LMSW Flashcards

1
Q

group process

A
preaffiliation (forming)
power & control (storming)
intimacy (norming)
differentiation (performing)
separation/termination (adjourning)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

freuds stages

A
oral
anal
phallic
latent
genital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

maslow’s

A
physiological (d need)
safety (d need)
social (d need)
esteem (d need)
self-actualization (b need)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

couple’s development

A
romance
power struggle 
stability
commitment
co-creation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

stages of change

A
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance 
Relapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

problem-solving process

A
engagement
assessment
planning
treatment
evaluation
termination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

community organizing

A

Orientation
Conflict
Engagement / Emergence
Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

crisis intervention steps

A
Assess lethality/establish safety
Establish rapport
Identify problems
Deal with feelings
Explore alternatives and new coping strategies
Develop an action plan
Follow-up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ethical problem solving - steps

A

DETERMINE whether there is an ethical issue or dilemma
IDENTIFY the main principles & values involved
RANK the main principles & values that are most relevant to the issue or dilemma
DEVELOP an action plan
IMPLEMENT the action plan
REFLECT on the outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

erikson’s 8 psychosocial stages

A
B-1           Trust v Mistrust
1-3           Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt
3-6           Initiative v Guilt
6-12         Industry v Inferiority
12-18       Identity v Role Confusion
EA             Intimacy v Isolation 
MA          Generativity v Stagnation
LA             Ego Integrity v Despair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

grief & loss (kubler-ross)

A
Denial/isolation, 
Anger
Bargaining
Depression 
Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

separation-individuation theory

A

Normal autistic
Normal symbiotic
Separation-individuation (hatching, practicing, rapprochement)
Object constancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

coming out

A

feeling different
confusion
self-acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

social settlements

A

linked to group practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

charity orgs

A

precursors of modern SW; scientific casework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 domains of development

A

cognitive
affective
psychomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sensorimotor

A

0-2

Manipulating objects; begins intentional actions; imitative play; *object permanence; schemas (mental representation) of objects;

functional play - repeated motor movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

preoperational

A

2-7

Symbolic thinking; magical thinking; imaginary friends; thinking is concrete/irreversible; grammar; conservation; *egocentric

constructive play - building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

concrete operational

A

7-11

Beginning of logical thought; understand cause/effect; reversible thinking; *logical thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

formal operational

A

11+

*abstract thinking; hypothetical thinking

Propositional thought: evaluate the logic of propositions w/o real-world circumstances
Hypothetico-deductive reasoning: first form of reasoning in young adolescence

adolescence - personal fable = tendency to develop inflated opinion of own importance, believe others observing them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

preconventional (kohlberg)

A

Stage 1: obedience/punishment

Stage 2: self-interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

conventional (kohlberg)

A

Stage 3: “good boy/girl”: acts to gain approval from others

Stage 4: authority & social order: obeys laws to maintain social system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

postconventional (kohlberg)

A

Stage 5: social contract: genuine interest in welfare of others; concerned w/ being morally right

Stage 6: concern for larger issues of morality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

operant conditioning - punishment

A

stops behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

operant conditioning - reinforcement

A

increases behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

operant behavior

A

voluntary, controlled by interaction w/ envroinment (conseuqences)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

respondent behavior

A

involuntary, response to stimmulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

token economy

A

operant conditioning

client receives tokens as reinforcement for performing specified behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

biofeedback

A

behavioral theory

behavior training program that teaches how to control certain functions (heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, & muscular tension)

often used for ADHD & Anxiety Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

flooding

A

prolonged real or imagined exposure to high intensity feared stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

in vivo desensitization

A

pairing & movement through a hierarchy of anxiety takes place in a “real” setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

systematic desensitization

A

anxiety-producing stimulus is paired with relaxation-producing response so that eventually an anxiety-producing stimulus produces a relaxation response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

shaping

A

rain a new behavior by prompting & reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3-Stage Model for Adolescent Cultural & Ethnic Identity Development

A

Unexamined identity
Search for identity
Achievement of identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Classic Model of Cultural, Racial, & Ethnic Identity Development

A

Pre-encounter: not consciously aware of culture/race/ethnicity & how it affects life

Encounter: has an
encounter (pos or neg) that provokes thought about identity

Immersion-Emersion: after encounter, confront identity; period of exploration through interaction within group

Internalization & Commitment: develop secure sense of identity; comfortable socializing both in & out of grp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

self-esteem in childhood

A

young (high) v older (gain more accurate self-evaluation based on comparison/feedback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

self-esteem in adolescence

A

continues to decline from childhood (body image, puberty, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

self-esteem in adulthood

A

increases gradually through adulthood; peaks in late 60s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

self-esteem in older adulthood

A

declines; begins to drop around 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

couples dev - romance stage

A

courting/honeymoon; focus is attachment; symbiotic/mutualistic relationship; differences minimized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

couples dev - power struggle

A

focus on differences rather than similarities; may need time apart; must learn to share power; accept partner without changing them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

couples dev - stability

A

redirection away from partners & towards oneself; autonomy & individuality

practicing - live independently
rapprochement - reestablishing of intimacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

couples dev - commitment

A

embrace reality that both partners are human/good outweighs the bad; ideal time for marriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

couples dev - cocreation

A

consistency; mutual growth; often work on projects together (businesses, families, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

early adolescence

A

thoughts on present (not future); deeper moral thinking; moodiness; privacy & independence; childish when stressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

middle adolescence

A

setting goals & thinking about meaning of life; changing bodies & worry about being “normal”; continued drive for independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

late adolescence

A

concern for future; can delay gratification; development of serious relationships; increased focus on cultural & ethnic identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

compensation

A

make up for deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

conversion

A

repressed urge –> body fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

devaluation

A

attribute neg qualities to self or other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

intellectualization

A

avoid emotions, focus on facts/logic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

reaction formation

A

adopt opposite affect/behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

sublimation

A

turn maladaptive feelings into socially acceptable ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

substitution

A

replace unattainable goal with more attainable one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

undoing

A

reverse unacceptable thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

dissociation

A

split mental functions so you can do bad things w/o responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

displacement

A

directing impulse towards less threatening person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

introjection

A

loved/hated external objects absolved within self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

isolation of affect

A

unacceptable impulse separated from memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

projectoin

A

attribute own feelings onto another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

splitting

A

perceive as all good or all bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

turning

A

against self

deflect hostile aggression from another to self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

stages of tx for substance abuse

A

stabilization
rehab
maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

group think

A

when a group makes faulty/irrational decisions because of group pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

group polarization

A

discussion strengthens a dominant POV → shift to more extreme pos than indiv members’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

cognitive dissonance

A

when a person has to choose between 2 contradictory attitudes/beliefs; state of conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Echolalia

A

repeating noises & phrases; associated w/ Catatonia, Autism, & Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

metacommunication

A

the context within which to interpret the content of the message (i.e. nonverbal communication, body language, vocalization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

conscious awareness level (freud)

A

info that a client is paying attention to at any given time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

preconscious (freud)

A

info outside of a client’s attention but readily available if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

unconscious (freud)

A

thoughts, feelings, desires, & memories that clients are unaware of but influence them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

id

A

instinctual
pleasure principle
unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

superego

A

moral

causes guilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ego

A

manages, mediates

reality principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ego strength

A

ability of the ego to deal with the demands of the id, the superego, and reality; helps maintain emotional stability & cope with internal & external stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

oral stage (freud)

A

b-12 mos
activities involving mouth

result of fixation: smoking, eating, dependence on others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

anal stage (freud)

A

2
bowels

result of fixation: overly controlling anal retentive) or easily angered (anal expulsive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

phallic stage (freud)

A

3-6
genitals

guilt or anxiety about sex

elektra + oedipus complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

latency stage (freud)

A

6-puberty

dormant sexuality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

genital stage (freud)

A

puberty+

sexual urges return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

individual psychology

A

Main motivations for human behavior = striving for perfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

self-psychology

A

Empathic responses from early caretakers (self-objects) = child’s needs are met & develops strong sense of self

help client develop self-cohesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Mirroring

A

(self psych)

validates child’s sense of perfect self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Idealization

A

(self psych)

child borrows strength from others and identifies with someone more capable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Twinship

A

(self psych)

child needs an alter ego for sense of belonging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Normal Autism

A

(obj relations)
0-1mo
Infant detached & self-absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Normal Symbiotic

A

(obj relations)
1-5mo
Infant aware of mom, but no sense of individuality; infant & mom are one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Separation /Individuation

hatching

A

(obj relations)
5-9mo
Infant begins to differentiate; alert & interested in world w/ mother as point of orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Separation /Individuation

practicing

A

(obj relations)
9-15mo
Infant can crawl, then walk; explores & becomes more distant from mom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Separation /Individuation

Rapprochement

A

(obj relations)
15-24mo

Toddler realizes they are far, and becomes close again to mom; becomes tentative, wants mom in sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Object Constancy

A

(obj relations)
24-38mo
Child understands that mom is a separate identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Indicators of sexual Abuse

A

Extreme changes in behavior: regression, sad affect, short attention span, poor hygiene fears & anxieties, withdrawal, sleep disturbances, recurrent nightmares
May show unusual interest in sexual matters or know sexual info inappropriate for age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Indicators of psych abuse/neglect

A

Avoid eye contact, have flat & superficial way of relating
Deep loneliness, anxiety, or despair
Little empathy towards others - bullying, disruptive, or aggressive behavior
Engage in self-harming and/or self-destructive behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Indicators of physical abuse/neglect

A

Unexplained bruises, welts, burns, fractures to face, lacerations or abrasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

bio component of biopsychosocial

A

medical hx, developmental hx, substance abuse hx, family hx of illnesses, medications (NOT intellectual performance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

psycho component of biopsychosocial

A

past & present psychiatric illness or symptoms, past & present psychosocial stressors, mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

social component of biopsychosocial

A

client systems & context; strengths, supports and/or resources; sexual identity concerns, personal history, family of origin history, abuse history, education, legal history, marital/relationship status/concerns, work history; spiritual beliefs/cultural traditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

mental status exam

A

“current state of mind”

Appearance, Orientation (awareness of time/place, etc.), Speech pattern, Affect/mood, Impulsive/potential for harm, Judgment/insight, Thought processes/reality testing, Intellectual functioning/memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

endogenous depression

A

caused by chemical imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

exogenous depression

A

caused by external events or stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

signs of marijuana use

A

glassy/red eyes; loud talking; laughter then sleepiness; loss of interest/motivation; weight gain/loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

signs of cocaine use

A

dilated pupils; hyperactive; euphoria; irritability; anxiety; excessive talking followed by depression or excessive sleeping; long periods of time without eating/sleeping; thin/weight loss; dry mouth/nose; pale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

cocaine withdrawal

A

depression, vomiting, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

signs of heroin use

A

drowsy; euphoric; slow breathing; contracted pupils (no response to light), needle marks; sleeping at unusual times; sweating; vomiting; coughing, sniffling; twitching; loss of appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

heroin withdrawal

A

bone pain, muscle spasms, anxiety, restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

signs of alcohol use

A

slurred speech, unsteady gait, coordination probs, staggering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

alcohol withdrawal

A

slurring, seizures & tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff

A

alcohol withdrawal - fatal - brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

signs of hallucinogen use

A

hallucinations, confusion, anxiety, suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

hallucinogen withdrawal

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

organic brain syndrome

A

Physical disorder that impair mental function
Symptoms: confusion, impairment of memory, judgment, intellectual function, agitation
Caused by alcoholism, Alzheimer’s, Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, Parkinson’s, stroke, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

ataxia

A

lack of muscle control during voluntary movements - can also affect speech, eye movement, swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recongize fmiilari objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

apraxia

A

inability to perform particular purposive actions, as a result of brain damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

acalculia

A

inability to perform simple math, typically resulting from disease/injury of the parietal lobe of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

inability to recognize familiar faces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

WISC

A

most commonly used intelligence test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Beck Depression Inventory

A

assesses presence & degree of depression in adolescents & adults; assesses SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

MMPI

A

personality test (550 items) or assesses psychopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Myers-Briggs

A

elf-report inventory that classifies individuals along 4 dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Stanford-Binet

A

intelligence scale for children and adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

projective tests

A

from psychoanalytic approach
uncover unconscious desires

TAT
&
Rorschach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Thematic Apperception Test

A

make up stories based on pictures of ambiguous scenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Rorschach Inkblot Test:

A

used to assess perceptual reactions & other psychological functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Other Specified

A

specify why criteria not met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Unspecified

A

no specification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Intellectual Disability

A

(neurodev disorder)

deficit in f(x) AND failure to meet dev standards for independence & social responsibility
develop before 18
mild, moderate, severe IQ ranges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Neurodevelopmental Disorders

A
Intelletual disabilites
Communciation disorders
ASD 
ADHD
Specific learning disorder
Tic disorder
Motor (Tourette's)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Language disorder

A

low language capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Speech sound disorder

A

unintelligible speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Childhood-onset fluency disorder

A

stuttering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Social (Pragmatic) Communication disroder

A

ulties in social use of verbal/nonverbal communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Autism Spectrum Disorder

A

3 social deficits

  • social-emotional reciprocity
  • nonverbal communication
  • developing/maintaining friendships

+ at least 2 restricted/repetitive behaviors and interests

  • stereotyped, repetitive movement
  • inflexible adherence to routine
  • fixated interest
  • hypersensitivity to sensory input
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

ADHD

A

at least 6 mos
appear beofre age 12
doesn’t need to be hyperactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Specifid Learning diosrder

A

neesd to last at least 6 mos

reading, writing, math

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Schizotypal (Personality) Disorder

A

Odd or eccentric or paranoid thinking, speaking, dressing

strange, outlandish, or paranoid beliefs - “magical thinking”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Delusional Disorder

A

At least 1 delusion for at least 1 month; function not impaired outside the delusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Delusional disorder - Erotomanic

A

another person in love w/ me

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Delusional disorder - grandiose

A

i’m the best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Delusional disorder - jealous

A

spouse unfaithful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Delusional disorder - persecutory type

A

everyones otu to get me

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Delusional disorder - somatic type

A

bodily fx/sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Delusional disorder - mixed type

A

no predominant delusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Delusional disorder - unspecified type

A

cant be determined/described by types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Brief psychotic disorder

A

0-1 mos

One or more: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Schizophreniform

A

<6 mos

Same as schizo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Schizophrenia

A

6+ months
Two or more: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech
PLUS disorganized or catatonic behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

anhedonia

A

(schizo negative symptom)

loss of pleasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

avolition

A

(schizo negative symptom)

loss of motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Alogia

A

(schizo negative symptom)

diminihsed speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

diagnostic criteria for depression/bipolar (manic epi) AND schizophrenia
Experience delusions/hallucinations for 2 wks+ when NOT having depressive or manic episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

mania

A

excessive energy, restlessness, risky behavior, euphoria, no sleep, racing thoughts/speech, grandiosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Bipolar I

most severe

A

Mania (7 days+)
clinically significant impact on f(x) - hospitalization
Usually, depressive episodes occur as well, typically lasting at least 2 weeks.
Episodes of depression w/ mixed features (depression + manic symptoms @ same time) possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Bipolar II

A

Hypomania (4 days+)
2 weeks of depression
No hospitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Cyclothymic

most mild

A

Periods of hypomania + depressive symptoms lasting for at least 2 years (1 year in children) at least half of time + constant for 2 months

156
Q

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)

A

irritability, anger, temper outbursts out of proportion and inconsistent with dev level
starts before age 10 (between 6 and 18)
New in DSM-5 - created in response to overdiagnosis of childhood bipolar

157
Q

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

A

At least one of the symptoms is either (1) depressed mood or (2) loss of interest or pleasure
more episodic, often suicidal ideation
5+ depressive symptoms for at least 2 weeks
weight loss/gain; sluggishness; fatigue; trouble concentration; feeling worthless

158
Q

Persistent Depressive Disorder

A

(previously dysthymia)

mild/low grade, long-lasting (at least 2 years - 1 for children)

159
Q

separation anxiety

A
typically diagnosed in children (have it for 4 weeks)
in adults (6 months)
160
Q

selective mutism

A

(anxiety diosrder)

occurs in specific social situatoin

161
Q

panic disorder

A

Panic Attack - at least 4 symptoms

+ at least 1: worry about having another attack; maladaptive behavior changes

162
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear/avoidance of at least 2: public transit, open or enclosed spaces, lines/crowds, leaving house

163
Q

GAD

A

at least 6 months

3 or more: restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentration, irritable, sleep disturb, muscle tension

164
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A

obsessions (thoughts) and compulsions (behavior)

165
Q

Body dysmorphic disorder

A

preoccupation with perceived deficit in experience not observable to others
repetitive behaviors or mental acts

166
Q

Hoarding disorder

A

difficulty parting with possessions, perceived need to save items
results: accumulation to point of compromising intended use

167
Q

Trichotillomania

A

hair pulling

168
Q

Excoriation disorder

A

skin picking

169
Q

Reactive Attachment Disorder

A

Infancy or early childhood
*hx of neglect

Disturbed and inappropriately developed attachments of behaviors
Child/infant will not turn to attachment figure for comfort, etc.
Inhibited, withdrawan

170
Q

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder

A

Infancy or early childhood
*hx of neglect

Overly friendly, very talkative, not afraid of strangers
Will not look to caregivers for permission to approach strangers

171
Q

PTSD

A

1+ month

Stressor + intrusion; avoidance; neg cognition/mood; hyperarousal

172
Q

Acute distress disorder

A

PTSD but <1 mo

173
Q

Adjustment Disorders

A

distress that is out of proportion to new stressor (happens <3 mos from onset of symptoms)
results in occupational or social impairment
Higher risk of suicide

174
Q

Dissociative Identity Disorder

A

mulitple personalities
May feel the presence of 2+ people talking or living inside head
Recurrent gaps in the recall of everyday events, important personal info, and/or traumatic events

175
Q

Dissociative Amneisa

A

Can’t recall info about oneself or events and people in life
It may sometimes involve travel or confused wandering away from your life (dissociative fugue).
An episode of amnesia usually occurs suddenly and may last minutes, hours (rarely, mos/yrs)

176
Q

Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder

A

Ongoing or episodic sense of detachment or being outside oneself
Observing self from a distance as though watching a movie (depersonalization)
Environment (people, time, etc.) may seem unreal (derealization)

177
Q

Somatic Symptom Disorder

A

Symptoms concern them and/or drive them to see doctors very frequently

178
Q

Illness Anxiety Disorder

A

(hypochondria)

Excessive preoccupation and worry about the possibility of being/getting sick

179
Q

Conversion Disorder

A

body manifestation of psychological stress (often loss of fx - sensory loss or paralysis)
Physical symptoms resemble those of a nervous system disorder

180
Q

Factitious Disorder

A

(Munchausen)

Pretend to have symptoms for no apparent external reason
malingering – intentional for external incentive

181
Q

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

A

“Extreme picky eating”, abnormally slow eating, lack of appetite

182
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

food restriction resulting in low weight

distorted self perception, fear of weight gain

183
Q

Bulimia

A

binge eating + purging

184
Q

Binge-eating disorder

A

no purging

185
Q

Purging disorder

A

no binging

186
Q

Enuresis

A

elimination disorder after 4

bed wetting

187
Q

Encopresis

A

elimination disorder ater 4

feces

188
Q

hypersomnolence

A

sleep too much

189
Q

parasomnia

A

sleep walking

190
Q

Oppositional Defiant Disorder

A

Patterns of anger/irritability, argumentative or defiant behavior, and/or vindictiveness
Not aggressive toward people/animals, doesn’t destroy property or show pattern of theft/deceit

191
Q

Intermittent Explosive Disorder

A

Explosive outbursts of anger (rage) that are disproportionate to the situation/stressor

192
Q

Conduct Disorder

A

Repetitive & persistent pattern of behavior that violates basic rights of others
aggression to people/animals, destruction of property, violation of rules, deceitfulness/theft
***often seen as the precursor to antisocial PD (not diagnosed until 18)

193
Q

Antisocial Personality Disorder

A

**After 18 (with onset before 15)
impulsive, irresponsible, unlawful behavior, aggressive, etc.
no remorse, amoral, lack of affect

194
Q

Substance-Related & Addictive Disorders

A

alcohol, caffeine, cannabis, hallucinogen, inhalant, opioid, sedative, stimulant, tobacco
^^ [substance] use disorder, [substance] intoxication and [substance] withdrawal → except caffeine just has intoxication + withdrawal
Removed legal issues
Added craving/urge

195
Q

Neurocognitive disorder

A

Delirium (temporarily, reversible– caused by meds or dehydration or alcohol)
Rest are progressive and not reversible
Major or Mild - due to Alzheimer’s (most common), Parkinson’s, Traumatic Brain Injury, HIV, etc.

196
Q

Personality Disorders - Cluster A

A

SPS.O

ODD
Schizoid
Paranoid
Schizotypal

197
Q

Schizoid

A

Cluster A

Loner
Introverted, withdrawn, solitary, cold & distant; absorbed with own thoughts and feelings; fearful of closeness/intimacy with others

198
Q

Paranoid

A

Cluster A

Extreme suspiciousness or mistrust of others (tx: be supportive, not confronting)

199
Q

Schizotypal

A

Cluster A

Odd or eccentric thinking, speaking, dressing
“magical thinking”

200
Q

Cluster B

A

BNAH.D

Dramatic

borderline
narcisssistic
antisocial
histrionic

201
Q

Borderline

A

Cluster B

instability, extremes
unstable interpersonal relationships, behavior, mood, & self-image; self-destructive

202
Q

Narcissistic

A

Cluster B

grandiose, entitled, self-important
fantasies of infinite success

203
Q

Antisocial

A

Cluster B

amorality & lack of affect

204
Q

Histrionic

A

Cluster B

attention-seeking & seductive
emotional & provocative
melodramatic or “over the top”

205
Q

Cluster C

A

AOD.A

ANXIOUS

avoidant
obsessive-compulsive
dependent

206
Q

avoidant personality

A

Cluster C

hypersensitive to rejection, unwilling to become involved with others
avoidance of social events or work that involves interpersonal contact

207
Q

obsessive-compulsive persoanlity

A

Cluster C

Unlike OCD, no obsessions (just compulsions)
Believe actions have aim/purpose and are rational (not distressed)

208
Q

Dependent personality disorder

A

Cluster C

Dependent & submissive; rely on others to make personal decisions
Require excessive reassurance & advice

209
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

medication induced movement disorder

impaired nervous system; long term use of antipsychotics;

210
Q

acute dystonia

A

medication induced movement disorder

abnormal positioning/postures, caused by antipsychotic, anti depression, antiemetic

211
Q

akathisia

A

medication induced movement disorder

uncontrollable urges to move or walk; antipsychotics

212
Q

SOAP

A

subjective
objective
assessment
plan

213
Q

experimental resaerch

A

intervention groups, control, random; *rigorous/strongest

214
Q

quasi-expeirmental

A

intervention groups, control, NOT random (used when randomization not feasible)

*waht we use

215
Q

pre-experimental

A

intervention groups, NO control, NOT random; weakest

216
Q

double blind two variable study:

A

pre-expeirmental

participants and researchers unaware of who gets intervention

217
Q

Single subject

A

determines whether intervention has intended impact

218
Q

singel case study

A

AB
compare behavior before (baseline; A)& after treatment (intervention; B)

flexible simple & low cost but small # participants = poor external validity

219
Q

nominal variable

A

cateogry

220
Q

ordinal variable

A

order

221
Q

interval variable

A

time (no true 0)

222
Q

ratio variable

A

ratio (true 0)

223
Q

Standard deviation

A

34%; 95% within 2 SDs of the mean; 99.6% within 3

224
Q

r-value

A

correlation coefficient – closer to 1 or -1, the stronger association is.

225
Q

Interrater/Interobserver Reliability:

A

degree to which diff ppl give consistent estimates of same phenomenon

226
Q

Test-Retest Reliability:

A

consistency of a single measure from one time to another

227
Q

parallel forms reliability

A

consistency of results of diff versions of an assessment tool measuring same construct

228
Q

internal consistency reliability

A

the degree to which diff test items of same construct produce similar results

229
Q

internal validity

A

extent to which study establishes a cause-and-effect relationship between tx & outcome

230
Q

external validity

A

how generalizable those inferences are to the general population

231
Q

face validity

A

whether the measure appears to be assessing the intended construct

232
Q

content validity

A

whether all of the relevant content domains are covered

233
Q

criterion validity

A

correlates test results with another criterion of interest (i.e. used to predict future or current performance)

234
Q

predictive validity

A

if test actually predicts what it is suppoed to predict

235
Q

concurrent validity

A

: assesses whether constructs distinguish between groups

236
Q

validity

A

degree to which what is being measured actually is what is claimed to be measured)

237
Q

reliability

A

consistency

238
Q

3 parts of treamtnet fidelity

A

treatmetn adherence
therapist compentence
tremtent differentiation

239
Q

type 1 error

A

‘false positive’ – detecting an effect that isn’t actually present

240
Q

type 2 error

A

‘false negative’ – failure to detect an effect that is actually present

241
Q

precontemplation stage

A

client is unaware, unable, and/or unwilling to change; denial, ignorance of problem

242
Q

contemplation stage

A

client is ambivalent/conflicted regarding behavior change → behaviors are unpredictable

243
Q

preparation stage

A

experimenting with small changes, collecting information about change

244
Q

action stage

A

taking direct action twoard achieivng goal

245
Q

maintenace stage

A

maitning a new bheavior, avoidint temptation

246
Q

relapse stage

A

feeling of furstration & failure

247
Q

reflecting

A

adds emotion

248
Q

confrontation

A

calling attention

249
Q

reframing

A

: stating problem in different way so client can see different solutions

250
Q

clarification

A

reformulate problem in client’s words to make sure on the same page

251
Q

universalization

A

generalization/normalization of behavior

252
Q

interpretation

A

pull together patterns to get new understanding

253
Q

live modeling

A

watching a real person perform the desired behavior

254
Q

symbolic modeling

A

filmed or videotaped models showing desired behavior (think: TV = symbol)

255
Q

participant modeling

A

2-step process: models for client & then client tries (think: “now your turn”)

256
Q

covert modeling

A

clients uses imagination to visualize a behavior as another describes the situation in detail (think: “cover your eyes”)

257
Q

mastery model

A

shows no fear, competent from beginning of demonstration

258
Q

coping model

A

initially fearful/incompetent, then gets better

259
Q

solution-fcoused therapy

A

improve qulaity of life

coping

260
Q

task-centerd therapy

A

SW & client work together to come to solution but work is done outside treatment

261
Q

6 levels of congition

A

knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

262
Q

Gottman method

A

Couples therapy approach

Focuses on conflicting verbal communication in order to increase intimacy, respect, & affection

263
Q

strategic family therapy

A

Examines family processes and functions, such as communication or problem-solving patterns
Brief, direct, task-centered
reduce symptoms through altering styles of feedback that maintain the problem
SW is more interested in creating change in behavior than change in understanding

264
Q

1st order changes

A

superfiical, dont change structure

265
Q

2nd order changes

A

to systematic interactoin pattenrs

266
Q

pretned tehcnique

A

family rolpeays idff behvioral strateiges

267
Q

relabeling

A

change preception by changing language

268
Q

paradoxical directive

A

prescribe problem so client can grasp behavior’s signficiance

269
Q

structural family therapy

A

Looks at family relationships, behaviors, and patterns as they are exhibited within the therapy session in order to evaluate the structure of the family
disengaged families more likely to form coalitions than enmeshed families
Enactments

270
Q

bowenian

A

Society like family
Focus on clear communication instead of double bind
Not seeking symptom reduction
Identifying multigenerational behavioral patterns (generational transmission of issues)
Genogram

271
Q

differentiation

A

(bowenian)

the more differentiated, the more client can be an individual

272
Q

emotioanl fusion

A

(bowenian)

tendency for family members to share an emotional response

273
Q

emotional triangle

A

(bowenian)

network of relationships among three people

274
Q

primary prevention strategy

A

prevention

protect people from developing a disease/injury in the first place

275
Q

secondary prevention

A

short-term mitigation after disease, injury, or illness

deal with short-term consequences, slow the progression or limit the long-term impacts

276
Q

tertiary prevention

A

: long-term efforts; managing more complicated, long-term diseases, injuries, or illnesses; prevent further deterioration & maximize quality of life

277
Q

cooptation

A

strategy used to influence social policy as leaders will try to quiet dissention or disturbances
deal with immediate grievances, channel dissenters into less disruptive activities; offer incentives

278
Q

coercive power

A

power form control/punishment

279
Q

reward power

A

power from control of rwards

280
Q

expert power

A

power from superior ability or knwoledge

281
Q

referent power

A

power from having charisma or identification with others who have power

282
Q

legitimate power

A

power from having legitimate authority

283
Q

informational power

A

power from having info

284
Q

Locality development

A

work with community/neighborhood to solve common problem at local level

SW as enabler / empowerer / broker / mediator CONSENSUS, HOMOGENEOUS

285
Q

Social planning

A

plan/develop programs to solve issues / researching problem

SW as expert - gather data and facts RATIONAL PROBLEM SOLVING, TECHNICAL METHODS

286
Q

social action

A

help disadvantaged people in community

SW as activist and advocate - takes action & confront on their behalf

287
Q

social reform

A

change social policy, form + bring coalitions together

SW as organizer - joining groups together to take joint action towards specific goals

288
Q

steps to community organizing

A
identify key leaders
assess needs
identify goals and objectives
action plan 
recruit support
mobilize resources
289
Q

steps to soical policy analysis

A
verify, define, detail problem 
establish evaluation criteria 
identify alternative policies
evaluate alternative policis
distinguish between alternative policies
monitor implemented policy
290
Q

Classical Organizational Theories

A

(tough, authoritarian)

scientific management (theory x)
weber’s
adminsitrative

291
Q

Scientific management-theoryX

A

classical

: finding the ‘one’ best way to perform each task; closely supervising workers & controlling behavior (w/ reward/punishment)

292
Q

Weber’s bureaucratic

A

classical

need for hierarchical structure of power to ensure stability & uniformity

293
Q

adminsitrative theory

A

classical

universal set of management principles to apply to all organizations

294
Q

Neoclassical theories

A

human relations theory (theory y)

295
Q

human relations theory (theory y)

A

reaction to classical theory; genuine concern for human needs; importance of cohesive work groups, participatory leadership, & open communication

296
Q

Modern Organizational Approaches

A

systems
sociotechnical
contingency/situational

297
Q

systems approach (orgs)

A

modern

org. as a system composed of a set of interrelated, mutually dependent subsystems

298
Q

sociotechnial approach

A

modern

org. as composed of a social system, technical system & its environment

299
Q

Contingency/Situational Approach

A

modern

org. systems are interrelated with their environment & different environments require different org. systems for effectiveness

300
Q

Acquisition

A

gathering of human, material, & economic resources

301
Q

allocation

A

distribution of resources internally (i.e. to specific depts) or externally (i.e. contracting consultants)

302
Q

components of supervision

A

administrative
educational
supportive

303
Q

Cost-Benefit Analysis

A

(program eval)

financial costs of operating a program vs the fiscal benefits of its outcomes

304
Q

Cost-Effectiveness Analysis:

A

(program eval)

benefits that are not measured in monetary terms (illnesses prevented,lives saved)

305
Q

outcome assessment

A

(program eval)

the process of determining whether a program has achieved its intended goals

306
Q

Stages of program eval

A
Engage Stakeholders
Describe program design
Focus evaluation design
Gather evidence 
Justify conclusions
Use and share lesson learned
307
Q

steps in ethical problem solving

A

DETERMINE whether there is an ethical issue or dilemma
IDENTIFY the main principles & values involved
RANK (weigh) the main principles & values that are most relevant to the issue or dilemma
DEVELOP an action plan (suggest modifications)
IMPLEMENT the action plan
REFLECT on the outcome / monitor for new ethical issues

308
Q

advance directives

A

legal written agreements that will be honored when people can no longer communicate their wishe
includes living wills (client’s preference for medical care) +/or power of attorney (clients designate other people to make healthcare decisions on their behalf)

309
Q

advocate

A

champion rights of others with goal of empowerment; speak on behalf of clients

310
Q

case mgr

A

oordination of services that includes planning, facilitating, advocating

311
Q

broker

A

identify, locate, & link client systems to resources; negotiate the terms of service delivery

312
Q

change agent

A

part of a group or org to improve/restructure service provision; uses problem-solving model

313
Q

counselor

A

goal of improving social functioning; help clients articulate needs, clarify their problems, apply strategies, etc.; empower clients by affirming personal strengths & capacities

314
Q

mediator

A

when dispute resolution is needed; intervene in disputes between parties to help them find compromises, etc.; takes neutral stance

315
Q

burnout

A

physical, emotional, psychological, and/or spiritual exhaustion re: not seeing change in clients
manifests in cynicism or lack of satisfaction; develops over time

316
Q

secondary trauma

A

empathic over-identification w/ clients’ traumatic experiences + physical symptoms
symptoms mirror those experienced by the primary victim; occurs more immediately

317
Q

compassion fatigue

A

combines secondary trauma and burnout + frustration w/ bureaucracy
overall emotional & physical fatigue due to the use of empathy when treating clients
develops over time

318
Q

ativan

A

panic

319
Q

valium

A

panic

320
Q

xanax

A

panic

321
Q

klonopin

A

panic

322
Q

celexa

A

depression

323
Q

paxil

A

depression

324
Q

prozac

A

depression

325
Q

lexapro

A

depression

326
Q

wellbutrin

A

depression

327
Q

zoloft

A

depression

328
Q

cymbalta

A

depression

329
Q

anafranil

A

depression

330
Q

ascendin

A

depression

331
Q

elavil

A

dperession

332
Q

norporamin

A

depression

333
Q

pamelor

A

depression

334
Q

aventyl sinequan

A

depression

335
Q

surmontil

A

depression

336
Q

tofranil

A

depression

337
Q

vivactil

A

depression

338
Q

nardil

A

depression

339
Q

parnate

A

depression

340
Q

effexor

A

depression

341
Q

desyrel

A

depression

342
Q

remeron

A

depression

343
Q

serzone

A

depression

344
Q

wellbutrin

A

depression

345
Q

clorazil

A

schizo

346
Q

haldol

A

schizo

347
Q

risperdal

A

schizo

348
Q

thorazine

A

schizo

349
Q

zyprexa

A

schizo

350
Q

loxitane

A

schizo

351
Q

mellaril

A

schizo

352
Q

moban

A

schizo

353
Q

navane

A

schizo

354
Q

prolixin

A

schizo

355
Q

serentil

A

schizo

356
Q

setelazine

A

schizo

357
Q

trilafon

A

schizo

358
Q

invega

A

schizo

359
Q

abilify

A

schizo

360
Q

seroquel

A

schizo

361
Q

lithium

A

bipolar

362
Q

depakote

A

bipolar

363
Q

lamictal

A

bipolar

364
Q

tegretol

A

bipolar

365
Q

topomax

A

bipolar

366
Q

adderall

A

ADHD

367
Q

concerta

A

ADHD

368
Q

ritalin

A

ADHD

369
Q

vyvanse

A

ADHD

370
Q

dexedrine

A

ADHD

371
Q

metadate

A

ADHD

372
Q

1964: Title VI Civil Rights Act

A

No person excluded from program receiving federal $
No discirmination in hiring
Desegregated schools & public buildings

373
Q

1965: Older American Acts (OAA)

A

administration of aging - federal grants to states for 60+
local area agencies on aging (AAA)
access, in-home, community, caregiver, volunteer work

374
Q

1974: Child Abuse Prevention & Treatment Act

A

federal funding to states

375
Q

1974: Family Educational Rights & Privacy Act (FERPA)

A

Privacy of educational records
Under 18: parents can inspect student records, formal hearing, statement in record
Schools need written permission from parents to release

376
Q

1975: Education for Handicapped Children Act

A

free education

IEPS

377
Q

1978: Indian Child Welfare Act

A

Nations have jurisdiction over welfare cases that involve children
Hierarchy procedure
verify tribal identity
allow tribal jurisdiction
if tribal jurisdiction rejected: place with family member / palace with tribe fam / place with no-tribe fam

378
Q

1980: Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act

A

Family preservation and reunification
Courts to review child welfare cases more regularly
States required to have preservation and reunification programs
Kids in nonpermanent settings to be seen every 6 months
Adoption subsidy for complex needs and disabilities

379
Q

1990: Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

A

Prohibits discrimination
Requires covered employers to provide reasonable accommodations
Condition does not need to be severe or permanent to be disability

380
Q

1991: Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)

A

Advanced directives at all healthcare facilities that received federal funding
AD = legally designate person to make decisions on behalf about continuation of support
If a person has not told someone wishes, a decision to remove or put on life support cannot be made, legally
living wills = control in case of illness/injury
families inform clients of rights

381
Q

1993: Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

A

12 weeks unpaid, job-protected leave to eligible employees with continuation of insurance coverage

382
Q

1994: Multiethnic Placement Act (MEPA)

A

Agencies can’t refuse or delay foster parents because of parents’ race, color, or national origin.

383
Q

1994: VAWA

A

Federal rape shield law: victim’s past sexual hx cannot be used against them in trial
Victim protection order
Dedicated law enforcement and prosecution
Training for judges, advocates

384
Q

1996: Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA)

A

Shift in federal cash assistance
Workforce development component to welfare
TANF
Lifetime 5-year limit on benefits

385
Q

1996: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

A

Access to medical records

Privacy protections

386
Q

2010: Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA):

A
More access to insurance 
Curbs costs
Expands health workforce
Reduce uncompensated care
Comparison shopping
Medicare reforms