multi-axial coding approach. Name the proper axis (in the corresponding order) for entry of each of the following: a) the Global Assessment of Functioning; b) relevant physical disorders; c) personality disorders and mental retardation; d) relevant psychosocial factors; and e) clinical disorders:
A. Axis I; Axis III; Axis II; Axis IV; and Axis V
B. Axis V; Axis III; Axis II; Axis IV; and Axis I
C. Axis II; Axis IV; Axis III; Axis V; and Axis I
D. Axis IV; Axis III; Axis II; Axis V; and Axis 1

A

B. Axis V; Axis III; Axis II; Axis IV; and Axis I

166
Q

Indicate the kind of codes used to identify conditions that are a focus of clinical
attention, but for which insufficient information exists to determine if the issues can be attributed to a mental disorder (or which may, in fact, not be due to a mental disorder but still require clinical attention):
A. DSM codes
B. GAF codes
C. V codes
D. ICD codes

A

C. V codes

167
Q
The process by which a client and therapist review past goals, summarize progress made, and finalize plans to maintain and continue past progress is called:
A. Closure
B. Wrap-up
C. Finalization
D. Termination
A

D. Termination

168
Q
A client with an intelligence quotient (IQ) of 76 should be given a diagnosis of:
A. Mild mental retardation
B. Borderline intellectual functioning
C. Moderate mental retardation
D. Severe mental retardation
A

B. Borderline intellectual functioning

169
Q

You are seeing a 16-year-old youth who has, for the past year, been losing his temper frequently, is regularly argumentative with adults, often refuses to follow direct requests, is easily annoyed, and routinely uses blaming to escape responsibility. Approximately four months ago he was caught in a single episode of shoplifting. The most appropriate diagnosis for this youth is:
A. Oppositional defiant disorder
B. Conduct disorder
C. Impulse-control disorder
D. Disruptive behavior disorder, not otherwise specified

A

A. Oppositional defiant disorder

170
Q

Encopresis is defined as:
A. The voluntary or involuntary passage of stool in an inappropriate place by a child over the age of four
B. The voluntary or involuntary passage of stool in an inappropriate place by a competent adult
C. Deliberate fecal incontinence only in a child over age four
D. Involuntary fecal incontinence only in a developmentally delayed adult

A

A. The voluntary or involuntary passage of stool in an inappropriate place by a child over the age of four

171
Q

The following criteria are all used to distinguish delirium from dementia, except one. Select the pair that is not used to distinguish delirium from dementia:
A. Acute onset vs slow onset
B. Diagnosis in patients under age 65 vs patients over age 65
C. Consciousness fluctuates broadly vs relatively stable symptoms
D. Global cognitive impairments vs idiosyncratic cognitive impairments

A

B. Diagnosis in patients under age 65 vs patients over age 65

172
Q

The following criteria are all used to distinguish substance abuse from substance dependence except:
A. Symptoms of substance abuse are usually less severe than those of dependence
B. The problematic effects of abuse are usually limited to family, finances, employment, and legal issues, while dependence also involves significant physiological problems
C. Substance abuse typically involves narcotics, while dependence typically involves non-narcotic drugs
D. Abuse is typically limited to recreational use, while dependence involves the need for increasing doses for the desired effect and withdrawal symptoms if not used regularly

A

C. Substance abuse typically involves narcotics, while dependence typically involves non-narcotic drugs

173
Q

Name the four classic diagnostic “A’s” of schizophrenia:
A. Awareness, ambivalence, autism, associations
B. Agitation, awareness, associations, autism
C. Affect, anxiety, ambivalence, awareness
D. Affect, associations, ambivalence, autism

A

D. Affect, associations, ambivalence, autism

174
Q

A 52-year-old man has been referred to see you for “family and work problems.” Two months ago he lost his job as an executive in a major corporation, and has not found new work. On intake you discover his drinking has increased, and he reports feeling
depressed most days. He can’t seem to enjoy doing anything, not even golf, which he used to love. Rather, all he can seem to do is sleep and “sit around the house.” He feels useless, empty, and helpless to change his situation. He has tried reading the want-ads, but he just can’t seem to focus. He’s gained over 18 lbs. He then adds, “Sometimes I seem to hear voices, telling me I’m just ‘no good,’ and that things will never get better. When that happens, I try to plug my ears, but it doesn’t help. Only booze seems to get the voices to stop. Do you think I’m going crazy?” What is the client’s probable primary
diagnosis?
A. Major depression
B. Major depression with psychotic features
C. Alcohol-induced mood disorder
D. Alcohol-induced psychotic disorder, with hallucinations

A

B. Major depression with psychotic features

175
Q

You are called to a hospital emergency room to see a 26-year-old university student. He came in claiming he was having a heart attack, but the medical work-up was entirely negative. You learn that he has been spending his nights sleeping in his car outside the emergency room, worried that he’s going to have a heart attack. He notes that at night his chest begins to tighten, his heart starts racing, his mouth goes dry, and his breathing becomes difficult. Next, his palms become sweaty and his hands start to tremble and
tingle. Then he feels dizzy, nauseous, and worries that he’s about to die. This is been
going on for about six weeks. His studies have suffered, and he’s becoming depressed and overwhelmed. He has no substance abuse history. Finally, he notes that his dad died of a heart attack at about his same age. His most likely diagnosis is:
A. Panic disorder with agoraphobia
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Acute stress disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

A. Panic disorder with agoraphobia

176
Q

You have been asked to see a 15-year-old girl for problems with body image and eating. After speaking with her, you discover that she suffers with an intense desire to lose weight, feeling that this will help her be more attractive to the opposite sex and more popular in her social circle. She is by no means obese or even “chubby” although she is
not overly slender. Her parents recently noted an increase in grocery costs, and that food seemed to be disappearing around the house inordinately quickly—often “junk” food and
other quick snacks. Finally, late one night, her mother passed the bathroom and heard the daughter “purge” her food. She confronted her and discovered that the daughter had been “binge” eating and inducing vomiting for some weeks. Some modest weight loss had occurred. The most appropriate diagnosis would be:
A. Anorexia nervosa, purging type
B. Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
C. Bulimia nervosa, purging type
D. Eating disorder, not otherwise specified

A

D. Eating disorder, not otherwise specified

177
Q

You are called to see a young black man in his mid-twenties. Two adult sisters
brought him for an urgent appointment. The young man is clean, neatly dressed in slacks, dress shoes, and a tweed sport coat. He is also calm, relaxed, and without any signs of agitation. The two sisters, however, appear disheveled, frazzled, and almost histrionic. They blurt out the he “has problems” and urge you to talk with him. Privately, he tells you that he is fine. Later, however, the ladies tell you he left home abruptly and traveled cross-country with no destination. He didn’t sleep for three days (with them pursuing him), was spending money excessively and writing checks he couldn’t cover. He ended up in a nationally famous amusement park at 3:00 a.m. (having scaled a fence), sitting on an empty rollercoaster “waiting for the ride to start.” When confronted, he admits all of
this, but says he’s now rested, and doing better. The most likely diagnosis would be:
A. Brief psychotic disorder
B. Bipolar I, single manic episode, in full remission
C. Bipolar I, single hypomanic episode, in full remission
D. Cyclothymic disorder

A

B. Bipolar I, single manic episode, in full remission

178
Q

Personality disorders are pervasive and enduring patterns of dysfunction. The DSM provides for the diagnosis of ten specific personality disorders, and one category for indeterminate behaviors that appear to characteristic of a personality disorder. All are
coded on Axis II of the multiaxial DSM diagnostic schema. These disorders are grouped into three clusters. Identify the cluster that does not properly describe a personality disorder group:
A. Cluster A: Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypical Disorders (also referred to as “odd or eccentric behavior disorders”)
B. Cluster B: Impulsivity and/or Affective Dysregulation Disorders (also referred to as “dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders”)
C. Cluster B: Violent and/or Explosive Disorders (also referred to as “aggressive and intrusive conduct disorders”)
D. Cluster C: Anxiety and Compulsive Disorders (also referred to as “anxious or fearful disorders”)

A

C. Cluster B: Violent and/or Explosive Disorders (also referred to as “aggressive and intrusive conduct disorders”)

179
Q

As a school counselor, you are scheduled to see a 9-year-old boy regarding disruptive behavior in the classroom. Rather than begin with an office visit, you directly observe his behavior in the classroom. There you noted the following: he seemed to constantly fidget
and squirm in his seat; he talked nonstop; he was frequently out of his seat, running, touching, and playing with anything and everything he could reach. The teacher’s efforts
to quiet him appeared to be forgotten almost instantly. When an art period was begun, which engaged most children, he still had difficulty as he was easily distracted and seemed to switch constantly from one activity to another. He appeared unable to slow down long enough to receive even simple and clear instructions. The few moments he was quiet, he seemed lost in daydreaming, staring out the classroom windows. The most likely diagnosis for this youngster is:
A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
B. Conduct disorder
C. Obsessive compulsive disorder
D. Oppositional defiant disorder

A

A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

180
Q

The perspective from which a social worker approaches client interactions should be based upon a blend of: 1) time and resources available; 2) the treatment modality required
(individual, family, group); 3) the issues to be addressed; 4) the outcomes (goals) sought; and 5) an appropriate theoretical framework. Taken together, this defines the social worker’s:
A. Theoretical orientation
B. Practice framework
C. Clinical approach
D. Model of interaction

A

B. Practice framework

181
Q

A practice framework that acknowledges and accounts for a client’s overall context
in: 1) social setting (family, peers, neighborhood, etc); 2) social relations quality (e.g.,
with other family members, friends, coworkers, etc); 3) external pressures (work,
organizations, etc); 4) culture; and 5) life-course events (marriage, births, retirement, etc) is called a(n):
A. Ecosystems framework
B. Cultural framework
C. Strengths framework
D. Generalist framework

A

A. Ecosystems framework

182
Q
A practice framework that approaches a client’s issue or presenting problem from the perspective of gender, sex roles, and related stereotyping and discrimination, along with the influence that these elements may bring to bear on the issue or presenting problem, is called a:
A. Gender framework
B. Roles framework
C. Strengths framework
D. Feminist framework
A

D. Feminist framework

183
Q
This type of experimental design is nonrandomized but has an intervention and comparison group.
A. Experimental
B. Quasi-Experimental
C. Pre-Experimental
D. Single-subject
A

B. Quasi-Experimental

184
Q

This addresses how generalizable those inferences are to the general public.
A. Internal validity
B. External validity

A

B. External validity

185
Q

This addresses the extent to which causal inferences can be made about the intervention and the targeted behavior.
A. Internal validity
B. External validity

A

A. Internal validity

186
Q

DIRDIR (Determine, Identify, Rank, Develop, Implement, Reflect) is used for _____ Problem Solving.

A

Ethical

187
Q

A process in which the people of the community become involved in the institutions and decisions that will have an impact on their lives is called _____________.

A

Community Advocacy

188
Q

Which criterion does not need to be met for social workers to be able to terminate clients for nonpayment of fees?
A. the clinical and other consequences of the nonpayment have discussed with clients
B. the financial contractual arrangements have been made clear to clients, preferably in writing
C. social workers have used sliding scales to make fees affordable for clients
D. clients do not pose imminent danger to self or others

A

C. social workers have used sliding scales to make fees affordable for clients

189
Q
A social worker organizes and joins a group of community members for a "sit in" at a government building. This demonstration, which is against the law, aims to put political pressure on officials to act on pending legislation. The strategy employed is known as:
A. community advocacy
B. indirect casework
C. civil disobedience
D. social planning
A

C. Civil Disobedience

190
Q
A client who was hospitalized for hallucinations is being discharged with medication to address these symptoms. The client is MOST likely being prescribed:
A. Paxil (paroxetine)
B. Tegretol (carbamazepine)
C. Risperdal (risperidone)
D. Klonopin (clonazepam)
A

C. Risperdal (risperidone)

191
Q
A child who is receiving services from a child protection agency due to phsycal abuse is referred to a school social worker because of bullying behavior. In the last month, the child has hit several of his peers while in school. The child is MOST likely using which defense mechanism.
A. compensation
B. incorporation
C. rationalization
D. displacement
A

D. Displacement

192
Q

During acculturation, which of the following statements describes the responsibilities of those in the dominant and non-dominant cultures?
A. individuals in both the majority and minority have an equal responsibility to change in order to work together cooperatively
B. individuals in majority groups must teach those in the minority about their customs and traditions
C. individuals in the minority must advocate for inclusion to ensure equal access to societal rewards by those in the majority
D. individuals in the majority must decide which majority practices they will follow for integration to occur

A

A. individuals in both the majority and minority have an equal responsibility to change in order to work together cooperatively

193
Q

What is the MOST important factor in the development of an effective helping relationship?
A. social worker’s training and experience in working with similar client problems
B. client’s willingness to view a social worker as a resource
C. nonverbal and verbal communication between a social worker and client
D. agency policies that clearly articulate the roles of both a social worker and client

A

C. nonverbal and verbal communication between a social worker and client

194
Q
Echolalia is associated with which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses?
A. catatonia
B. autism spectrum disorder
C. bipolar disorder
D. major depression
A

B. Autism Spectrum Disorder