Liver Lectures - GI Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Acute Liver Failure is…

The _________ in a person without ______

Must have _________ and any degree of _____

Duration of illness is typically _______

A

Acute Liver Failure is…

The sudden loss of hepatic function in a person without pre-existing liver disease

Must have presence of coagulopathy (INR ≥ 1.5) and any degree of encephalopathy

Duration of illness is typically ≤ 24 weeks

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2
Q

_____ causes the majority of acute liver failure in the US. Runners up include ______ and ________

A

Tylenol misuse causes the majority of acute liver failure in the US. Runners up include unknown causes and idosyncratic drug reactions

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3
Q

Tylenol is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract. Toxicity is ___ related. In order to have liver effects, patients usually have to take >__g

A

Tylenol is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract. Toxicity is dose related. In order to have liver effects, patients usually have to take >10g

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4
Q

Acetaminophen reaches peak serum levels in _ hours. This can be delayed by _____ such as _______.

A negative blood screen does not rule out Tylenol toxicity.

A

Acetaminophen reaches peak serum levels in 4 hours. This can be delayed by other drugs such as anticholinergics. A negative blood screen does not rule out Tylenol toxicity.

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5
Q

Acetaminophen Toxicity

Stage 1: (time). nausea, vomiting, lethargy, malaise. Blood labs and CNS are normal.

Stage 2: (time). RUQ pain, hepatomegaly. nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, coagulopathy.

Stage 3: (time): Jaundice, encephalopathy. Max elevated LFT, sometimes >10,000. Hyoglycemia, lactic acidosis, prolonged INR

Stage 4 (time): Clinical recovery is complete, histological recovery lags. No long-term sequela.

A

Stage 1: 0.5-24 hours. nausea, vomiting, lethargy, malaise. Blood labs and CNS are normal.

Stage 2: 24 - 72 hrs. RUQ pain, hepatomegaly. nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, coagulopathy.

Stage 3: 72 - 96 hours: Jaundice, encephalopathy. Max elevated LFT, sometimes >10,000. Hyoglycemia, lactic acidosis, prolonged INR

Stage 4: 4d-2wks: Clinical recovery is complete, histological recovery lags. No long-term sequela.

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6
Q

Stage 1: 0.5-24 hours. (clinical presentation). Blood labs and CNS are normal.

Stage 2: 24 - 72 hrs. (clinical presentation). nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, coagulopathy.

Stage 3: 72 - 96 hours: (clinical presentation). Max elevated LFT, sometimes >10,000. Hyoglycemia, lactic acidosis, prolonged INR

Stage 4: 4d-2wks: (clinical presentation)

A

Stage 1: 0.5-24 hours. nausea, vomiting, lethargy, malaise. Blood labs and CNS are normal.

Stage 2: 24 - 72 hrs. RUQ pain, hepatomegaly. nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, coagulopathy.

Stage 3: 72 - 96 hours: Jaundice, encephalopathy. Max elevated LFT, sometimes >10,000. Hyoglycemia, lactic acidosis, prolonged INR

Stage 4: 4d-2wks: Clinical recovery is complete, histological recovery lags. No long-term sequela.

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7
Q

Stage 1: 0.5-24 hours. nausea, vomiting, lethargy, malaise. (objective findings).

Stage 2: 24 - 72 hrs. RUQ pain, hepatomegaly. (objective findings).

Stage 3: 72 - 96 hours: Jaundice, encephalopathy. (objective findings).

Stage 4: 4d-2wks: Clinical recovery is complete, histological recovery lags. No long-term sequela.

A

Stage 1: 0.5-24 hours. nausea, vomiting, lethargy, malaise. Blood labs and CNS are normal.

Stage 2: 24 - 72 hrs. RUQ pain, hepatomegaly. nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, coagulopathy.

Stage 3: 72 - 96 hours: Jaundice, encephalopathy. Max elevated LFT, sometimes >10,000. Hyoglycemia, lactic acidosis, prolonged INR

Stage 4: 4d-2wks: Clinical recovery is complete, histological recovery lags. No long-term sequela.

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8
Q

If a patient makes it past the ____ stage of acetaminophen toxicity, they are likely to survive.

The ____ stage of acetaminophen toxicity is characterized by Jaundice and hepatomegaly. Also maximally elevated LFTs (>10,000), prolonged INR, lactic acidosis, hypoglycemia.

A

If a patient makes it past the third stage of acetaminophen toxicity, they are likely to survive.

The third stage of acetaminophen toxicity is characterized by Jaundice and hepatomegaly. Also maximally elevated LFTs (>10,000), prolonged INR, lactic acidosis, hypoglycemia

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9
Q

The Rumack-Matthew nomogram is used to interpret ______ in relation to ______, in order to assess likelihood of _______.

A

The Rumack-Matthew nomogram is used to interpret serum acetaminophen levels in relation to time since ingestion, in order to assess likelihood of hepatotoxicity.

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10
Q

Acetaminophen can safely be excreted in the urine by exchaning a hydroxyl moiety for a ___ or a ____.

A

Acetaminophen can safely be excreted in the urine by exchaning a hydroxyl moiety for a glucuronide or a sulfate.

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11
Q

Acetaminophen can be ____ excreted without altering the chemical structure.

A

Acetaminophen can be renally excreted without altering the chemical structure.

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12
Q

______ can be afixed to ______, a toxic metabolite of acetaminophen, to render it inert. The ____ is then excreted in the urine.

A

Glutathione can be afixed to NAPQI, a toxic metabolite of acetaminophen, to render it inert. The glutathione+NAPQI is then excreted in the urine.

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13
Q

Once _____ stores are depleted, acetaminophen is converted to _____ by _______ enzymes. Free-_____ is hepatotoxic.

A

Once glutathione stores are depleted, acetaminophen is converted to NAPQI by CYP/P450 enzymes. Free-NAPQI is hepatotoxic.

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14
Q

(drug) can be used to treat acetaminophen overdose by inhibiting the production of (metabolite). It works best within (time) of ingestion. After that, serum levels are too high for drug to be effective. Normal (labs) at time of administration predict success.

A

N-acetyl-cysteine (NAC) can be used to treat acetaminophen overdose by inhibiting the production of NAPQI. It works best within 8 hours of ingestion. After that, serum levels are too high for drug to be effective. Normal LFTs at time of administration predict success.

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15
Q

The (edible) can cause ???-mediated damage to the liver. There is no blood test, so you must have a high clinical suspicion in a patient who presents with (4 things). Liver failure occurs within (time). Can treat with (2 drugs); list for transplant.

A

The death cap mushroom can cause toxin-mediated damage to the liver. There is no blood test, so you must have a high clinical suspicion in a patient who presents with abd pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and a history of ingesting mushrooms. Liver failure occurs within 4-5 days. Can treat with Pen-G or Silymarin; list for transplant.

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16
Q

____ causes of acute liver failure are rare. _____ almost never causes ALF in the US, but ___ can cause ALF in (4 countries), especially in (population). Only treatment is ______.

___ & _____ can also cause viral ALF. Treat with (drug).

A

Viral causes of acute liver failure are rare. Hepatitis almost never causes ALF in the US, but HEV can cause ALF in Mexico, Russia, Pakistan, and India, especially in pregnant women. Only treatment is supportive care.

HSV and varicella zoster can also cause viral ALF. Treat with acyclovir.

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17
Q

Idiosyncratic drug-related acute liver failure is diagnosed based on a reaction that occurs with (time) of drug exposure. Common culprits are (5 drugs).

A

Idiosyncratic drug-related acute liver failure is diagnosed based on a reaction that occurs with ~6 months of drug exposure. Common culprits are Carbamazepine, Sulfonamides (eg. augmentin), Isoniazid, NSAIDs, ecstacy.

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18
Q

Complications of ALF can include (5 things). Liver transplantation must be considered.

A

Complications of ALF can include encephalopathy, cerebral HTN, nephrotixicity, infections, and coagulopathy. Liver transplantation must be considered.

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19
Q

This patient took too much Tylenol. What’s going on in this image?

A

Acetaminiophen preferentially affects zone 3. Normalish cells are seen near the portal trid. The cells near the central vein in zone 3 are pink and smudgy.

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20
Q

The most common causes of chronic liver disease and cirrhosis are (4 things).

A

The most common causes of chronic liver disease and cirrhosis are HBV, HCV, Alcohol, and Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease.

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21
Q

About __% of people infected with HCV will clear the virus on their own. The other ___% will go on to have chronic liver disease. Fibrosis develops over ___ years. Among those with chronic liver disease, __% go on to have cirrhosis. It is the leading cause of (three things) in the US.

A

About 15-20% of people infected with HCV will clear the virus on their own. The other 80-85% will go on to have chronic liver disease. Fibrosis develops over 15-30 years. Among those with chronic liver disease, 20% go on to have cirrhosis. It is the leading cause of liver cirrhosis, liver-related deaths, and hepatocellular carcinoma in the US.

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22
Q

Four groups should be screened for HCV: (4). The treatment lasts (time) weeks and has few side effects, but it is expensive.

A

Four groups should be screened for HCV: baby boomers, people who inject drugs, people on hemodialysis, and anyone who received a drug transfusion prior to 1992. The treatment lasts 8-12 weeks and has few side effects, but it is expensive.

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23
Q

Extra-hepatic manifestations of HCV include…

A

Non-Hodgkins B cell lymphoma

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

cryoglobulinemia

porphyria cutanea tarda

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24
Q

Symptoms of cryoglobulinemia include…

A

joint aches and swelling

skin vasculitis, palpable purpura over shins

peripheral nephropathy

nephrotic syndrome

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25
Q

Cryoglobulins are abnormal ___ that precipitate at ___. ___% of pts with HCV have cryoglobulinemia, and high serum levels can cause sx.

A

Cryoglobulins are abnormal Igs that precipitate at cooler temperatures. 40-50% of pts with HCV have cryoglobulinemia, and high serum levels can cause sx.

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26
Q

An estimated ___% of patients with HCV will also have ___. ___ is caused by a deficiency in ___ enzyme which causes a build up of toxic metabolites. It presents with ____ and other ___ & ___manifestations.

A

An estimated 60-90% of patients with HCV will also have porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT). PCT is caused by a deficiency in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase enzyme which causes a build up of toxic metabolites. It presents with leasions/blisters on sunexposed areas and other liver and nervous system manifestations.

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27
Q

This patient has HCV. What is the disease pictured?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

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28
Q

Interpret the image and name that disease

A

Lymphocytic infiltrate and fibrosis around the portal tract. More normal looking hepatocytes around the central vein.

HCV

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29
Q

What virus causes lymphocytic infiltrates and fibrosis around the portal tract?

A

HCV

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30
Q

Which hepatitis carries the greatest risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV

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31
Q

The H_V virus is a _NA virus that incorporates into host _NA, but it is not _____. This makes it very hard to cure, and increases the risk for developing ________. Damage is caused by the __________.

A

The HBV virus is a DNA virus that incorporates into host DNA, but it is not cytotoxic. This makes it very hard to cure, and increases the risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma. Damage is caused by the host immune response.

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32
Q

In HBV infection, ___ antigen is present for _ months. Levels of ______ and ___ can vary widely when infected.

A

In HBV infection, surface antigen is present for 6 months. Levels of HBV DNA and ALT can vary widely when infected.

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33
Q

H_V and H_V both preferentially affect zone _ near the _______. Only H_V has __________ in hepatocytes on histology.

A

HBV and HCV both preferentially affect zone 1 near the portal tracts. Only HBV has ground glass inclusions in hepatocytes on histology.

ground glass inclusions are cells on right. Speckled looking cells on left are healthy.

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34
Q

Primary Biliary cirrhosis is a presumed ______disease that destroys ______.

A

Primary Biliary cirrhosis is a presumed autoimmune disease that destroys intrahepatic bile ducts.

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35
Q

_________ is a presumed autoimmune disease that destroys intrahepatic bile ducts.

A

Primary Biliary cirrhosis is a presumed autoimmune disease that destroys intrahepatic bile ducts.

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36
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis is often found in conjunction with (3 autoimmune/allergic + 3 more

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis is often found in conjunction with Sjogren syn, rheumatoid arthritis, dermatologic conditions, dry eyes, dry mouth, osteopenia/osteoporosis, thyroid disease, and celiac disease

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37
Q

The illness script for primary biliary cirrhosis (cholangitis) is a _____ in (age) who presents with (3 signs/sx) though most pts are asymptomatic

A

The illness script for primary biliary cirrhosis (cholangitis) is a women in her 30s-60s who presents with pruritis, fatigue, and RUQ though most pts are asymptomatic

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38
Q

The illness script for (disease) is a women in her 30s-60s who presents with pruritis, fatigue, and RUQ though most pts are asymptomatic

A

The illness script for primary biliary cirrhosis (cholangitis) is a women in her 30s-60s who presents with pruritis, fatigue, and RUQ though most pts are asymptomatic

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39
Q

You can diagnose PBC with an elevated (3 labs); you don’t even really need a liver biopsy. Patients will also have a mildly elevated (2 labs). Elevated (lab) is a very late finding in PBC.

A

You can diagnose PBC with an elevated AMA, ALP, and IgM; you don’t even really need a liver biopsy. Patients will also have a mildly elevated AST, ALT. Elevated bilirubin is a very late finding in PBC.

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40
Q

Anti-mitochondria antibody (AMA) is the serologic hallmark of ___.

A

Anti-mitochondria antibody is the serologic hallmark of PBC

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41
Q

You find elevated ALP, AMA, GGT, and IgM in a pt. AST and ALT are mildly elevated. Liver biopsy is below. What is this patient’s diagnosis?

A

PBC

Notice the histiocytic infiltration and destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts.

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42
Q

You find elevated ALP, AMA, GGT, and IgM in a pt. AST and ALT are mildly elevated. Liver biopsy is below. What is this patient’s diagnosis?

A

PBC

All of the brownish gunk is bile that has backed up in the liver because of the damaged intrahepatic bile ducts.

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43
Q

The treatment for ___ is ursodeoxycholic acid

A

The treatment for PCB is ursodeoxycholic acid

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44
Q

___________ is a chronic cholestatic liver disease of unknown origin that causes diffue inflammation and fibrosis of the entire biliary tree.

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a chronic cholestatic liver disease of unknown origin that causes diffue inflammation and fibrosis of the entire biliary tree.

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45
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a chronic cholestatic liver disease of unknown origin that causes ________. Medican survival is ___ years, annd the only cure is ____

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a chronic cholestatic liver disease of unknown origin that causes diffuse inflammation and fibrosis of the entire biliary tree. Medican survival is 10-12 years, annd the only cure is transplant

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46
Q

A typical illness script for ___ would be a man in his 40s who has IBD and present with pruritis, fatigue, and jaundice. Would also have mildly elevated LFTs including ALP. Pts can run the gammit from asymptomatic to cirrhotic.

Most patients with ___ have ulcerative colitis (UC), but few pts with UC have PSC

A

A typical illness script for PSC would be a man in his 40s who has IBD and present with pruritis, fatigue, and jaundice. Would also have mildly elevated LFTs including ALP. Pts can run the gammit from asymptomatic to cirrhotic.

Most patients with PSC have ulcerative colitis (UC), but few pts with UC have PSC

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47
Q

A typical illness script for PSC would be a (gender) in (age) who has (comorbidity) and present with (3 signs/sx). Would also have mildly elevated (labs). Pts can run the gammit from asymptomatic to cirrhotic.

Most patients with PSC have (comorbidity), but few pts with (comorbidity) have PSC

A

A typical illness script for PSC would be a man in his 40s who has IBD and present with pruritis, fatigue, and jaundice. Would also have mildly elevated LFTs including ALP. Pts can run the gammit from asymptomatic to cirrhotic.

Most patients with PSC have ulcerative colitis (UC), but few pts with UC have PSC

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48
Q

imaging of ___ will show irregular stricturing and bleeding. Imaging modality of choice is ERCP or MRCP.

A

imaging of PSC will show irregular stricturing and bleeding. Imaging modality of choice is ERCP or MRCP.

stricturing occurs especially in medium to large caliber ducts.

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49
Q

imaging of PSC will show ___. Imaging modality of choice is ____.

A

imaging of PSC will show irregular stricturing and bleeding. Imaging modality of choice is ERCP or MRCP.

stricturing occurs especially in medium to large caliber ducts.

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50
Q

The histological hallmark of ___ is “onion skin” fibrosis

A

The histological hallmark of PSC is “onion skin” fibrosis

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51
Q

The histological hallmark of PSC is “_____ ____” fibrosis

A

The histological hallmark of PSC is “onion skin” fibrosis

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52
Q

Patients who have PSC may also end up with _____ due to the lack of bile. They can also develop ______. Pts who have PSC on UC are at vvv high risk for _______.

A

Patients who have PSC may also end up with fat soluble vitamin deficiency due to the lack of bile. They can also develop metabolic bone disease (eg. osteoporosis, osteopenia). Pts who have PSC on UC are at vvv high risk for colon cancer.

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53
Q

___ predisposes patients to developing cholangiocarcinoma. The location of the tumor determines the clinical presentation. Tumors can be intrahepatic, klatskin (perihilar where left and right hepatic bile ducts join; acounts for 60-80%) or distal (10-30%) Diagnosis is challenging and tumors are found in 35-40% of liver explants

A

PSC predisposes patients to developing cholangiocarcinoma. The location of the tumor determines the clinical presentation. Tumors can be intrahepatic, klatskin (perihilar where left and right hepatic bile ducts join; acounts for 60-80%) or distal (10-30%) Diagnosis is challenging and tumors are found in 35-40% of liver explants

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54
Q

PSC predisposes patients to developing ___________. The _____ of the tumor determines the clinical presentation. Tumors can be _____, _____ (perihilar where left and right hepatic bile ducts join; acounts for 60-80%) or _____ (10-30%) Diagnosis is challenging and tumors are found in 35-40% of liver explants

A

PSC predisposes patients to developing cholangiocarcinoma. The location of the tumor determines the clinical presentation. Tumors can be intrahepatic, klatskin (perihilar where left and right hepatic bile ducts join; acounts for 60-80%) or distal (10-30%) Diagnosis is challenging and tumors are found in 35-40% of liver explants

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55
Q

Acute Liver Failure in the US is most commonly caused
by _____. Acute Liver Failure requires urgent evaluation for ____ and _____.

A

Acute Liver Failure in the US is most commonly caused
by acetominophen toxicity. Acute Liver Failure requires urgent evaluation for etiology and liver transplantation.

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56
Q

________ is the most common cause of chronic liver
disease in the US.

A

Hepatitis C is the most common cause of chronic liver
disease in the US.

57
Q

Cholestatic liver disease presents with (3 things). ____ and ______ are the common causes of cholestatic liver disease. ___more common in women, (+AMA). ___ more common in men (biliary strictures)

A

Cholestatic liver disease presents with fatigue, pruritus, and increased alkaline phosphatase. PBC and PSC are the common causes of cholestatic liver disease. PBC more common in women, (+AMA). PSC more common in men (biliary strictures)

58
Q

There are 4 indications for treatment of Autoimmune Hepatitis:
– Serum ___ > 10X ULN
– Serum ___ > 5 X ULN and _____ > 2x ULN
• 60% mortality if untreated
– _____ necrosis or _____ necrosis
• 82% will progress to cirrhosis if untreated
– Incapacitating symptoms (_____ and ______)
• Medical treatment includes ______ and
______

A

There are 4 indications for treatment of Autoimmune Hepatitis:
– Serum AST > 10X ULN
– Serum AST > 5 X ULN and y-globulin > 2x ULN
• 60% mortality if untreated
– Bridging necrosis or multi-lobular necrosis
• 82% will progress to cirrhosis if untreated
– Incapacitating symptoms (fatigue and arthralgias)
• Medical treatment includes prednisone and
imuran

59
Q

While ____ and ____ remission is the goal for autoimmune hepatitis, _____ remission can take up to a year, and _____ remission could take 8 months beond that.

A

While biochemical and histological remission is the goal for autoimmune hepatitis, biochemical remission can take up to a year, and histological remission could take 8 months beond that.

60
Q

The hitological hallmark of _______ is a mixed inflammatory infiltrate (mostly plasma cells) that affects portal ducts and lobules with hepatocyte damage. Steroids can improve this.

The inflammation is caused by and environmental trigger + genetic predisposition (HLA DR3 and HLA DR4) –> loss of immune tolerance –> T cell mediated attack on hepatocytes

A

The hitological hallmark of autoimmune hepatitis is a mixed inflammatory infiltrate (mostly plasma cells) that affects portal ducts and lobules with hepatocyte damage. Steroids can improve this.

The inflammation is caused by and environmental trigger + genetic predisposition (HLA DR3 and HLA DR4) –> loss of immune tolerance –> T cell mediated attack on hepatocytesthis.

61
Q

The hitological hallmark of autoimmune hepatitis is a _____ infiltrate (mostly ___ cells) that affects _______ and _____ with _________ damage. Steroids can improve this.

The inflammation is caused by and environmental trigger + genetic predisposition (HLA DR3 and HLA DR4) –> loss of immune tolerance –> T cell mediated attack on hepatocytesthis.

A

The hitological hallmark of autoimmune hepatitis is a mixed inflammatory infiltrate (mostly plasma cells) that affects portal ducts and lobules with hepatocyte damage. Steroids can improve this.

The inflammation is caused by and environmental trigger + genetic predisposition (HLA DR3 and HLA DR4) –> loss of immune tolerance –> T cell mediated attack on hepatocytesthis.

62
Q

autoimmune hepatitis is a _______ disease of the liver. It affects (gender) more than (gender) just like most autoimmune disease. The HLA DR? and HLA DR? tags predispose patients to developing this disease. A loss of immune tolerance results in a ______ attack on hepatocytes

A

autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic inflammatory disease of the liver. It affects women more than men just like most autoimmune disease. The HLA DR3 and HLA DR4 tags predispose patients to developing this disease. A loss of immune tolerance results in a T-cell mediated attack on hepatocytes

63
Q

Type 1 ___: The most common type of _____ is the classic variety. Patients have +ANA and +ASMA antibodies. They also have IgG levels >1.5X ULN.

Type 2 ___: The second type of ___ is found less commonly in the US. These patients have antibodies against liver/kidney mitochondria (+LKM) or liver cytosol antigen. This flavor of ___ affects kids more often than adults.

A

The most common type of autoimmune hepatitis is the classic variety. Patients have +ANA and +ASMA antibodies. They also have IgG levels >1.5X ULN.

The second type of AIH is found less commonly in the US. These patients have antibodies against liver/kidney mitochondria (+LKM) or liver cytosol antigen. This flavor of AIH affects kids more often than adults.

64
Q

The most common type of autoimmune hepatitis is the classic variety. Patients have ____and ____ antibodies. They also have ___ levels >1.5X ULN.

The second type of AIH is found less commonly in the US. These patients have antibodies against ___ or ___ antigen. This flavor of AIH affects kids more often than adults.

A

The most common type of autoimmune hepatitis is the classic variety. Patients have +ANA and +ASMA antibodies. They also have IgG levels >1.5X ULN.

The second type of AIH is found less commonly in the US. These patients have antibodies against liver/kidney mitochondria (+LKM) or liver cytosol antigen. This flavor of AIH affects kids more often than adults.

65
Q

Signs and symptoms of ___ can vary during the course of the disease. Pts might present with fatigua, abdominal pain, nausea, arthralgias. They might have asymptomatic elevation of ALT (1/3 to half), or they could have acute liver failure or cirrhosis.

A

Signs and symptoms of AIH can vary during the course of the disease. Pts might present with fatigua, abdominal pain, nausea, arthralgias. They might have asymptomatic elevation of ALT (1/3 to half), or they could have acute liver failure or cirrhosis.

66
Q

Signs and symptoms of AIH can vary during the course of the disease. Pts might present with (4 symptoms). They might have asymptomatic (lab), or they could have (2 things).

A

Signs and symptoms of AIH can vary during the course of the disease. Pts might present with fatigua, abdominal pain, nausea, arthralgias. They might have asymptomatic elevation of ALT (1/3 to half), or they could have acute liver failure or cirrhosis.

67
Q

Expected labs for AIH:

  • ___ > 1.5x upper limit of normal
  • Abnormal transaminases (___ & ___) with normal ___
  • Sero-positive for ___, ____, or ____ at 1:80 or greater for adults
  • 96% US adults with AIH will have a positive titer for ___ or ____
  • 4% for _____
  • Other forms of chronic hepatitis must be excluded
A

Expected labs for AIH:

  • IgG > 1.5x upper limit of normal
  • Abnormal transaminases (ALT & AST) with normal ALP
  • Sero-positive for ANA, ASMA, or LKM-1 at 1:80 or greater for adults
  • 96% US adults with AIH will have a positive titer for ANA or ASMA
  • 4% for LKM-1
  • Other forms of chronic hepatitis must be excluded
68
Q

A young woman presents with fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea, and arthraligias. Labs reveal elevated AST, ALT. IgG is 1.5X ULN. Her ALP is normal. She has antibodies against ANA, ASMA. No antibodies against AMA. Serology for HCV and HBV are negative. Histology shows a mixed infiltrate w/ predominate plasma cells affecting the portal tracts and the lobules (seen below). What’s her diagnosis? How do you treat her?

A

Autoimmune Hepatitis. Treat with prednisone or imuran

69
Q

The natural history of Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease is steatosis –> __________ –> cirrhosis –> _______. Before a patient has ____, their disease course can reverse with abstinence. Once a patient has _____, there disease course still might progress with abstinence (30% of patients).

A

The natural history of Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease is steatosis –> steatohepatitis –> cirrhosis –> fibrosis. Before a patient has steatohepatitis, their disease course can reverse with abstinence. Once a patient has steatohepatitis, there disease course still might progress with abstinence (30% of patients).

70
Q

The natural history of Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease is ______ –> steatohepatitis –> _____ –> fibrosis. Before a patient has steatohepatitis, their disease course can reverse with abstinence. Once a patient has steatohepatitis, there disease course still might progress with abstinence (30% of patients).

A

The natural history of Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease is steatosis –> steatohepatitis –> cirrhosis –> fibrosis. Before a patient has steatohepatitis, their disease course can reverse with abstinence. Once a patient has steatohepatitis, there disease course still might progress with abstinence (30% of patients).

71
Q

Alcohol related cirrhosis accounts for about ___of all liver deaths. Toxicity parallels ____.

A

Alcohol related cirrhosis accounts for about half of all liver deaths. Toxicity parallels consumption.

72
Q

(high/low) socioeconomic status and (male/female) gender predict alcohol use.

A

Higher socioeconomic status and male gender predict alcohol use.

73
Q

The majority of EtOH is absorbed in the _____ (small amount in stomach). The ___ and ___ can expel some EtOH, but the majority is metabolized by the ____.

A

The majority of EtOH is absorbed in the small intestine (small amount in stomach). The lungs and kidneys can expel some EtOH, but the majority is metabolized by the liver.

74
Q

The enzymes ______ and ________ metabolise EtOH to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then metabolised by _____________ to acetate. The __________ pathway upregulates with habitual alcohol use.

A

The enzymes alcohol dehydrogenase and cytochrome p450 metabolise EtOH to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then metabolised by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase to acetate. The cytochrome p45002E1 pathway upregulates with habitual alcohol use.

75
Q

A male patient presents with fever, jaundice, tender hepatomegaly, and anorexia. He admits to drinking 7 alcoholic beverages daily for the last 10 years. You calculate his Maddrey Discrimination index and find that it is 32. A biopsy of his liver is seen below. What is his diagnosis? What can you tell him based on his MD index score?

A

He has alcoholic Steatohepatitis. His MD index score means his mortality at 1 month is 30% and mortality at 6 months is 50%. We can treat him with 40mg Prednisolone daily; if he responds after one week he will continue on for 1 month

76
Q

The Maddrey Discriminant Function is a formula to precict the outcome of (disease). It is based on (2 labs). If a pt’s score is over (#), it predicts poor outcomes. Pts with a score over (#) should receive (drug).

A

The Maddrey Discriminant Function is a formula to precict the outcome of alcoholic steatohepatitis. It is based on PT and bilirubin. If a pt’s score is over 32, it predicts poor outcomes. Pts with a score over 32 should receive prednisolone.

77
Q

On histology, a liver with ________ will have steatosis, Mallory-Denk bodies, and pericellular (chicken wire) fibrosis. Zone _ will be primarily affected.

A

On histology, a liver with alcoholic steatohepatitis will have steatosis, Mallory-Denk bodies, and pericellular (chicken wire) fibrosis. Zone 3 will be primarily affected.

78
Q

An AST/ALT ratio >_ is suggestive of but not specific for alcoholic steatohepatitis. These patients will also have an elevated ___ and ___

A

An AST/ALT ratio >2 is suggestive of but not specific for alcoholic steatohepatitis. These patients will also have an elevated GGT and MCV

79
Q

An ___/___ ratio >2 is suggestive of but not specific for alcoholic steatohepatitis. These patients will also have an elevated GGT and MCV

A

An AST/ALT ratio >2 is suggestive of but not specific for alcoholic steatohepatitis. These patients will also have an elevated GGT and MCV

80
Q

Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is ___ or ____ evidence of fatty liver disease with no _____. NAFL is ___. NASH is NAFL + ____.

A

Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is imaging or histological evidence of fatty liver disease with no other explanation for the fat accumulation. NAFL is just steatosis. NASH is NAFL + cellular injury and maybe fibrosis.

81
Q

NAFLD affects ____ equally, but there are ethinic differences: _____ > _____ > _______. NAFLD is associated with the ______ which includes obesity, HTN, dyslipidemia, and insulin insensitivity/overt diabetes.

A

NAFLD affects all genders equally, but there are ethinic differences: hispanic > caucasia > black. NAFLD is associated with the metabolic syndrome which includes obesity, HTN, dyslipidemia, and insulin insensitivity/overt diabetes.

82
Q

Most patients with NAFLD are asymptomatic; they are diagnosed after ____ are discovered. Risk factors include (three things)

A

Most patients with NAFLD are asymptomatic; they are diagnosed after mildly elevated LFTs are discovered. Risk factors include having diabetes, age >45, and BMI > 28.

83
Q

Treatment for NAFLD is _____modification, abstention from _____, and _____ in non-diabetics

A

Treatment for NAFLD is diet/exercise modification, abstention from alcohol, and 400 IU/day Vit E in non-diabetics

84
Q

_________ is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation of the HFE gene on chromosome 6, most commonly a point mutation C282Y

A

Hereditary Hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation of the HFE gene on chromosome 6, most commonly a point mutation C282Y

85
Q

Hereditary Hemochromatosis is an autosomal _____ disorder caused by a mutation of the ___ gene on chromosome _, most commonly a ____ mutation: _____

Most affected individuals are _____ at time of diagnosis. __% of homozygotes have the HH phenotype, and __% develop end organ damage.

A

Hereditary Hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation of the HFE gene on chromosome 6, most commonly a point mutation C282Y

Most affected individuals are asymptomatic at time of diagnosis. 70% of homozygotes have the HH phenotype, and 10% develop end organ damage.

86
Q

The balance between absorption and loss of iron every day should be ~_g, but pts with HH absorb __mg daily

A

The balance between absorption and loss of iron every day should be ~1g, but pts with HH absorb 2-4mg daily

87
Q

Consequences of HH include:

  • _____
  • HCC
  • _______
  • hypogonadism (2/2 pitutitary effects)
  • __________
  • infections (esp Listeria, yersinia, vibrio)
  • ___________

The (3 things) are unresponsive to treatment

A

Consequences of HH include:

  • Liver disease
  • HCC
  • cardiac effects (dilated cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias)
  • hypogonadism (2/2 pitutitary effects)
  • diabetes (2/2 deposition in pancreas; 50% of HH pts have DM)
  • infections (esp Listeria, yersinia, vibrio)
  • arthralgias (esp MCP)

The hypogonadism, cirrhosis, and arthralgia is unresponsive to treatment

88
Q

Consequences of HH include:

  • Liver disease (hepatomegaly, increases liver enzymes, fibrosis, cirrhosis)
  • ___
  • cardiac effects (dilated cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias)
  • ______
  • diabetes (2/2 deposition in pancreas; 50% of HH pts have DM)
  • _______
  • arthralgias (esp MCP)

The hypogonadism, cirrhosis, and arthralgia is unresponsive to treatment

A

Consequences of HH include:

  • Liver disease
  • HCC
  • cardiac effects (dilated cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias)
  • hypogonadism (2/2 pitutitary effects)
  • diabetes (2/2 deposition in pancreas; 50% of HH pts have DM)
  • infections (esp Listeria, yersinia, vibrio)
  • arthralgias (esp MCP)

The hypogonadism, cirrhosis, and arthralgia is unresponsive to treatment

89
Q

True or false: all iron accumulation in the liver is due to hereditary hemochromatosis

A

False.

90
Q

Liver biopsy of a pt with _________ will show iron accumulation in hepatocytes.

A

Liver biopsy of a pt with hereditary hemochromatosis will show iron accumulation in hepatocytes.

The iron looks like brown sludge on H&E. Confirm it’s iron with prussian blue stain.

biopsry isn’t necessary for diagnosis. helpful for determining extent of damage

91
Q

Liver biopsy of a pt with hereditary hemochromatosis will show ___ accumulation in hepatocytes.

The __ looks like brown sludge on H&E. Confirm it’s __ with ________stain.

A

Liver biopsy of a pt with hereditary hemochromatosis will show iron accumulation in hepatocytes.

The iron looks like brown sludge on H&E. Confirm it’s iron with prussian blue stain.

biopsry isn’t necessary for diagnosis. helpful for determining extent of damage

92
Q

Cut off levels in evaluation for further diagnostics of HH:
– Transferrin Saturation (aka iron saturation) ≥ __%
– Ferritin > ___μg/L (men)
– Ferritin > ___ μg/L (women)

If these labs are out of whack, you should maybe do genetic testing

A

Cut off levels in evaluation for further diagnostics of HH:
– Transferrin Saturation (aka iron saturation) ≥ 45%
– Ferritin > 200 μg/L (men)
– Ferritin > 150 μg/L (women)

If these labs are out of whack, you should maybe do genetic testing

93
Q

Cut off levels in evaluation for further diagnostics of HH:
– _____ ≥ 45%
– _____ > 200 μg/L (men)
– _______ > 150 μg/L (women)

If these labs are out of whack, you should maybe do genetic testing

A

Cut off levels in evaluation for further diagnostics of HH:
– Transferrin Saturation (aka iron saturation) ≥ 45%
– Ferritin > 200 μg/L (men)
– Ferritin > 150 μg/L (women)

If these labs are out of whack, you should maybe do genetic testing

94
Q

The treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis is _____ until serum iron reaches _____ Ig/L. It can _________ and _____. However, it does not improve the (3 things)

A

The treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis is phlebotomy until serum iron reaches 50-100 Ig/L. It can reduce morbidity/mortality and slow progression of the disease. However, it does not improve the arthralgia, cirrhosis, or hypogonadism

95
Q

A1ATD is a genetic disease that results in ____ A1AT protein that accumulates in the ____ and causes _____. It is a major cause of ______ in never-smokers. It also increases the pt’s chance of developing ___. Pts might also have lung damage 2/2 unchecked _____. The older pts get, the higher their risk of developing dz phenotype; it is the #1 cause of liver dz in _____.

A

A1ATD is a genetic disease that results in misfolded A1AT protein that accumulates in the liver and causes cirrhosis. It is a major cause of cirrhosis in never-smokers. It also increases the pt’s chance of developing HCC. Pts might also have lung damage 2/2 unchecked protease activity. The older pts get, the higher their risk of developing dz phenotype; it is the #1 cause of liver dz in children.

96
Q

The histological hallmark of A1ATD is _____ accumulated in hepatocytes, especially in zone _, that is revealed with ___ stain. There is also nonspecific fibrosis and inflammation.

A

The histological hallmark of A1ATD is A1AT accumulated in hepatocytes, especially in zone 1, that is revealed with PAS stain. There is also nonspecific fibrosis and inflammation.

97
Q

Wilson’s Disease is an autosomal ____ disease that results in _______ deposition. It is the result of a mutation to the _____ gene. There are hundreds of mutations known, and for this reason, genetic testing for Wilson’s disease is ___ performed. Most pts w/ disease are compound heterozygotes.

A

Wilson’s Disease is an autosomal recessive disease that results in copper deposition. It is the result of a mutation to the ATP7B gene. There are hundreds of mutations known, and for this reason, genetic testing for Wilson’s disease is NAHT performed. Most pts w/ disease are compound heterozygotes.

98
Q

Remember the characteristics of Wilson’s Disease with ABCDs:

A

Remember the characteristics of Wilson’s Disease with ABCDs:

Asterixis

Basal Ganglia effects

Corneal deposits/cirrhosis,

dementia

99
Q

In Wilson’s Disease, a defective ____ causes copper to accumulate in the _____ of hepatocytes, because the copper can’t get packaged in the ____ for excretion in the bile.

A

In Wilson’s Disease, a defective ATP7B causes copper to accumulate in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes, because the copper can’t get packaged in the golgi for excretion in the bile.

100
Q

On histology, Wilson’s Dz is a ______. It can mimick any of the disease that cause steatosis, cirrhosis, acute hepatitis, chronic hepatitis. In particular, you might see ___ and ___like in AFLD or ____/____/____ like in AIH. A special ___ stain can highlight copper in hepatocytes, but the stain doesn’t work if the copper is too diffuse. Wilson’s disease is an often missed dx.

A

On histology, Wilson’s Dz is a masquerader. It can mimick any of the disease that cause steatosis, cirrhosis, acute hepatitis, chronic hepatitis. In particular, you might see steatosis and Mallory bodies like in AFLD or periportal inflammation/bridging necrosis/lobular necrosis like in AIH. A special Rhodanine stain can highlight copper in hepatocytes, but the stain doesn’t work if the copper is too diffuse. Wilson’s disease is an often missed dx.

101
Q

Classic Wilson’s disease looks like (acute/chronic) liver disease in a person ? y.o. with (eyes). Commonly presents between (?-??) y.o.

Children more often present with _____

Adults present with ________ symtoms

A

Classic Wilson’s disease looks like chronic liver disease in a person <40 y.o. with KF rings. Commonly presents between 8-18 y.o.

Children more often present with liver disease

Adults present with neurological symtoms

102
Q

KF rings (do/do not) occur with acute liver disease.

A

KF rings do not occur with acute liver disease.

rings are due to deposition over time

103
Q

Three labs are usefull in the diagnosis of Wilson’s disease:

Plasma ceruplasm: a level <_ mg/dL is highly suspicious for WD. <__ mg/dL warrants investigation. Normal ceruplasm does not exclude WD.

Urinary copper excretion: can see >___g/day in symptomatic pts

Hepatic copper concentration: can see >___ ug/g dry weight

A

Three labs are usefull in the diagnosis of Wilson’s disease:

Plasma ceruplasm: a level <5 mg/dL is highly suspicious for WD. <20 mg/dL warrants investigation. Normal ceruplasm does not exclude WD.

Urinary copper excretion: can see >100g/day in symptomatic pts

Hepatic copper concentration: can see >250 ug/g dry weight

104
Q

The primary treatment for Wilson’s Disease is _____like ____ and ______. You have to balance biologically necessary storage with overload. You can also use ______ to block intestinal absorption

A

The primary treatment for Wilson’s Disease is copper chelators like penacilamin and trientine. You have to balance biologically necessary storage with overload. You can also use zinc acetate to block intestinal absorption

105
Q

Acute hepatitis caused by Wilson’s disease (can/cannot) be distinguished from other forms of acute hepatitis, so you shoud ________.

A

Acute hepatitis caused by Wilson’s disease cannot be distinguished from other forms of acute hepatitis, so you shoud treat empircally.

don’t wait for labs to come back. might be too late.

106
Q

A young person presents with with severe, coombs-negative hemolytic anemia, renal failure, acute liver disease, and ALP WNL. What do you do?

A

Treat empirically with penacilamine/Trientine. This pt might have Wilson’s disease.

107
Q

Wat dis?

A

cirrhotic liver

108
Q

Histologically, a cirrhotic liver will have ____ and ______

A

Histologically, a cirrhotic liver will have fibrosis and nodular changes

109
Q

Normal portal vein pressure is ___ mmHg. Clinically significant portal HTN occurs at >__ mmHG. Cirrhosis increases resistance to flow through the hepatic sinusoids.

A

Normal portal vein pressure is 5-6 mmHg. Clinically significant portal HTN occurs at >10 mmHG. Cirrhosis increases resistance to flow through the hepatic sinusoids.

110
Q

____ is the most common complication of cirrhosis, and it is associated with a ____ prognosis

A

Ascites is the most common complication of cirrhosis, and it is associated with a poor prognosis

(5 year mortality = 70%)

111
Q

Ascites results from cirrhosis via 2 mechanisms

  1. ???
  2. Intrahepatic resistance increases sinusoidal pressure and forces liquid out via increased hydrostatic pressure.
A

Ascites results from cirrhosis via 2 mechanisms

  1. A NO mediated mechanism causes splanchnic vasodilation –> effective low blood volume –> activation of RAAS –> Na/H2O retention
  2. Intrahepatic resistance increases sinusoidal pressure and forces liquid out via increased hydrostatic pressure.
112
Q

Ascites results from cirrhosis via 2 mechanisms

  1. A NO mediated mechanism causes splanchnic vasodilation –> effective low blood volume –> activation of RAAS –> Na/H2O retention
  2. ???
A

Ascites results from cirrhosis via 2 mechanisms

  1. A NO mediated mechanism causes splanchnic vasodilation –> effective low blood volume –> activation of RAAS –> Na/H2O retention
  2. Intrahepatic resistance increases sinusoidal pressure and forces liquid out via increased hydrostatic pressure.
113
Q

If you’re patient looks like this guy, it’s probably ascites. You should (imaging) to confirm the increased girth is fluid. To confirm the ascites is 2/2 cirrhosis, calculate a _____. A ___ >___ is sensitive for cirrhosis.

A

If you’re patient looks like this guy, it’s probably ascites. You should u/s to confirm the increased girth is fluid. To confirm the ascites is 2/2 cirrhosis, calculate a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG). A SAAG >1.1 is sensitive for cirrhosis.

114
Q

___ is a serious complication of cirrhosis. Patients with ascites and total protein <__ have a higher risk for developing ___. A PMN count >___cells/ul and positive culture confirms ___

A

Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of cirrhosis. Patients with ascites and total protein <1.5 have a higher risk for developing SBP. A PMN count >___cells/ul and positive culture confirms SBP

115
Q

Treatment for ascites is a fail first strategy:

  1. ???
  2. spironolactole+furosemide
  3. ???
  4. TIPS
A

Treatment for ascites is a fail first strategy:

  1. sodium restriction <2000mg/day
  2. spironolactole+furosemide
  3. large volume pericentesis
  4. TIPS
116
Q

Treatment for ascites is a fail first strategy:

  1. sodium restriction <2000mg/day
  2. ???
  3. large volume pericentesis
  4. ???
A

Treatment for ascites is a fail first strategy:

  1. sodium restriction <2000mg/day
  2. spironolactole+furosemide
  3. large volume pericentesis
  4. TIPS
117
Q

Some conditions associated with ascites are (3 things). The scariest is ___

A

Some conditions associated with ascites are hyponatremia, umbilical hernia, and hepatic hydrothorax. The scariest is SBP

118
Q

SBP presents with (4 things). You can diagnose it with PMN count >___/uL in ascitic fluid. Treat with (drug).

A

SBP presents with fever, abdominal pain, decline in renal function, and encephalopathy. You can diagnose it with PMN count >250/uL in ascitic fluid. Treat with IV 3rd gen cephalosporin.

119
Q

Varices occur at portal pressure >__mmHg and bleed at >__mmHg. Large varces with _____ markings are at highest risk of bleeding. High risk varices can be ligated. Otherwise, treat w/ (drug).

A

Varices occur at portal pressure >10mmHg and bleed at >12mmHg. Large varces with red wale markings are at highest risk of bleeding. High risk varices can be ligated. Otherwise, treat w/ prophylactic non-selective beta blockers like propanolol and nadolol.

  • beta-1 action slows heart rate –> decreases CO*
  • beta-2 action vasoconstricts vessels in splanchnic system*
120
Q

Which grade of hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by euphoria/depression, mild confusion, slurred speach, disordered sleep, variable presence of asterixis, and normal EEG?

A

Grade 1

121
Q

Which grade of hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by moderate confusion, lethargy, asterixis, and abnormal EEG?

A

Grade 2

122
Q

Which grade of hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by marked confusion, incoherence, sleeping but arousable, asterixis, and abnormal EEG?

A

Grade 3

123
Q

Which grade of hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by coma?

A

Grade 4

124
Q

To treat hepatic encephalopathy, first find the underlying cause and treat that (eg. CHING: ???.)

Can also give (drug) to acidify the colon and reduce NH3 absorption. Works on assumption that hep. encephalopathy results from ammonia accumulation. (drug) is another drug to reduce ammonia, but it is hella expensive.

A

To treat hepatic encephalopathy, first find the underlying cause and treat that (eg. CHING: infection, hyponatremia, GI bleeding, noncompliance, CNS meds)

Can also give lactulose to acidify the colon and reduce NH3 absorption. Works on assumption that hep. encephalopathy results from ammonia accumulation. Rifaximin is another drug to reduce ammonia, but it is hella expensive.

125
Q

______ are the most common benign tumor of the liver. They are usually diagnosed radiographically. They are composed of vascular lining, and if they are large, the might be resected to prevent bleeding.

A

Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumor of the liver

126
Q

Focal nodular hyperplasia is the ____ most common benign lesion. They predominantly affect (gender). Grossly, they have a ____. The proliferation is reactive and so has ____ risk of malignancy. Histology shows ______

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia is the second most common benign lesion. They predominantly affect women. Grossly, they have a central stellate scar. The proliferation is reactive and so has zero risk of malignancy. Histology shows bland hepatocytes, big vessels, and disorganized bile ducts

127
Q

Hepatocellular adenoma is a benign tumor that affects more (gender). However, (gender) are more likely to have a beta catenin mutation that increases risk of malignancy.

A

Hepatocellular adenoma is a benign tumor that affects more women than men. However, men are more likely to have a beta catenin mutation that increases risk of malignancy.

128
Q

Hepatocellular adenoma is associated with ______ and sometimes ______ derrangement.

A

Hepatocellular adenoma is associated with exogenous hormone use (eg. oral contraceptives) and sometimes metabolic derrangement.

129
Q

On histology, Hepatocellular adeoma has ___ hepatocytes with no ____. You’ll just see unpaired arteries.

A

On histology, Hepatocellular adeoma has bland hepatocytes with no bile ducts.

130
Q

The most common malignant tumor of the liver is…

A

mets from a primary in another organ, esp colon cancer

131
Q

Hepatocelluar carcinoma is almost always associated with _____. Patients will have elevated (lab). The most common molecular alterations are __ and ______. On histology, will see _____ hepatocytes with funky looking ____. You can treat with resection, ablation, or transplant, but the bigger the lesion, the worse the prognosis.

A

Hepatocelluar carcinoma is almost always associated with back ground liver disease, esp. hepatitis. Patients will have elevated alpha fetal protein. The most common molecular alterations are TP53 and beta-catenin. On histology, will see thickened plates of hepatocytes with funky looking nuclei. You can treat with resection, ablation, or transplant, but the bigger the lesion, the worse the prognosis.

132
Q

malignant tumors of the liver usually occur in adults over age ___

A

malignant tumors of the liver usually occur in adults over age 60

133
Q

Patients with ___ are at high risk for developing cholangeocarcinoma, but a minority of patients with cholangiocarcinoma have ___

A

Patients with PSC are at high risk for developing cholangeocarcinoma, but a minority of patients with cholangiocarcinoma have PSC

134
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma has a lot of disorganized _____ on histology with prominent ____. The most common molecular alterations are ____ or ____. Treatment includes ______ or _____ ______, but prognosis is poor.

A

Cholangiocarcinoma has a lot of disorganized glands on histology with prominent stroma. The most common molecular alterations are KRAS or IDH1. Treatment includes resection or systemic therapy, but prognosis is poor.

135
Q

Angiosarcomas occur predominantly in (gender) and are exceedingly rare. They associated w/ exposure to ___ and ______. On histology, it looks like a bunch of _______ The most common molecular mutation is ___. There is ____ therapy.

A

Angiosarcomas occur predominantly in men and are exceedingly rare. They associated w/ exposure to vinyl chloride (e.g. factory work) and thorotrast. On histology, it looks like a bunch of ugly disorganized blood vessels. The most common molecular mutation is p53. There is no effective therapy.

136
Q

The indications for liver transplant are

A. ???

B. ???

C. ???

Hope to help patients live longer with better liver function

A

The indications for liver transplant are

A. decompensation from chronic liver disease

B. acute liver failure

C. hepatic malignancy

Hope to help patients live longer with better liver function

137
Q

The priority for liver transplant goes to the sickest person who has been waiting the longest. Committee also considers _____ and ____.

ethical principle of justince

A

The priority for liver transplant goes to the sickest person who has been waiting the longest. Committee also considers co-morbidities and psychosocial stability.

ethical principle of justince

138
Q

The greatest chance of rejection of a transplanted liver occurs ???

A

The greatest chance of rejection of a transplanted liver occurs in the first year

139
Q
A