Liver & Co. Flashcards

1
Q

what are the fat soluble vitamins?

A

A, D, E, K

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2
Q

name 3 functions of phase I reactions in liver detoxification?

A
  • inactivate drugs
  • further activate drugs
  • activate drug from pro-drug
  • make a drug into a reactive intermediate
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3
Q

What is the purpose of phase 1 reactions?

A

addition / exposure of a reactive site that can be used for conjugation reactions in phase 2 (functionalisation)

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4
Q

what are phase 1 reactions catalysed by?

A

cytochrome P450 enzymes

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5
Q

what is the purpose of phase II reactions?

A

to increase the hydrophilicity of the drug for renal excretion

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6
Q

what is the general mechanism for phase II reactions?

A

They are conjugation reactions.

Attachment of substituent groups, reaction catalysed by transferases.

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7
Q

what type of reactions take place during phase I reactions?

A

oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis

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8
Q

what is the function of albumin?

A

binding and transport of large hydrophobic compounds e.g bilirubin

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9
Q

what clotting factors does the liver not produce?

A

calcium and von Willebrand factor

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10
Q

what clotting factors need Vitamin K for their synthesis?

A

10, 9, 7, 2 (1972)

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11
Q

what is the role of complement factors?

A

plasma protein which opsonizes

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12
Q

what is a portal tract

A

contains branches of portal veins, arteries and bile duct

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13
Q

what are sinusoids?

A

highly specialised blood vessels that permits the exchange of material within blood

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14
Q

what are the stem cells in the liver known as

A

hepatic stellate cells

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15
Q

what are Kupffer cells

A

resident macrophage in the liver

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16
Q

what is the space of Disse

A

space between the vascular endothelial cells of the sinusoid and the hepatocyte (perisinusoidal space)

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17
Q

what is the path from synthesis to storage of bile?

A
  • hepatocytes synthesise bile
  • bile drains into the canaliculi which lie inbetween individual hepatocytes
  • then into bile ductules
  • then to bile ducts
  • if bile does not pass straight into the duodenum then it is stored in the gallbladder.
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18
Q

what attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall

A

falciform ligament

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19
Q

what is the bare area of the liver

A

large area on diaphragmatic surface of liver that is directly attached to the diaphragm

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20
Q

what are the lobes of the liver

A

right lobe
left lobe
caudate lobe
quadrate lobe

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21
Q

what is the anatomy of the biliary tree

A
  1. Right and left hepatic ducts join to form the common hepatic duct
  2. The cystic duct is comes from the gallbladder and joins the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct
  3. Pancreatic duct joins onto the common bile duct to form ampulla of Vater
  4. Bile duct enters the descending part of the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla (where the ampulla of Vater is located )
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22
Q

what are the contents of bile?

A
  • bicarbonate ions
  • cholesterol
  • lecithin
  • bile pigments
  • bile salts
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23
Q

what is bile used for?

A

the emulsification and absorption of fats in the the duodenum

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24
Q

what is the predominant bile pigment

A

bilirubin - a yellow substance resulting from heme breakdown

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25
Q

Outline bilirubin metabolism

A
  1. RBC are produced in bone marrow by erythropoesis
  2. when RBC become damaged/old macrophages in the spleen/bone marrow engulf and degrade them
  3. Hb molecule released
  4. Hb breaks down into heme and globin
  5. Heme is metabolised into Fe2+ and BILIVERDIN (green pigment)
  6. Biliverdin is rapidly reduced into UNCONJUGATED BILIRUBIN (UCB)
  7. UCB is yellow, toxic and lipid soluble
  8. UCB binds to albumin and is transported to the liver
  9. UCB enters the liver and undergoes a conjugation reaction with glucoronic acid to become CONJUGATED BILIRUBIN which is water soluble
  10. conjugated bilirubin can be excreted by the liver in bile through the common bile duct
  11. Conjugated bilirubin travels through the SI to the LI
  12. Colonic bacteria in the LI converts conjugated bilirubin to UROBILINOGEN which is lipid soluble
  13. 10-15% of urobilinogen is reabsorbed by the blood and taken back to the liver. 5% transported to kidneys and converted to yellow UROBILIN which is excreted in urine
  14. 85-90% of urobilinogen is oxidised by other intestinal bacteria to STERCOBILIN which is a brown coloured pigment that colours the feces
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26
Q

what is the general aetiology behind jaundice?

A

excess bilirubin in the plasma

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27
Q

what are the three different classifications of jaundice?

A
  • Prehepatic
  • Hepatic
  • Post hepatic
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28
Q

what is the pathology of pre-hepatic jaundice

A

produced by conditions where there is an excessive breakdown of erythrocytes (increased rate of haemolysis) which overwhelms the livers ability to conjugate

there is excess unconjugated bilirubin in the plasma

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29
Q

3 conditions that can cause pre-hepatic jaundice?

A
  • malaria
  • sickle cell
  • thalassaemia
  • Gilbert’s syndrome
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30
Q

what is the pathology of hepatic jaundice?

A

biochemical reactions converting fat soluble into water soluble bilirubin may be affected by inflammatory change within the liver or necrosis

There is a build up of conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin in the blood (cannot conjugate as not enough cells, plus inflammation/cirrhosis may compress the intra-hepatic portions of the biliary tree causing some obstruction in excretion)

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31
Q

Name 3 causes of hepatic jaundice?

A

hepatitis
alcoholic liver disease
drug misuse (paracetamol overdoes)
primary biliary cirrhosis

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32
Q

what is the pathology behind posthepatic jaundice?

A

any obstruction of the biliary tree can produce jaundice

increase in conjugated bilirubin

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33
Q

3 causes of post hepatic jaundice?

A

gallstones
pancreatic cancer in the head of the pancreas (an obstructing tumour)
gallbladder / bile duct cancer

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34
Q

what are the features of pre-hepatic jaundice on the bowel

?

A

normal stools and urine

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35
Q

what are the features of hepatic jaundice?

A
  • raised bilirubin in urine
  • dark coloured urine
  • normal stools
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36
Q

what are the features of post hepatic jaundice?

A

dark urine
pale stools

Conjugated bilirubin is water soluble, so is excreted in urine and makes it dark. Less conjugated bilirubin enters the gut and faeces become pale.

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37
Q

What are the general clinical features of jaundice?

A

Yellow skin and sclerae

Itching

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38
Q

Investigations in jaundice patients

A

Underlying cause can be elicited from the history.

Liver Function Tests
Bilirubin
Albumin (marker of liver synthesis function)
AST and ALT (markers of hepatocellular inkjury)
Alkaline Phosphatase (raised in biliary obstruction)

Coagulation studies (prothrombin time can be used as a marker of liver synthesis function)

FBC (anaemia, raised MCV and thrombocytopenia seen in liver disease)

Ultrasound 
Dilated bile ducts?
Gallstones?
Hepatic metastases?
Pancreatic mass?

MR Cholangiopancreatography used to visualise biliary tree in obstructive jaundice if US abdomen was inconclusive or limited.

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39
Q

Treatment of jaundice

A

Definitive treatment depends on the underlying cause

Symptomatic treatment is often needed for itching e.g antihistamines if not post-hepatic

Broad spectrum antibiotics if obstruction

Hydration

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40
Q

what are the functions of the liver?

A

Protein synthesis
Detoxification and excretion
Glucose and fat metabolism
Defence against infection (reticuloendothelial system)

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41
Q

how is liver injury classified and what does each entail?

A
  • Acute (direct hit to the liver resulting in acute hepatocyte injury and death)
  • Chronic (if the liver injury persists for more than 6 months. Can cause scarring and fibrosis which has the potential to result in liver failure)
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42
Q

Name three causes of acute liver injury?

A
  • Viral hepatitis (A, B)
  • EBV
  • Glandular fever
  • Drugs
  • Alcohol
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43
Q

Name three causes of chronic liver injury?

A
  • Autoimmune hepatitis
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
  • Haemochromatosis
  • Alcohol
  • Viral hepatitis
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44
Q

Presentation of acute liver injury?

A
  • malaise
  • nausea
  • anorexia
  • jaundice
  • sometimes liver pain
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45
Q

If the liver is inflamed where does pain radiate?

A

Right shoulder as inflammation of the liver may cause irritation to the diaphragm (phrenic nerve)

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46
Q

Presentation of chronic liver injury?

A
  • peripheral oedema which can lead to ascites
  • upper GI bleed
  • Malaise, anorexia
  • Wasting
  • Bruising
  • Itching
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Extensive spider naevus
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47
Q

what three liver function tests give index about liver function? What do they each mean?

A

Serum bilirubin

  • usually all unconjugated
  • in liver disease increased serum bilirubin

Serum albumin
- marker of synthetic function of the liver and useful for estimating the severity of chronic liver disease

Prothrombin Time
- marker of synthetic function of the liver

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48
Q

What are the liver function tests that give NO index of liver function?

A

serum liver enzymes

  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Gamma-GT
  • Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
  • Aspartate aminotransferases (AST)
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49
Q

what can an elevated Alk Phos show?

A
  • May originate from the liver, bone or placenta
  • Usually raised due to a disorder of the bone or liver
  • Raised levels can also occur with hepatic infiltrations e.g mets
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50
Q

where is gamma-GT present in the body?

A

liver, pancres, renal tubules and intestine

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51
Q

what 2 other factors may be present which make it more likely that an elevated alkaline phosphate is caused by the liver?

A
  • Raised Gamma-GT

- Other raised liver function tests (serum albumin, bilirubin, prothrombin time)

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52
Q

when are transaminase enzymes seen in the blood?

A

usually these enzymes are contained in hepatocytes and leak into the blood with hepatocellular injury

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53
Q

when does liver failure occur?

A

when the liver loses the ability to regenerate or repair so that decompensation occurs.

Can be acute or chronic

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54
Q

causes of liver failure?

A
Infections 
Viral hepatitis (B and C) 
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein Barr Virus 
Herpes Simplex Virus 
Drugs 
Paracetamol
Alcohol
Anti-depressant (amitriptyline) 
NSAIDs
Cocaine
Antibiotics 

Toxins

Vascular
Budd Chiari Syndrome

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55
Q

What is Budd Chiari Syndrome

A

Hepatic vein obstruction by thrombosis or tumour causes conjestive ischaemia and hepatocyte damage

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56
Q

Signs of liver failure

A
Hepatic encephalopathy 
Jaundice
Abnormal bleeding: variceal bleeding 
Small liver 
Fever
Vomiting 
Cerebral oedema
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57
Q

Why does liver failure cause encephalopathy?

Why can it also cause cerebral oedema?

A

ammonia builds up in the circulation and passes to brain. Ammonia = neurotoxic so can cause permanent brain damage. Stops the Kreb’s cycle causing neural cell death.

Astrocytes clear the ammonia to produce glutamine. Excess glutamine causes osmotic imbalance and cerebral oedema

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58
Q

What are the stages of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

I - sleep disturbance
II - drowsiness, confusion, behaviour change
III - restless, liver flap
IV - coma

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59
Q

Investigations in Liver Failure?

A

Bedside test for encephalopathy:

  • Serial 7s
  • Spell WORLD backwards
  • Count as many animals in 1 min
  • Draw a 5 pointed star
  • Number connection test

Liver Function Tests

  • Hyperbilirubinemia
  • High serum ALT, AST
  • Low coagulation factors (raised prothrombin time)
  • Hypoalbuminemia

Bloods
High ammonia levels

Imaging
US - liver size
CXR
Doppler ultrasound to see hepatic vein patency

Microbiology (to rule out infection)
Blood culture
Urine culture
Ascitic tap

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60
Q

Management of liver failure?

A

Beware of sepsis, hypoglycaemia, GI bleeds.

Treat the underlying cause if known

Administer IV glucose if needed

Mineral supplements (calcium, potassium, phosphate)

Thiamine and folate supplements

Manage coagulopathy with IV Vitamin K, platelets, blood or fresh frozen plasma

Consider omeprazole as prophylaxis against ulceration and GI bleeds

Liaise with transplant centre

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61
Q

what is acute-on-chronic liver failure

A

acute decompensation of the liver caused by a failure of the liver to compensate for the functional overload resulting from the chronic liver disease

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62
Q

what is fulminant hepatic failure?

A

clinical syndrome defined as the rapid development of acute liver injury with severe impairment of the synthetic function and hepatic encephalopathy in a patient without obvious, previous liver disease

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63
Q

aetiology (3 causes) of fulminant hepatic failure?

A

drug induced liver failure (commonly paracetamol)
Viral hepatitis (B)
Vascular (Budd-Chiari Syndrome)
Wilson’s disease (rare)

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64
Q

name 2 mechanisms by which drugs can cause liver damage?

A
  1. disruption of intracellular Ca2+ homeostasis
  2. Disruption of bile canalicular transport mechanisms
  3. Induction of apoptosis
  4. Inhibition of mitochondrial function, prevents fatty acid metabolism and accumulation of ROS
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65
Q

if they are going to, what is the time frame that drugs usually cause drug induced liver damage?

A

1-12 weeks

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66
Q

name two antibiotics known to cause jaundice?

A

Augmentin
Flucloxacillin
Erythromycin

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67
Q

pathophysiology of paracetamol overdose

A
  • Too much paracetamol
  • Increase in the cytochrome P450 metabolism pathway
  • Increase in NAPQI
  • Insufficient amount of glutathione stores
  • Increase in unconjugated NAPQI which binds to hepatic macromolecules causing hepatocyte injury
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68
Q

Symptoms of paracetamol overdose?

A

Asymptomatic for the first 24 hours

Anorexia 
Nausea
Vomiting 
RUQ pain
Jaundice
Encephalopathy
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69
Q

Treatment for paracetamol overdose?

A

Activated charcoal for gastric decontamination

N acetyl Cysteine (NAC) to replenish glutathione stores

Supportive treatment

Liver transplant if severe

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70
Q

Pathophysiology of biliary colic

A

Temporary, severe abdominal pain caused by gallstones becoming lodged in the bile ducts.

After a meal, gallbladder contracts ejecting the gallstone into the cystic duct where it becomes stuck. Gallbladder continues to contract against the lodged gallstone. Can cause sudden, dull pain in the RUQ.

After 6 hours the gallstone usually dislodges, rolls back into the gallbladder and pain subsides

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71
Q

Aetiology of biliary colic (name 3)

A
Gallstones 
Narrow Bile Duct 
Pancreatitis
Duodenitis 
Oesophageal spasms
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72
Q

name 4 risk factors that increase likelihood of developing gallstones

A

Fat
Female
Fertile
Forty

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73
Q

Symptoms of biliary colic

A

Sudden DULL pain in the RUQ which can radiate to the right shoulder

  • Usually comes on after a meal or at night when lying flat
  • Severity increases for 15 minutes then plateaus for 6 hours

Nausea
Vomiting
Sweating
Anorexia (because pain is so bad after eating)

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74
Q

Investigations and diagnosis of biliary colic

A

Diagnosis is based on recurring symptoms

Ultrasound of RUQ can show an obstruction

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75
Q

Treatment of biliary colic

A

Analgesic to manage pain and symptoms e.g opioid such as morphine

Cholecystectomy

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76
Q

what is a complication of biliary colic?

A

if the gallstone does not dislodge and stays in the cystic duct for prolonged periods of time it can lead to acute cholecystitis

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77
Q

what is cholecystitis defined as?

A

inflammation of the gallbladder

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78
Q

Pathology of acute cholecystitis

A

Person has gallstones in gallbladder
Small intestine secretes CCK → bloodstream → constricts the gallbladder to secrete bile
Gallbladder constricts
Gallstone becomes stuck in cystic duct, blocking the flow of bile
Gall bladder stretches and irritates the nerves of the gallbladder and cystic duct
Bile is in a state of stasis as it cannot exit the gallbladder.
Bile irritates the mucosa in the walls of the gallbladder to start secreting mucus and inflammatory enzymes which results in inflammation, distension and increasing pressure.

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79
Q

Name three possible progressions from acute cholecystitis

A
  1. Stone falls out of cystic duct and symptoms subside
  2. Pressure in gallbladder continues to increase, constricting the blood vessels which supply it. Leads to ischaemia and gangrenous cell death. Gallbladder has potential to rupture causing biliary peritonitis or sepsis.
  3. Gallstone can get stuck further down the common bile duct. Block the flow of bile out of the liver. Increase in conjugated bilirubin in blood which can cause jaundice.
  4. Cholangitis (bacterial growth)
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80
Q

aetiology of acute cholecystitis

A

gallstones stuck in cystic duct

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81
Q

Symptoms of acute cholecystitis

A
  • Midepigastric pain
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Anorexia
  • Jaundice
  • Low grade fever
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82
Q

Signs of acute cholecystitis? What is involved in each of these tests?

A
  • Blumberg’s sign / rebound tenderness (RUQ pain when pressure is RELEASED from the abdomen)
  • Positive Murphy’s sign (examiner places hand below the right costal margin after patient has exhaled- if patient suddenly stops breathing in due to the pain then this confirms diagnosis)
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83
Q

Investigations used in acute cholecystitis

What does each test show

A

Murphy’s sign

Imaging

  • US : detect stones, gallbladder wall thickening, sludge (build up of substances in the gallbladder), distension of gallbladder or bile duct
  • Cholescintigraphy : radiolabelled marker used to visualise the biliary system
  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
  • MRCP to visualise biliary tree

LFTS

  • Elevated ALP
  • Elevated leukocyte count due to inflammation and CRP
  • Raised serum bilirubin
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84
Q

Treatment options for acute cholecystitis

A

In 90% of cases the gallstone dislodges

Supportive :
IV fluids
Pain management (opiates)
IV antibiotics

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

Stone dissolution : for (near) pure cholesterol stones can give oral ursodeoxycholic acid

Shock wave lithotripsy : shock wave directed onto gallbladder stones to turn them into fragments so they can be passed

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85
Q

Pathology of chronic cholecystitis

A

Constant state of gallbladder inflammation caused by recurrent obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone.

Chronic inflammation changes the gallbladder wall structure - damage to the epithelial cells. Can also lead to deep grooves and pockets of mucosa

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86
Q

What complication can arise due to chronic cholecystitis

A

Can lead to fibrosis and calcification of the epithelial tissue → porcelain gallbladder.
Gallbladder becomes hard and brittle with a bluish discolouration

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87
Q

Why is there calcification of the gallbladder in chronic cholecystitis

A

Calcification is caused by bile stasis, may cause calcium carbonate bile salts to precipitate out and deposit into walls.

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88
Q

Aetiology of chronic cholecystitis

A

Constant state of inflammation caused by recurrent obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone

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89
Q

Symptoms of chronic cholecystitis

A
  • Midepigastric pain (DULL pain radiating to the right shoulder)
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Anorexia
  • Jaundice
  • Low grade fever
  • Distension
  • Flatulence
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90
Q

Signs of chronic cholecystitis

A

Blumberg’s sign

Positive Murphy’s sign

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91
Q

Investigations in chronic cholecystitis

A

Murphy’s sign

Imaging
US - sonographic murphy’s sign, detect stones, gallbladder wall thickening, sludge, distension

Cholescintigraphy : radiolabelled marker used to visualise the biliary system, if there is blocked duct the gallbladder cannot be seen.

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92
Q

Treatment of chronic cholecystitis

A

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

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93
Q

Aetiology of gallstones (name three causes)

A

Obesity
Rapid weight loss: imbalance in bile composition leads to increased risk of calcium-bilirubin precipitation
Diabetes mellitus
Oral contraceptive pill : increase in oestrogen leads to an increase in bile and bile hypomotility
Liver cirrhosis

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94
Q

Risk factors (name 5) for developing gallstones

A
Female
Fat
Forty
Fertile 
Smoking 
OCP 
Rapid weight loss
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95
Q

How are cholesterol stones made and what features do they have

A
  • Cholesterol crystallisation in bile due to either a relative deficiency in bile salts and phospholipids or excess cholesterol (diabetes or hypercholesteraemia)
  • not visible on X-ray
  • Large, solitary
  • Mainly cholesterol
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96
Q

What are two features of pigment gallstones ?

A
  • small stones
  • friable
  • can be seen on X-ray
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97
Q

How are black pigment stones formed

A

excessive haemolysis leads to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin. Unconjugated bilirubin binds to calcium and precipitates out to form black pigment stones.

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98
Q

How are brown pigment stones formed

A

Caused by a gallbladder/biliary infection. Infectious organisms bring hydrolytic enzymes which hydrolyze conjugated bilirubin and phospholipids. Combines with calcium ions and precipitate out to form stones.

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99
Q

name one common infections that can cause brown pigment stone formation

A

E. coli

Ascaris lumbricoides

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100
Q

complications that can be caused by gallstones

A

Cholecystitis
Ascending cholangitis
Blockage of common, pancreatic bile ducts
Gallbladder cancer

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101
Q

Symptoms of gallstones

A

May be asymptomatic

Sudden, intense abdominal epigastric pain that radiates to the right shoulder

Nausea, vomiting, jaundice, abdominal tenderness, distension, fever, chills, flatulence

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102
Q

What are the treatment options for gallstones?

A

Only if symptomatic!

Medial : bile salts to dissolve cholesterol stones

Surgery : cholecystectomy

Pain management

Lithotripsy

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103
Q

Investigations in suspected gallstones

A

Ultrasound

LFTs
Elevated bilirubin
Raised GGT, ALP, ALT and AST

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104
Q

what is ascending cholangitis

A

inflammation of the bile ducts from a bacterial infection

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105
Q

Pathology of ascending cholangitis

A

Flow of bile is blocked due to gallstones or a stricture

Bacteria can make its way from the duodenum up the bile duct and colonise the biliary system. Bacteria can continue to ascend and infect the stagnant bile as well as the surrounding tissue

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106
Q

Complications that can arise from ascending cholangitis?

Why?

A
  • sepsis –> multi organ failure

Bile duct is under high pressure from the obstruction. Can cause the spaces between the cells lining the ducts to widen, allowing the bacteria and bile to enter the bloodstream

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107
Q

Aetiology of ascending cholangitis

A

E. coli
Klebsiella
Enterococcus

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108
Q

Symptoms of ascending cholangitis

A

Biliary colic

Charcot’s triad
Fever
RUQ pain
Jaundice (dark urine and pale stools)

Reynold’s pentad
Charcot’s triad
Hypotension (caused by septic shock)
Confusion (caused by decreased blood flow to the brain)

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109
Q

Investigations in ascending cholangitis

A

Blood tests :
Increased WBC (FBC)
Increased CRP

LFTs
Elevated

Imaging

  • Ultrasound
  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
  • Abdomen CT can exclude carcinoma of the pancreas and makes it easier to spot pigmented stones causing an obstruction
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110
Q

What is an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography?

A

Endoscope placed through mouth until get to the ampulla of Vater

Insert a cannula into the biliary tree and inject contrast material

X-rays taken to study the biliary tree

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111
Q

What is the management plan and the treatment options in ascending cholangitis?

A

Rehydration

IV antibiotics : piperacillin-tazobactam

Remove obstruction : ERCP, shockwave lithotripsy

Widen ducts with a stent if a stricture is the cause

Cholecystectomy is recommended to avoid future gallstone complications

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112
Q

What are the functions of the pancreas?

A

Endocrine : secrete glucagon and insulin

Exocrine: make digestive enzymes that are secreted into the duodenum and break down macromolecules. Made and stored as zymogens and activated by proteases.

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113
Q

what is acute pancreatitis

A

sudden inflammation and haemorrhaging of the pancreas

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114
Q

Name two risk factors for developing acute pancreatitis

A

Female

Smoking

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115
Q

Pathology of acute pancreatitis

A

Caused by destructive effect of premature activation of pancreatic enzymes which causes pancreatic inflammation by the enzyme mediated autodigestion.

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116
Q

aetiology of acute pancreatitis - name 5 causes

A

I GET SMASHED

Idiopathic 
GALLSTONES
ETHANOL ABUSE 
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps 
Autoimmune
Scorpion sting
Hypertriglyceridemia and hypercalcaemia 
ERCP 
Drugs
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117
Q

how does alcohol abuse lead to acute pancreatitis?

A
  • alcohol increases zymogen secretion from acinar cells and decreases fluid and bicarbonate production from the ductal epithelial cells
  • pancreatic juices become very thick –> potential blockage of pancreatic duct
  • distension of pancreatic duct
  • due to distension zymogen granules fuse with lysosomes bringing trypsinogen into contact with lysosomal digestive enzymes leading to autodigestion of the pancreas
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118
Q

how do gallstones lead to acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Gallstone stuck in the sphincter of Oddi
  • Blocks the release of pancreatic juices
  • Intracellular Ca2+ increases and causes the early activation of trypsinogen
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119
Q

What complications can arise from acute pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic pseudocysts (form due to fibrous tissue surrounding the liquefactive necrotic tissue)
Haemorrhage
DIC
ARDS

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120
Q

Symptoms of acute pancreatitis

A
Nausea 
Vomiting 
Umbilical and flank bruising 
Upper abdominal pain, radiation to the back which may be relieved by sitting forwards
Anorexia 
Jaundice
Fever
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121
Q

Signs of acute pancreatitis

A

Hypocalcemia
Cullen’s sign (periumbilical region bruising caused as necrosis induced haemorrhaging spreads to soft tissue )
Grey Turner’s sign ; bruising around the flank
Abdominal pain, palpable tender mass
Dehydration
Hypotension
Tachycardia

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122
Q

Investigations for acute pancreatitis

A

Pain in epigastric region that radiates to back

Blood tests
Increase in serum amylase
Raised serum lipase

CT Scan of abdomen
Visualisation of inflammation, necrosis, pseudocysts

Ultrasound : looking for gallstones which may be the cause

Pancreatic scoring systems e.g APACHE II to assess severity

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123
Q

Treatment / management for acute pancreatitis?

A

Assess severity!

IV morphine

Hydration

Electrolytes

Nasogastric tube for dietary supplements to rest the bowels.

Urinary catheter

Treat any complications
Oxygen therapy
Antibiotics

If pancreatic necrosis suspected consider a laparotomy and debridement

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124
Q

what is chronic pancreatitis?

A

chronic, persistent inflammation of the pancreas often due to repeated episodes of acute pancreatitis

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125
Q

pathophysiology of chronic pancreatitis

A

Repeated episodes of acute pancreatitis lead to healthy pancreatic tissue being replaced by misshapen ducts, fibrinolytic tissue lay down by stellate cells and calcium deposits (these are caused by alcohol acute pancreatitis)

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126
Q

Aetiology of chronic pancreatits? (Name 5 causes) `

A
LONG TERM ALCOHOL EXCESS
Recurrent acute pancreatitis
Autoimmune
Smoking 
Cystic Fibrosis
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127
Q

Clinical presentation of chronic pancreatitis

A
Pain in epigastric region 
- Can radiate to back 
- Often lasts for hours
- May be linked to meals
- May be relieved by sitting forwards or hot water bottles on the epigastric region/back 
Bloating 
Steatorrhoea 
Weight loss
Nausea
Vomiting 
Symptoms relapse and worsen
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128
Q

Investigations in chronic pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic biopsy

  • Dilatation of pancreatic ducts
  • Acinar cell atrophy
  • Fibrosis
  • Chronic inflammatory infiltrate
  • Calcifications
Imaging 
- Abdominal XRays 
- Abdominal CT
- Abdominal US 
- MRCP
May show calcifications with confirm diagnosis
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129
Q

Treatment / management for chronic pancreatitis

A

Analgesics for pain relief (coeliac plexus block)

No alcohol

Low fat diet

Give fat soluble vitamins and lipase

Insulin needs may be high or variable - beware of hypoglycaemia

Surgery is indicated in those with unremitting pain, narcotic abuse and weight loss e.g pancreatectomy or pancreaticojejunostomy

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130
Q

What is the pathology behind alcoholic liver disease?

A

Alcohol excess leads to increased metabolism via the alcohol dehydrogenase pathway to produce more acetaldehyde.

Causes increased fat production and abnormal lipid retention in the hepatocytes (steatosis) which leads to fatty liver.

Also form reactive oxygen species which lead to tissue injury and fibrosis.

Acetaldehyde can bind to macromolecules which the immune system recognises and attacks, sparking an immune response and causing alcohol hepatitis.

Continued alcohol excess can lead to cirrhosis.

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131
Q

What are the stages of alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • Normal liver
  • Steatosis (abnormal retention of lipids in hepatocytes)
  • Fatty liver
  • Alcoholic hepatitis (immune response, neutrophils destroy the hepatocytes)
  • Cirrhosis
  • Liver failure
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132
Q

Is there any point in the course of alcoholic liver disease that you can reverse the effects?

A

In the fatty liver stage, if you abstain from alcohol you can reverse the effects of fatty liver at this stage

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133
Q

What are mallory bodies?

A

Accumulation of protein bundles that are located in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes

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134
Q

What are 3 risk factors for developing alcoholic liver disease?

A
EXCESSIVE ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION (binging) 
Glycogen storage disease 
Female 
Acute fatty liver during pregnancy
Malnutrition
Obesity 
HIV 
Hepatitis C
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135
Q

What happens when alcohol directly affects the stellate cells in the liver?

A

transformed into collagen producing myofibroblast cells

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136
Q

What is the clinical presentation of fatty liver?

A

Asymptomatic
May be some nonspecific abdominal symptoms e.g nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea due to the general effects of alcohol on GI tract

137
Q

what is the clinical presentation of alcoholic liver disease?

A
Fatigue 
Malaise
Dull RUQ pain 
Anorexia
Bleeding 
Mild jaundice (rarely presents) 
Bruising
Other than that, patients may appear well with only a few of the above. 

Ascites, hepatomegaly seen if there is significant damage in severe cases

May be features of alcohol dependency

138
Q

What investigations would do in alcoholic liver disease?

A

Ultrasound
Blood tests (LFTs, FBC)
Liver biopsy

139
Q

What would you see on ultrasound for each of the following stages of alcoholic liver disease:

  1. Steatosis?
  2. Fibrosis?
  3. Cirrhosis ?
A
  1. bright liver
  2. coarse echo pattern
  3. nodules and an irregular outline of the liver pattern
140
Q

What will the LFTs show in someone with alcoholic liver disease?

What other results may show from other blood tests i.e FBC?

A

Raised AST and ALT (AST > ALT)
Elevated GGT
Elevated Alk Phos

Leukocytosis ( increased WCC)
May be thrombocytopenia and hypoglycaemia

141
Q

What early changes can you see on a liver biopsy in someone with alcoholic liver disease?

A

Accumulation of membrane bound large droplet steatosis

Proliferation of SER

142
Q

What histological findings are present on a liver biopsy of a patient with alcohol hepatitis?

A

Neutrophils

Mallory-Denk bodies

143
Q

What histological findings are present in a patient with advanced alcoholic liver disease?

A

Fibrosis - accumulation of scar tissue

144
Q

What is the treatment for alcoholic liver disease?

A

Stop drinking (if in fatty liver stage could reverse damage!)

Diet high in vitamins and proteins

Corticosteroids to suppress immune system - short term benefit in alcohol hepatitis

Alcohol cirrhosis : liver transplant! Patient will need to have shown commitment to giving up alcohol.

145
Q

What are the characteristics of a fatty liver?

A

large
heavy
greasy
tender

146
Q

Pathology of liver cirrhosis

A

Irreversible liver damage due to chronic scarring and damage to hepatocytes. It is end stage liver damage.

As fibrotic tissue builds up it compresses the sinusoids and separates the nodules, distorting the normal architecture of the liver and decreasing blood flow through the liver.

147
Q

What changes to liver architecture occur in cirrhosis?

A

When hepatocytes are injured they form regenerative nodules and between these are fibrosed tissue. The formation of fibrotic tissue is mediated by stellate cells.

148
Q

What is the consequence for the increased build up of fibrinolytic tissue

A

As fibrotic tissue builds up it compresses the sinusoids and separates the nodules, distorting the normal architecture of the liver and decreasing blood flow through the liver.

149
Q

Aetiology of cirrhosis (name three causes)?

A
Chronic alcohol use 
Chronic hepatitis C infection 
Chronic hepatitis B infection 
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hereditary haemochromatosis 
Wilson disease 
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
150
Q

What possible complications can arise from liver cirrhosis?Name 5

A

Portal hypertension (which can lead to ascites)
Congestive splenomegaly
Renal vasoconstriction → hepatorenal failure
Decreased liver function (less detoxification)
Hepatic encephalopathy (asterixis, coma)
Increased oestrogen in blood
Gynecomastia
Spider naevus
Palmar erythema
Jaundice (increased unconjugated bilirubin in blood)
Hypoalbuminemia → oedema
Coagulopathy
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

151
Q

What is the clinical presentation of liver cirrhosis?

Early and late presentations?

A

Early - some fibrosis present

  • Compensated so liver still does its job
  • Liver may be slightly enlarged
  • Asymptomatic
  • Weight loss
  • Weakness fatigue

Later - extensive fibrosis

  • Jaundice
  • Pruritus (itchy skin)
  • Hepatic encephalopathy (confusion)
  • Easy bruising (decreased clotting factors)
  • Small liver
  • Nail changes
    - Muehrcke’s lines
    - Terry’s nails (white proximally but distal ⅓ reddended)
  • Clubbing
152
Q

What investigations would you do in liver cirrhosis?

A
Liver biopsy is the gold standard! 
LFTs
FBC
Ultrasound
MRI abdomen 
Ascitic tap
153
Q

What would you need to see on a liver biopsy to confirm a diagnosis of cirrhosis?

A

Microscopic appearance of hepatocytes (regenerating nodules) and fibrosis deposits between nodules

154
Q

What would the LFTs show in a patient with cirrhosis

A
- LFTS may be normal OR 
AST and ALT elevated AST > ALT
Raised ALP
Raised GGT 
Raised bilirubin 
Later with loss of synthetic function: 
Decreased albumin, increased PT time, increased INR
155
Q

What would an ultrasound show in a patient with liver cirrhosis?

A

(may show: small nodular liver, splenomegaly, reversed flow in portal vein)

156
Q

Why do we do an ascitic tap in patients with liver cirrhosis?

A

Looking for neutrophils as may indicate spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

157
Q

What is the treatment / management for cirrhosis?

A

Prevent continued liver damage by treating the underlying cause
Stop drinking
Antiviral medications for Hep C/B

Good nutrition
Avoid NSAIDs, opiates and sedatives

Fluid restriction for ascites, low salt diet

Liver transplant is the only definitive treatment for cirrhosis

158
Q

what is the pathology of portal hypertension

A

Increased blood pressure in the hepatic portal venous system.

Caused by central veins and sinusoids become compressed and the pressure within the liver increases.

159
Q

Portal hypertension can lead to what…? What implications does this have on liver function?

A

formation of portosystemic shunts where blood is diverted away from the portal venous system and backs up into the systemic veins.

Shunts cause decreased blood supply to the liver leading to decreased liver function and decreased blood detoxification

160
Q

Name three complications that can occur due to portal hypertension?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

Because the portosystemic shunts occur where the systemic and portal system connect, complications can arise at these locations

  • Oesophageal varices
  • Haemorrhoids
  • Re- channel round ligament causing engorged superficial epigastric veins (caput medusae) across the umbilical area

Congestive splenomegaly
Ascites

ABCDE
Ascites
Bleeding
Caput Medusae
Diminished liver function 
Enlarged spleen
161
Q

Name two locations where the hepatic venous system can connect to the systemic venous system?

A
  • inferior portion of the oesophagus
  • superior portion of the anal canal
  • round ligament of the liver
162
Q

aetiology of portal hypertension

A

Pre-hepatic : portal vein obstruction e.g thrombus occluding the portal vein

Hepatic
CIRRHOSIS is the most common cause
Sarcoidosis - granulomas in liver

Post-hepatic: 
Right sided heart failure 
Constrictive pericarditis 
IVC obstruction 
Budd-Chiari syndrome
163
Q

What are the symptoms of portal hypertension?

A

May be asymptomatic until complications occur.
Distended abdomen with ascites
Caput medusae

Signs that chronic liver disease is present
GI bleeding (haematemesis, melaena)
Jaundice
Hepatic encephalopathy

164
Q

What investigations would you do in portal hypertension?

A

Ultrasound - detects nodules in cirrhosis
CT/MRI abdomen

Hepatic venous pressure gradient measurement (measure difference between pressure in the IVC and portal vein)

Blood tests
LFTs
FBC
Serology

Upper GI endoscopy - treat esophageal varices appropriately

165
Q

Treatment of portal hypertension

A

Beta blockers to decreased portal venous pressure

Treat ascites with salt and fluid restriction and diuretics.

TIPS : transjugular intrahepatic portal venous shunt.

166
Q

What is the TIPS procedure?

A

communication between portal vein and hepatic vein means that blood bypasses the liver circulation, reducing portal pressure

167
Q

Pathology of varices

A

Submucosal dilation secondary to portal hypertension

168
Q

Aetiology of varices?

A

Portal hypertension

169
Q

Risk factors for variceal bleeds?

A

Variceal size
Endoscopic features of the variceal wall
Advanced liver disease (coagulopathy)

170
Q

Signs of variceal bleed?

A

Haematemesis

171
Q

Initial management of bleeding varices?

A
  1. Resus until hemodynamically stable
  2. High flow oxygen
  3. IV fluids
  4. Blood transfusion if anaemia
  5. Correct any clotting abnormalities (Vitamin K, platelet transfusion)
  6. IV terlipressin to cause vasoconstriction
  7. Endoscopic banding (oesophageal)
  8. Sclerotherapy (gastric)
    If banding fails then balloon tamponade
172
Q

Name 2 methods of primary prevention of varices?

A
Beta blocker (propranolol)
Repeated variceal banding
173
Q

One method that is used in secondary prevention of variceal bleeds?

A

TIPS

174
Q

What are 4 causes of acute hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis virus A-E
Epstein Barr virus
Cytomegalovirus
Toxoplasmosis

175
Q

What is the pathology of hepatitis A virus?

A

Always an acute infection
Short incubation period of 2-6 weeks

The virus replicates in the liver and attacks the hepatocytes.

It is excreted in the bile then excreted in the faeces for 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms

176
Q

What is the transmission of hepatitis A virus?

A

Ingestion of contaminated food or water e.g shellfish

Faecal-oral route of transmission

177
Q

Name 3 risk factors that can increase a person’s likelihood of developing hepatitis A virus?

A

Overcrowding and poor sanitation facilitate its spread
Travellers
Food handlers
Shellfish

178
Q

What are the symptoms of Hepatitis A? What other symptoms occur after 1-2 weeks of the disease onset?

A
Fever
Malaise 
Anorexia 
Nausea
Arthralgia 

Then (after 1-2 weeks) may present with…
Jaundice (dark urine and pale stools)
Hepatosplenomegaly
Adenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes)

179
Q

What investigations would you do for hepatitis A ?

A

Liver function tests
Serology for diagnosis
Full blood count

180
Q

What would the liver function tests show in a patient with hepatitis A virus?

A

AST and ALT rise 22-40 days after exposure and return to normal over 5-20 weeks

181
Q

What are you looking for in the serology test in hepatitis A patients?

A

IgM antibody rises from day 25 (indicating an active infection)
IgG is detectable for life

182
Q

How can a person have IgG antibodies against hepatitis A?

A

After an initial infection

Vaccination

183
Q

What could the FBC show in a patient with hepatitis A?

A

Leucopenia

184
Q

How can you prevent hepatitis A?

A

Active immunisation for inactivated viral protein

185
Q

What is the treatment for hepatitis A?

A

Supportive therapy

Avoid alcohol

186
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis A?

A

RNA virus

187
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis B?

A

DNA virus

188
Q

What type of infection can hepatitis B be?

A

Can be an acute and chronic infection, only moves onto chronic in 20% of cases

189
Q

What is the transmission of hepatitis B?

A

Via the blood

190
Q

Name 5 routes of transmission for hepatitis B?

A

Unprotected sex
IV drug users
Direct blood-blood contact e.g needlestick injury
Blood products
Tattoos
Vertical transmission - mother to child in utero or soon after birth

191
Q

Name three groups of people who are at a higher risk of catching hepatitis B?

A
IVDU and their sexual partners/carers
Health workers
Haemophiliacs
Men who have sex with men
Close family members of a carrier 
CKD/dialysis patients
192
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatitis B?

A

Infection can be subclinical (asymptomatic)

Viraemia 
Non-specific symptoms such as…
Nausea
Malaise
Anorexia 
Arthralgia 

May have rashes urticaria

After 1-2 weeks patients can become jaundiced

Hepatosplenomegaly

193
Q

Name 2 complications that can arise from hepatitis B?

A

Fulminant hepatic failure
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

194
Q

What two investigations would you do for hepatitis B?

A

Liver function tests (are raised in the acute phase)

SEROLOGY

195
Q

What are the three markers we look for in serology of a hepatitis B patient?

A

HBV surface antigen : HBsAg
HBV core antigen : HBcAg
E antigen : secreted by infected hepatocytes (this is a marker than infection is actively happening)

196
Q

If there is E antigen and viral hepatitis B DNA in the serum what does that indicate?

A

That the virus is active and is replicating and infecting hepatocytes

Acute infection

197
Q

What would the serology show if a patient had an acute hepatitis B infection?

A

HBsAg and HBcAg are positive

Viral DNA is present in the blood

E antigen is present in the blood

Immune system produced IgM antibodies against HBcAg

198
Q

What is ‘the window’ in the context of hepatitis B serology?

A

Cannot detect HBsAg or IgG against HBsAg as they are both to low.
This can last for several weeks → months
Can detect IgM antibodies against HBcAg

199
Q

What are the following two options following on from the window in terms of serology of a hepatitis B patient?

A
  1. IgG > HBsAg (no more infection)
  2. IgG < HBsAg (not enough IgG for surface antigens)

If option 2 occurs then patient is still infected with the virus and it becomes a chronic infection which leads to continuing hepatocellular damage

200
Q

What are the two different types of serology in a chronic hepatitis B infection?

How can the host present (2 different ways)

A

1) Host presents healthy.
- HBsAg are present (for more than 6 months = carrier status)
- IgG for core antigen (HBcAg)
- NO DNA or e antigen
- Host is still contagious but there is a decreased risk

2) Host is infective
- HbsAg, HBcAg, DNA and E antigen all present
- IgG for core antigen is overwhelmed
- Increased risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma

201
Q

If you are immunised against hepatitis B what antibodies do you have circulating?

A

IgG antibodies against HbsAg so you have protection

202
Q

What is the treatment for hepatitis B?

A

Avoid alcohol
Immunize sexual contacts

Refer all those with chronic liver inflammation, cirrhosis or high viral load for antivirals
- 48 weeks of pegylated interferon alfa-2a

  • Or nucleoside analogues
    These inhibit viral replication
    May be life long as does not stimulate an immune response
    Entecavir, tenofovir
203
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis C?

A

RNA flavivirus

204
Q

What type of infection is hepatitis C usually?

A

Chronic

205
Q

What can hepatitis do which means that it is more likely a chronic infection?

A

Virus often mutates rapidly to bypass the host immune system

206
Q

how is hepatitis C transmitted?

A

Via the blood

207
Q

Name 4 ways in which hepatitis C can be transmitted?

A

Childbirth (rare)
Unprotected sex
IV drug users
Transfusion

208
Q

What is the main symptom of hepatitis C?

A

Asymptomatic

Chronic infection often goes unrecognised for 10-20 years unless identified when having LFTs performed

209
Q

What symptoms may chronically infected patients with hepatitis C experience?

A

Malaise
Weakness
Anorexia

210
Q

What tests should you perform in hepatitis C?

What may they show?

A

Liver function tests
- persistently elevated or fluctuating liver enzyme levels

Enzyme immunoassay
- screen for HCV IgG antibody

HCV RNA test using PCR

  • gold standard for diagnosis
  • detects the levels of viral RNA in the blood

HIV test

211
Q

What is the treatment for Hepatitis C virus?

A

Quit alcohol

Antiviral combination therapy
s/c injections of pegylated interferon alpha and daily oral doses of oral ribavirin

Liver transplant is the treatment of choice for people with end-stage liver disease

212
Q

What type of virus is Hepatitis D?

A

Incomplete RNA virus

213
Q

What does hepatitis D virus need to infect a host? Why?

A

Needed to have had hepatitis B for assembly. Virus is unable to replicate on its own, it is activated by the presence of hepatitis B.

214
Q

What are the two different types of infection in hepatitis D? Which is more severe?

A

Co-infection
Hepatitis B and D infect the host both at the same time
Clinically indistinguishable from acute HBV infection

Super-infection
More severe
Host has chronic HBV (usually dormant) and then gets HDV
Secondary acute hepatitis and increased rate of liver fibrosis progression
Increases the risk of fulminant hepatitis/hepatocellular carcinoma

215
Q

How is hepatitis D transmitted? Name 4 ways it can be transmitted?

A

Transmitted via the blood
Unprotected sex
IV drug users
Direct blood-blood contact e.g needlestick injury
Blood products
Tattoos
Vertical transmission - mother to child in utero or

216
Q

Name 3 symptoms of hepatitis D?

A

Infection can be subclinical (asymptomatic)

Viraemia 
Non-specific symptoms such as…
Nausea
Malaise
Anorexia 
Arthralgia 

Hepatosplenomegaly

217
Q

What tests would you do for hepatitis D?

A

Liver Function tests

Serology
Serum IgM anti-HCV in the presence of IgM anti-HBV confirms the co-infection

218
Q

What is the treatment for hepatitis D?

A

Subcutaneous pegylated interferon-alpha 2a

219
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis E?

A

RNA virus

220
Q

What type of infection does hepatitis E cause?

A

acute infection

221
Q

What is the transmission of hepatitis E virus?

A

Undercooked seafood
Contaminated drinking water
Faecal-oral route

222
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatitis E?

A
Acute self-limiting disease 
Fever
Malaise 
Anorexia 
Nausea
Arthralgia 

Then (after 1-2 weeks) may present with…
Jaundice (dark urine and pale stools)
Hepatosplenomegaly
Adenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes)

223
Q

What investigation would you do for hepatitis E?

A

Serology

HEV IgM = active infection
HEV IgG antibody = recovery (NO vaccination)

224
Q

Name 2 things you can do to prevent being infected with hepatitis E?

A

Good food hygiene and sanitation

Avoidance of tap water in high risk areas

225
Q

What is the treatment for hepatitis E ?

A

Supportive treatment

226
Q

Aside from viral causes, name 3 other causes of chronic hepatitis?

A

Alcohol
Autoimmune
Drugs

227
Q

What is autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Inflammatory liver disease of unknown cause characterized by abnormal T cell function and autoantibodies directed against hepatocyte surface antigens

228
Q

What is the aetiology of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Unknown

229
Q

What are the symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis?

A
Acute hepatitis and signs of autoimmune disease (40%) 
Fever
Malaise
Urticarial rash
Polyarthritis 
Pulmonary infiltration 

Gradual jaundice
Asymptomatic
Diagnosed incidentally with chronic liver disease

Amenorrhoea

230
Q

What tests would you do for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Liver function tests
Serology
Full blood count (looking for signs of hypersplenism)
Liver biopsy

231
Q

What would the liver function tests show in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Elevated serum bilirubin
Elevated AST
Elevated ALT
Elevated ALP

232
Q

What would serology show in a patient with autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Hypergammaglobulinaemia (IgG)

Positive autoantibodies

233
Q

What results from a FBC show indications of hypersplenism?

A

Anaemia
Decreased WCC
Decreased platelets

234
Q

What is diagnosis based on in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

depends on excluding other disease

235
Q

what is the treatment for autoimmune hepatitis

A

immunosuppressant therapy

  • prednisolone
  • azathioprine

Liver transplant is indicated for decompensated cirrhosis or if there is failure to medical therapy

236
Q

What does Epstein Barr Virus cause ?

A

Infectious mononucleosis is

237
Q

What type of virus is the epstein barr virus?

A

Human herpesvirus 4

238
Q

What is the pathology of epstein barr virus

A

The virus targets the circulating B lymphocytes and squamous epithelial cells of the oropharynx

239
Q

What are the symptoms of epstein barr virus in childhood infection?

A

Usually asymptomatic infection in childhood

240
Q

What are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis ?

A
Fever
Anorexia 
Lymphadenopathy 
Palatal petechiae 
Splenomegaly 
Hepatomegaly 

Jaundice
Malaise
Resolution of symptoms in 2 weeks

241
Q

What investigations do you do for EBV?

A

blood film
Heterophile antibodies and antibody tests
Serology

242
Q

What would the blood film show in a patient with EBV?

A
Lymphocytosis
Atypical lymphocytes (large, irregular nuclei)
243
Q

What would the serology show in a patient with EBV?

A

IgM to EBV capsid antigen in acute infection

IgG if previous infection

244
Q

What is the treatment for an EBV infection?

A

Supportive

245
Q

Define diarrhoea?

A

Passage of three or more loose or liquid stools per day (increased frequency and volume and decreased consistency)

246
Q

Name three types infective causes of diarrhoea?

A
Rotavirus 
Shigella
Salmonella
E.Coli 
Hepatitis A and E 
Vibrio cholerae 
Norovirus 
Clostridium difficile
247
Q

What patients are most likely to develop diarrhoea caused by vibrio cholerae

A

Travellers

248
Q

What is the route of transmission of C.diff

A

Faeco-oral route of transmission directly or through spores in the environment

249
Q

what is C.diff infection associated with?

A

Associated with antibiotic use (especially broad spectrum antibiotics)

250
Q

What are the signs that a patient has a C.diff infection?

A
Increasing temperature
Colic
Diarrhoea with systemic upset 
- High CRP 
- High WCC 
- Decreased albumin 
Colitis 
Stool has a characteristic smell
251
Q

What investigations would you do for C.diff?

A

Stool microscopy, culture

  • Rapid screening test for C.diff toxin
  • Can culture to identify the strain

Tissue samples obtained at sigmoidoscopy

252
Q

What is the treatment for mild C.diff disease?

A

Stop causative antibiotic if possible

metronidazole

253
Q

what is the treatment for severe C.diff disease?

A

Stop causative antibiotic if possible

vancomycin

254
Q

What is the treatment for recurrent C.diff disease?

A

fidaxomicin or faecal transplant

255
Q

How do you prevent the spread of C.diff?

A

Hand washing with soap to kill spores

256
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

disorder of copper excretion with excess deposition in liver and CNS (e.g basal ganglia)

257
Q

What is the pathology of Wilson’s disease?

A

In normal physiology the copper is normally absorbed from the stomach and excreted in bile

In Wilson’s the excretion process is impaired leading low serum concentrations of copper and hepatic retention of copper leading to liver injury.

258
Q

What is the aetiology of Wilson’s disease?

A

Mutations in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13

This gene encodes a P-type adenosine triphosphate (Wilson’s ATPase)
It functions within hepatocytes to move copper across intracellular membranes

259
Q

What is the pattern of inheritance for Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

260
Q

Name one risk factor that increases your chances of having Wilson’s disease?

A

Family history

261
Q

When does Wilson’s disease typically present?

A

Second and third decades of life

262
Q

What is the main difference in how children and young adults tend to present with Wilson’s disease?

A

Children tend to present with liver disease (hepatitis, cirrhosis, fulminant liver failure)

Young adults tend to present with CNS signs - most commonly an early sign is an asymmetric tremor

263
Q

What symptoms suggest Wilson’s Disease?

A
Asymmetric tremor 
Depression/mania episodes commonly present 
Labile emotions
Personality change 
Decreased memory 
Slow to solve problems 
Kayser-Fleischer Rings
Haemolysis 
Blue nails 
Arthritis 
Hypermobile joints
264
Q

What are Kayser-Fleischer Rings

A

Copper rings in the iris

265
Q

What tests would you do in a patient with Wilson’s disease to diagnose?

A
Urinalysis 
LFTs
Serum copper 
Liver biopsy 
MRI 
Molecular genetic testing can confirm a diagnosis
266
Q

What would urinalysis show in a patient with Wilson’s disease?

A

24hr copper excretion is high

267
Q

what level of serum copper could suggest Wilson’s disease?

A

< 11μmol/L

268
Q

What would the liver biopsy show of a patient with Wilson’s disease?

A

Increased hepatic copper

269
Q

What is the treatment for Wilson’s disease?

A
Diet 
Avoid foods with high copper content: 
Liver
Chocolate 
Nuts 
Mushrooms 

Drugs
Lifelong chelating agent penicillamine

Liver transplant if severe liver disease

Screen siblings as asymptomatic homozygotes need treating

270
Q

What drug do you prescribe for a patient with Wilson’s disease?

A

Penicillamine

271
Q

What is alpha-1-antitrypsin ?

What is its normal action

A

A1AT is a serine protease inhibitor that controls inflammatory cascades and its main function is to balance the action of neutrophil-protease enzymes in the lungs

272
Q

What is the pathology of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Protein is produced but the molecular configuration is changed so it cannot pass out of the liver. Cannot pass to the lungs and liver disease develops because of the congestion of A1AT in hepatocytes which leads to cell destruction.

273
Q

Aetiology of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A
Mutation in SERPINA1 gene on chromosome 14 
Genetic variants are : 
PiMM (normal phenotype) 
High risk phenotypes are 
PiSZ
PiZZ
274
Q

What are the symptoms of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Lungs
Dyspnoea from emphysema
Wheezing
Cough

Liver
Cirrhosis
Cholestatic jaundice

275
Q

What tests would you do for alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Serum A1AT levels are low

Lung function tests
Reduced FEV1 with an obstructive pattern

Liver biopsy

Phenotyping
SZ
ZZ

276
Q

What is the management for alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Stop smoking

Treatment/preventative vaccination for lung infections

Monitor liver function

Liver transplant if severe

Manage emphysema

277
Q

What are the most common liver tumours?

A

Metastases

from breast, bronchus or GI tract

278
Q

What is the most common type of primary liver cancers?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

279
Q

Name three causes of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
Hepatitis B virus 
Hepatitis C virus 
Autoimmune hepatitis 
Cirrhosis 
Non-alcoholic fatty liver
280
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
Fever
Malaise
Anorexia 
Weight loss
RUQ pain
281
Q

What are the signs of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatomegaly (smooth or hard and irregular)
Signs of chronic liver disease
Feel for an abdominal mass

282
Q

What tests would you do to diagnose hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Imaging
3 phase CT
MRI - better at distinguishing benign from malignant tumours

Bloods 
FBC
Blotting 
LFTs
Serum alphafeto-protein may be raised 

Biopsy
Confirm histological diagnosis

283
Q

What is the treatment for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Resecting solitary tumours

Liver transplant

284
Q

How can you prevent the likelihood for developing hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV vaccination
Don’t reuse needles
Screen blood

285
Q

What is cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Biliary tree cancer
Usually slow growing
Most are distal extrahepatic or perihilar

286
Q

Name three causes of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Flukes (parasitic worms)
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Biliary cysts

287
Q

Name 3 symptoms of cholangiocarcinoma?

A
Fever
Abdominal pain (localised to RUQ) 
There may be ascites 
Malaise 
Jaundice
288
Q

What tests would you do in cholangiocarcinoma?

A

LFTs
CT scan
Contrast MRI
Biopsy

289
Q

What would the LFTs show in a patient with cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Elevated conjugated bilirubin

Markedly elevated ALP, GGT

290
Q

What are the treatment options for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Complete surgical resection (only intervention that offers a cure)
70% are inoperable at presentation
Adjuvant chemotherapy
Radiotherapy

Stenting to relieve symptoms

291
Q

Name two benign liver tumours?

A

haemangiomas

Hepatic adenma

292
Q

Name 4 cancers that commonly metastasise in the liver?

A

colon
breast
stomach
lung

293
Q

What are the majority of pancreatic carcinomas?

A

Most are ductal adenocarcinomas (exocrine)

Majority arise in the pancreatic head

294
Q

Name 5 risk factors for developing pancreatic carcinoma?

A
Smoking 
Alcohol 
Carcinogens 
Diabetes 
Chronic pancreatitis 
Increased waist circumference 
High fat and red or processed meat diet 
Family history
295
Q

What is the typical patient who has pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Male and over 70 years old

296
Q

What are the symptoms of pancreatic carcinoma?

What symptoms can suggest if the cancer is in the head or the body of the pancreas?

A

Anorexia
Weight loss
Diabetes
Acute pancreatitis

If in the head of the pancreas
- Painless obstructive jaundice

If in the body or tail of the pancreas
- Epigastric pain that radiates to the back and is relieved by sitting forwards

297
Q

What are the signs of pancreatic carcinoma?

A
Jaundice + palpable gallbladder
Epigastric mass
Hepatomegaly 
Splenomegaly
Ascites
298
Q

What tests would you do for pancreatic canrcinoma?

A

Blood
Imaging
- US or CT scan
Biopsy

299
Q

What may you see on a CT scan of someone with pancreatic carcinoma?

A

a pancreatic mass +/- dilated biliary tree +/- hepatic mets

300
Q

What are the treatment options for pancreatic carcinomia?

A

Surgery
Pancreatoduodenectomy (Whipple). Best considered only where no distant metastases and where vascular invasion is still at a minimum

Post operative chemotherapy delays disease progression

Palliative therapy
Opiates for pain
Palliation of jaundice using stenting

301
Q

What is ascites?

A

Accumulation of free fluid in the peritoneal cavity

302
Q

Name 5 causes of ascites?

A
Local inflammation 
Low protein 
Low fluid 
Neoplasia
Pancreatitis
303
Q

Why does low protein cause ascites?

A

Causes inability to pull fluid back into the intravascular space
Raises pressure in vessels causing fluid to leak out of vessels

304
Q

Why does low fluid cause ascites?

A

Seen in cirrhosis, Budd-chiari syndrome, cardiac failure
Leads to increase RAAS
Portal hypertension which leads to ascites

305
Q

Name 5 symptoms of ascites

A

Distended abdomen
Abdominal swelling that may develop over several days or weeks
Fullness in the flanks and shifting dullness
Mild abdominal pain and discomfort are common
If there is severe pain consider bacterial peritonitis
Respiratory distress and difficulty eating
May be scratch marks on abdomen caused by itching due to jaundice
Peripheral oedema

306
Q

What are symptoms of ascites?

A

Presence of fluid is confirmed by demonstrating shifting dullness

Diagnostic aspiration of 10-20ml of fluid using ascitic tap

Protein measurement of ascitic fluid
Transudate - low protein
Exudate - high protein

307
Q

What do you test for in ascites in the ascitic tap?

A

Raised WCC
Gram stain and culture
Cytology to find malignancy
Amylase to exclude pancreatic ascites

308
Q

What are the treatments of ascites?

A

Treat the underlying cause
Fluid and salt restriction
Drink no more than 1.5L a day
Restrict dietary salt

Diuretics
Spironolactone +/- furosemide

Large-volume paracentesis and albumin
Perforation of a cavity to remove fluid
May need to give albumin to replace the loss from ascites to prevent reaccumulation of ascites

309
Q

What treatment would you do for resistant ascites?

A

Trans-jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

310
Q

What are the anatomical limits of the foregut?

A

Lower oesophagus to D2 (liver, spleen and gallbladder)

311
Q

Where would you feel pain if there was pathology in the foregut?

A

Epigastric

312
Q

What are the anatomical limits of the midgut?

A

D2 to 2/3 across transverse colon (majority of the abdomen)

313
Q

Where would you feel pain if there was pathology in the midgut?

A

Periumbilical

314
Q

What are the anatomical limits of the hindgut

A

Transverse colon to upper rectum

315
Q

Where would you feel pain if there was pathology in the hindgut?

A

Hypogastric

316
Q

What is the innervation of the parietal peritoneum?

A

somatic innervation

sensation is well localised

317
Q

What is the innervation of the visceral peritoneum?

A

Autonomic innervation

Sensation is poorly localised

318
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum

319
Q

What are the differences between primary and secondary causes of peritonitis?

A

Primary

  • Inflammation on its own
  • Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

Secondary
- Non-bacterial causes e.g bil

320
Q

What are the bacterial causes of peritonitis?

A

Gram negative

  • E.coli
  • Klebsiella

Gram positive
- Staphylococcus aureus

Can result in peritonitis either through irritation of the peritoneum (perforated appendix or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis)

321
Q

What are the chemical causes of peritonitis?

A

Bile
Old Clotted blood
Chemical irritation due to leakage of intestinal contents

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

322
Q

What are the symptoms of peritonitis?

A

Perforation
Acute sudden onset of pain followed by general collapse and shock

If secondary to inflammatory disease the onset is less rapid with the initial features being those of the underlying cause

Lying still

Abdominal rigidity

Tenderness

323
Q

What can relieve pain caused by peritonitis?

A

resting hands on the abdomen, stopping movement of the peritoneum and pain

324
Q

Name a complication of peritonitis?

A

Sepsis
Local abscess formation
Kidney failure

325
Q

What tests would you do for peritonitis?

A

Blood test
Monitor / confirm infection (raised WCC and CRP)
Serum amylase to exclude acute pancreatitis
HCG to exclude pregnancy

Ascitic tap and blood culture

Erect CXR may show gas under the diaphragm which can indicate bowel perforation

326
Q

What is the treatment of peritonitis?

A

ABCs
Treat the underlying cause and treat early!
Nasogastric tube
IV fluids

327
Q

What antibiotics would you use to treat spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

cefotaxime and ceftriaxone

328
Q

what is the difference between a reducible hernia and irereducible hernia?

A

reducible: can be pushed back into the abdominal cavity with manual manoeuvring

irreducible hernia: cannot be pushed back into place

329
Q

what is an obstructed hernia?

A

intestine is obstructed within the hernia due to pressure from the edges of the hernia

330
Q

what is an incarcerated hernia?

A

contents of the hernial sac are stuck inside by ashesions

331
Q

what is a strangulated hernia?

A

blood supply is cut off resulting in ischaemia

332
Q

What the two types of inguinal hernia and what are the differences?

A

Direct hernia
Peritoneal sac enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal

Indirect hernia
Peritoneal sac enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring

333
Q

Name three risk factors for inguinal hernia ?

A
Male
Chronic cough 
Constipation 
Urinary obstruction 
Heavy lifting 
Ascites 
Past abdominal surgery
334
Q

What is the presentation of an inguinal hernia?

A

Bulging associated with coughing or straining
Lump
Rarely painful
If painful - suggests strangulation

335
Q

What are the treatment options for an inguinal hernia?

A

Wear a truss (surgical appliance to support a hernia - typically a padded belt) to contain hernia and prevent further progression

Surgery only if symptomatic

336
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

Bowel enters the femoral canal below the inguinal ligament

337
Q

Presentation of femoral hernia?

A

Mass in the upper medial thigh or above the inguinal ligament where it points down the leg

338
Q

What is the treatment for a femoral hernia ?

A

Surgical repair
Herniotomy - ligation and excision of the sac
Herniorrhaphy - repair of the hernial defect

339
Q

What is an incisional hernia?

A

Tissue protrudes through a surgical scar that is weak

Follows the breakdown of muscle closure after a surgery