Liver Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3 groups of patients with cirrhosis, do not need variceal screening with EGD?

A

Upper endoscopy should be performed in any
patient with cirrhosis to screen for varices, with
the exception of those with compensated cirrhosis,
a platelet count above 150,000 platelets/μL, and
a liver stiffness measurement below 20 kPa.

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2
Q

Under what level kPa for liver stiffness do you not have to get an EGD for variceal screening?

A

liver stiffness measurement below 20 kPa does not require EGD

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3
Q

If no varices are seen on EGD, how often should patients with compensated cirrhosis have an EGD (ongoing liver disease/injury vs not having ongoing liver insult)?

A

If no varices are found in a patient with compensated
cirrhosis, recommendations are for a screening
endoscopy to be repeated every 2 years in those
with ongoing liver injury and every 3 years in
those without ongoing liver injury.

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4
Q

Under what platelet number, are patients at increased risk of varices and should have an EGD?

A

Under 150k

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5
Q

In individuals with cirrhosis and varices that have not bled, who are taking nonselective BB, how often should endoscopy be done?

A

In addition, in individuals with varices
that have not bled, endoscopy does not need to
be repeated in patients who are taking NSBBs.

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6
Q

Patients with HCC with should be referred for liver transplantation, if they are within Milan criteria? what is Milan criteria

A

Milan criteria (single mass <5 cm or up to 3 masses <3 cm each, in the absence of vascular invasion or metastatic disease). Liver
transplantation will provide him his best chance for
long-term survival. While awaiting transplantation,
he can undergo locoregional therapies to control
his tumor burden.

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7
Q

what are some of the cirrhotic related clinical manifestations that make a cirrhotic patient with HCC a poor surgical candidate?

A

underlying clinically significant portal hypertension (as evidenced by his large esophageal varices, thrombocytopenia, and splenomegaly) make a pt a poor resection candidate.

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8
Q

what is the likelihood of a patient with AIH, having recurrent disease after transplantation?

A

Patients with AIH usually require higher doses
of baseline immunosuppression after transplantation. Individuals with AIH have an approximately 20% chance of recurrent disease after transplantation. This risk is higher if immunosuppression is rapidly tapered after transplantation, and most centers manage patients with a higher baseline level of immunosuppression compared with recipients with other etiologies of liver disease.

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9
Q

Should pts with new decomp cirrhosis 2/2 HCV, have treatment of HCV prior to traplsant?

A

All patients with HCV infection should be considered for therapy, given the tolerability and efficacy of direct-acting antiviral therapies. In those awaiting transplantation, however, treatment decisions need to be made on a case-by-case basis, as there are a variety of potential risks and benefits with each treatment strategy. Potential benefits of
treatment before transplantation include stabilizing or improving liver function before surgery and preventing liver graft infection at transplantation. Potential risks of treatment before transplantation include having higher rates of treatment failure with decompensated liver disease and
that successful treatment may leave patients with
a diseased liver but improve their MELD score
enough to limit access to organs (often referred
to as “MELD purgatory”).

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10
Q

what 3 findings can you see in patients with hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

hepatopulmonary syndrome
based off the presence of underlying liver disease,

impaired oxygenation, and evidence of intrapul-
monary vascular shunting.

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11
Q

in patients with hepatopulmonary syndrome, what can be expected to be seen on ABG?

A

When present, an arterial blood gas should be obtained with the expectation of an elevated alveolar-arterial gradient and a reduced PaO2. aFTER liver transplantation , pts can expect gradual improvement in his hypoxia over
the next 6 to 12 months.

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12
Q

Does TIPS help to improve hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

Response to medical therapies is overall ineffective and response to transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
has been reported with variable results and is not generally recommended.

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13
Q

Muscle cramps in cirrhotic patients are common. Can muscle cramps in cirrhotic patients be treated?

A

The cramps related to her liver disease can be improved with multiple different supplements including the use of agents such as baclofen, vitamin E, and taurine.

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14
Q

can pts with acute liver failure receive urgent liver transplant? what is the major exclusion criteria to getting a transplant in this situation?

A

One of the most feared
outcomes of transplantation, however, is failing to
recover neurological function. Objective evidence
of brainstem injury (with fixed and dilated pupils a) should preclude transplantation as it is likely to be futile.

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15
Q

are Bacterial infection or psychiatric disease contraindications to liver

transplantation?

A

Bacterial infection and psychiatric disease are
relative contraindications but should not preclude

transplantation.

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16
Q

Which cirrhotic variceal patients need early TIPS?

A

Several studies have suggested benefit with early TIPS for individuals who present with variceal hemorrhage. TIPS placement should be reserved for individuals who meet inclusion criteria of studies that have shown benefit. The population that is often referenced in this setting are those who present with a variceal hemorrhage and are Child-Pugh class C (score 10-13) or Child-Pugh class B (score 7-9) with active hemorrhage on endoscopy.

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17
Q

What are 3 exclusion criteria for early TIPS for variceal bleed?

A

Notably renal disease, age above 75 and Child-Pugh class A cirrhosis were exclusion criteria for TIPS.

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18
Q

how can liver massHCC be diagnosed on imaging? whats the best imaging for this?

A

liver mass on ultrasound, which is highly concerning for HCC if baseline cirrhosis.
Diagnosis can often be made without biopsy, when
dynamic imaging of the liver (either CT with contrast or MRI)
reveals the typical features of HCC (arterial
hypervascularity and early washout in the portal
venous phase).

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19
Q

Radiologically, what are the typical features of HCC?

A

The typical features of HCC (arterial
hypervascularity and early washout in the portal
venous phase)

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20
Q

Which CT imaging is best to radiographically diagnoise HCC?

A

CT imaging is not adequate to evaluate for HCC IF done without contrast. HCC would not be evident on noncontrast CT imaging of the liver and could easily be missed on a single-
phase CT of her abdomen (which would have onlyobtained a venous phase).

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21
Q

in cirrhotic patients, whats the max daily Tylenol dose you can give?

A

When systemic medications are needed, acetaminophen is considered safe and is the recommended first-line
pharmacologic therapy for pain in this population,
at a dose of up to 2000 mg daily.

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22
Q

In alcoholic hepatitis, if patients do not have improvement in Lille score and score is consistent with nonresponse to
medical therapy, should they continue steroids with Prednisolone?

A

Pts should stop prednisolone and be referred to a tertiary center for considerations of early transplantation as
individuals with severe alcoholic hepatitis that did not respond to
glucocorticoid therapy were found to have a markedly improved 6-month survival if
they underwent early liver transplantation,

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23
Q

Does older age necessarily prevent you from being a liver transplant candidate?

A

It is generally accepted that physiological, not chronological, age should determine who is a
candidate for liver transplantation. Older patients can be listed for liver transplantation after careful considerations of their comorbidities and
functional status.

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24
Q

Under what circumstance should patients with CKD and liver disease, be listed for liver and kidney transplant?

A

If kidney disease worsens after liver transplantation, the patient can be listed for kidney transplantation and will be prioritized on the list/ If the patient has underlying chronic kidney disease it may very likely worsen after transplantation related to the acute stressors of
surgery and side effects of medications he will
likely receive. The Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network established medical eligibility for those who are candidates for simultaneous liver kidney transplantation (SLK)
that included a “safety net” allocation priority for
individuals who undergo liver transplantation
alone and develop new or ongoing progressive
renal impairment.

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25
Q

Which liver transplant patients, are eligible for an SLK?

A

Individuals are eligible for an SLK if they have
a sustained acute kidney injury (≥6 weeks of requiring ≥once-weekly dialysis or a GFR of ≤25 mL/min tested weekly) or chronic kidney
disease (GFR ≤60 mL/min for >90 days and a
subsequent worsening of renal function of GFR
≤30 mL/min or need for regular dialysis). The
hope in those not meeting these criteria is that
their renal function may recover, minimizing the
transplantation of kidneys into individuals who
may not need them.

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26
Q

what is the treatment for pts with patient has evidence of portal hypertensive
gastropathy (PHG)?

A

If patient has evidence of portal hypertensive
gastropathy (PHG), First-line therapy consists of
iron supplementation for anemia and nonselective
beta-blockers. Transjugular intrahepatic portosys-
temic shunt can be considered if first-line measures fail, although its overall efficacy is not clear.

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27
Q

what is the recommended caloric intake for cirrhotics with sarcopenia?

A

In this setting, specific recom-
mendations should be given regarding total caloric (30-35 kg/kg daily) and protein (1.2-1.5 g/kg daily) intake for any individual with cirrhosis.

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28
Q

In cirrhotic patients, what is the negative effect of patients fasting on muscle mass?

A

This patient is fasting for prolonged periods of
time (roughly 16 hours a day between meals),
which will lead to worsening of his sarcopenia.

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29
Q

if cirrohtic pts with variceal bleed, what tx is recommended to prevent
rebleeding in this population?

A

Individuals who survive an episode of acute vari-
ceal hemorrhage have a bleeding risk of around

60% if untreated. Current recommendations are
for a combination of EVL and NSBB to prevent
rebleeding in this population. as combination therapy has been shown

to be superior to EVL alone at preventing re-
bleeding. TIPS is incorrect and recommended as

a rescue therapy in those who experience recur-
rent bleeding despite management with EVL and

NSBB combination therapy.

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30
Q

when is TIPS used for variceal bleed?

A

TIPS is recommended as a rescue therapy in those who experience recurrent bleeding despite management with EVL and NSBB combination therapy.

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31
Q

can pts with early-stage unresectable hilar cholangiocarcinoma be candidates for liver transplant?

A

Transplantation is now considered an option in many centers in those with early-stage unresectable hilar cholangiocarcinoma after data published from the Mayo Clinic showed acceptable outcomes in a highly selected cohort of patients. In those who
were candidates, patients received neoadjuvant
therapy that included both radiation and sys-
temic chemotherapy

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32
Q

Which is the main reason patients with would not be a candidate for liver transplant?

A

Transplantation centers have since developed
individualized protocols for transplantation for early-stage hilar cholangiocarcinoma. In addition to a requirement for neoadjuvant therapy and repeat staging after treatment, the Organ
Procurement and Transplantation Network mandates that transperitoneal biopsy (either by endoscopic ultrasound or percutaneous approaches) be an exclusion criterion in any
institutional protocol.

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33
Q

How does portal hypertensive gastropathy appear described on endoscopy?

A

This patient has evidence of portal hypertensive
gastropathy (PHG). Upper endoscopy reveals a mosaic mucosal pattern with a “snake-skin” appearance.

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34
Q

If first line therapy for PHG (NSBB) fails, what can be considered next?

A

TIPS

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35
Q

WHICH clinical phenomenon is asociated with upper endoscopy
reveals multiple red spots and linear areas of erythema converging on the pylorus?

A

First-line therapy consists of endoscopic electrocoagulation or laser therapy and multiple sessions are often needed. For refractory cases, surgical antrectomy can be performed, albeit with significant
morbidity.

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36
Q

what is the first line treatment for GAVE? Then what is treatment if refractory

A

First-line therapy consists of endoscopic electrocoagulation or laser therapy and multiple sessions are often needed. For refractory cases, surgical antrectomy can be performed, albeit with significant
morbidity.

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37
Q

What is the one treatment that have shown to help resolve GAVE?

A

A variety of case reports and case series have shown that GAVE can resolve after liver transplantation. No medication has been clearly shown to be beneficial for the treatment of GAVE.

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38
Q

In terms of therapies, does bleeding from GAVE respond
to measures that reduce portal pressure?

A

Unlike portal hypertensive gastropathy and
varices, bleeding from GAVE does not respond
to measures that reduce portal pressure.

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39
Q

For cirrhotic pts with sleep problems, what 3 meds can be used for the short term?

A

Sleep disturbances are relatively common in individuals with cirrhosis. When present, clinicians should consider inadequately treated hepatic encephalopathy (which can lead to sleep-wake
reversal) as well as sleep hygiene, which includes
ensuring lactulose and diuretics are timed to avoid
nocturnal awakenings. Medications that have been
studied in small randomized controlled trials for
sleep disturbances in cirrhosis include melatonin,
zolpidem, and hydroxyzine.

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40
Q

How is bleeding from GOV type 1 gastric varices managed compared to esophageal varices?

A

type 1 gastric varices (GOV1) are located along the lesser curvature of the stomach. Bleeding from GOV1 should be managed
similarly to bleeding from esophageal varices.

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41
Q

Where are type 1 gastric varices (GOV1) located?

A

type 1 gastric varices (GOV1) are located along the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastroesophageal varix (GOV) type 1: Extension of esophageal varices along lesser CURVATURE OF STOMACH

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42
Q

in the setting of cirrhosis and variceal bleed, with type 2 or 3 GOV varices, when is splenectomy considered?

A

Splenectomy can be considered in the presence of splenic vein
thrombosis.

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43
Q

Where are GOV2 varices located?

A

Gastroesophageal varix type 2: Extension of esophageal varices along great curvature

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44
Q

In patients with alcohol cirrhosis, who have improvement in clinical status and go from decompensated to compensated status, with a low MELD and low (class A child pugh), is liver transplant indicated?

A

Although transplantation is clearly beneficial in individuals with advanced liver disease with high MELD scores, a survival advantage with transplantation is only seen after MELD scores are greater than 17.

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45
Q

Are patients with end-stage hepatocellular carcinoma (Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer stage D), poor functional status and poor liver function (Child-Pugh class C) candidates for chemo or liver transplant?

A

This patient has end-stage hepatocellular carcinoma (Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer stage D) given his poor functional status and poor liver function (Child-Pugh class C). This corresponds to a poor
survival (<3 months) and treatment should be
supportive. He is not a transplantation candidate based off tumor burden and vascular invasion (outside of “Milan criteria”).

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46
Q

Which set of criteria refer to a single tumor of 5 cm or less or three tumors that are each 3 cm or less, no macrovascular invasion, and no metastasis?

A

The Milan criteria state that transplantation should be performed in those with a single tumor of 5 cm or less or three tumors that are each 3 cm or less, no macrovascular invasion, and no metastasis. Patients who do not meet the Milan criteria are not considered eligible candidates for liver transplantation.

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47
Q

What is the milan criteria used for? what are the components of milan criteria?

A

The Milan criteria state that transplantation should be performed in those with a single tumor of 5 cm or less or three tumors that are each 3 cm or less, no macrovascular invasion, and no metastasis. Patients who do not meet the Milan criteria are not considered eligible candidates for liver transplantation.

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48
Q

In evaluating a patient for transplant, if they have evidence of pulmonary hypertension (with right ventricular
systolic pressure [RVSP] > 45 mmHg), is this a deal breaker for transplant?

A

If the right heart catheterization is consistent with severe
pulmonary hypertension (mean pulmonary artery
pressure [MPAP] > 45 mmHg), should be
considered a contraindication to transplantation if
this cannot be improved. A Mayo Clinic case series
showed a 100% mortality in those who received a
transplant with an MPAP greater than 50 mmHg, and current guidelines only recommend pursuing transplantation if these patients achieve an adequate response to medical therapy.

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49
Q

What are the 3 different nonselective beta-blockers that can be recommended for primary prophylaxis in individuals with cirrhosis
and medium/large varices that have not bled?

A

(nadolol, propranolol, and carvedilol)

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49
Q

Above what number BMI, is a relative contraindication to transplantation (but not an absolute contraindication)?

A

Body mass index greater than 40 kg/m2 is a relative contraindication to transplantation (but not an absolute contraindication).

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49
Q

In cirrhotic variceal patients, WHO HAVE NEVER BLED, is it better to band them or give them NSBB?

A

dO ONE OR THE OTHER. Endoscopic variceal ligation has been shown in randomized controlled trials to be as effective as nonselective beta-block-ers for primary prophylaxis. The combination of NSBB and variceal ligation has been associated with more side effects without reduction in
variceal hemorrhage risk in this population that
has not had active bleeding.

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49
Q

What is The most important predictor of
variceal hemorrhage?

A

The most important predictor of variceal hemorrhage is the size of the varices, with individuals with large varices experiencing their
first hemorrhage at a rate of 15% per year.

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50
Q

Aside from the size of varices, what two other factors are important risk factors for re-bleeding from varices in cirrhotic with varices?

A

Other predictors of bleeding are the presence of red wale signs on
endoscopy and Child-Pugh class B or C cirrhosis.

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51
Q

Can TIPS be used for the primary prophylaxis for prevention of variceal bleed?

A

TIPS placement is not
recommended for the primary prophylaxis based
off trials of prophylactic surgical shunts showing a
higher rate of encephalopathy and a trend toward
higher mortality.

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52
Q

In treating ascites, which diuretic is usually started first?

A

Starting spironolactone 50–100 mg orally
daily is the initial approach to treat ascites (and thus, hepatic hydrothorax).

Furosemide 40 mg orally daily is incorrect given
the recommended diuretic to start in patients with
ascites is monotherapy with spironolactone.

53
Q

How are ascites and hepatic hydrothorax treated different/y medically?

A

They aren’t, The management of hepatic
hydrothorax is similar to the management of
ascites. Starting spironolactone 50–100 mg orally
daily is the initial approach to treat ascites (and thus, hepatic hydrothorax).

54
Q

Can you place a chest tube in the setting of hepatic hydrothorax, in diuretic refractory cases/

A

Chest
tube placement should never be performed in the
setting of hepatic hydrothorax, even in diuretic
refractory cases.

55
Q

If the cause of portal hypertension is Hepatic, will the ascitic protein be high or low?

A

Hepatic causes of portal hypertension will have a low total protein in the ascites fluid (<2.5 g/dL).

56
Q

what is the main clinical significance of the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) greater than 1.1?

A

The patient has evidence of portal hypertension
given the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)
greater than 1.1.

57
Q

Should you transfused cirrhotic variceal pts to a high goal?

A

Conservative
transfusion strategy should be implemented in the
setting of cirrhosis so that portal hypertension is not
worsened.

58
Q

what is the goal number of BMs for Patients with Hepatic encephalopathy ?

A

Patients with encephalopathy should have 2-3
soft (not liquid) BMs daily. Careful, as the patient may
develop dehydration from frequent BMs, and
this could be precipitating encephalopathy.

59
Q

What does having gastric varices (GOV2) tell you about the source of portal hypertesion?

A

This patient has GOV2 suggesting portal hypertension that is from an intrahepatic source.

60
Q

What is the main cause of this constellation of symptoms:
- prehepatic portal hypertension
- isolated gastric varices
- splenomegaly

A

Splenic vein thrombosis would cause pre-hepatic portal hypertension and isolated gastric varices in addition to splenomegaly.

61
Q

Is surgical resection of a liver mass feasible in patient with ascites/
portal hypertension?

A

Surgery is not recommended given her ascites/
portal hypertension.

62
Q

In patients with HCC mass and normal labs, should systemic therapy OR locoregional therapy be pursued?

A

She would be a candidate for
systemic therapy if locoregional therapy was not an
option, but her laboratory tests results are normal
so locoregional therapy should be considered first.

63
Q

WHATS THE BEST way to screen for HCC in cirrhotic pts and how often>?

A

Ultrasound with AFP every 6 months indefinitely. Patients with cirrhosis have an increased risk of HCC. Screening patients routinely allows for earlier detection and provides the greatest number of treatment options. Studies demonstrate that a com-
bination of serum alpha fetoprotein levels along with ultrasound every 6 months provides earlier detection of HCC and reduces mortality.

64
Q

Whati s the main treatment benefit of early detection of HCC?

A

There are benefits to early detection of
HCC which include offering locoregional therapy). So screen with US for HCC q6 months for ever

65
Q

HBV recurs after transplantation, how medically can the risk be reduced?

A

HBV recurs after transplantation, and the risk is
modified by oral nucleos(t)-ide analogues (NAs)
used daily. use IV HBV immunoglobulin and entecavir
daily

66
Q

When is the risk of HBV reactivation after transplantation greatest?

A

Given the risk of HBV reactivation is highest in the early days after transplantation when immunosuppression is greatest, it is recommended to also treat patients with IV HBV immunoglobulin
in addition to a NA such as entecavir. This is especially true when patients have detectable HBV DNA at the time of transplantation and are at increased risk of HCC

67
Q

How often does HCV recur after liver transplantation ?.

A

HCV recurs after transplantation in the new graft 100% of the time. Rates of graft failure were higher before the discovery of direct-acting antiviral agents.

68
Q

Should you use the ammonia level to guide therapy in HE?

A

The ammonia

level should not be used to guide therapy in HE.

69
Q

If treating cirrhotic patients for HE who have persistent sleep wake cycle issues despite BM goal with Lactulose and Rifaximin. what imaging can be ordered to further evaluate? and what are you looking for as a cause of HE?

A

Ordering imaging to evaluate for splanchnic vessel shunts
is correct since investigating for shunts can be a
treatable cause of HE. If present, the shunts could be embolized to help with HE.

70
Q

What would be the next reasonable step in treatment for cirrhotic patients with TIPS, who have developed HE that is refractory to medical therapy?

A

TIPS can precipitate HE and in cases where standard medical treatments do not control symptoms, there may be a need to embolize or reduce the size of the shunt.

71
Q

Which type of Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with acute liver failure?

A

Type A is associated with
acute liver failure,

72
Q

Which type of Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with bypass shunts in the absence of cirrhosis?

A

Type B is associated with bypass shunts in the absence of cirrhosis.

73
Q

Which type of Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with gradual onset, rarely
fatal, and associated with cirrhosis and portosystemic shunting.

A

Type C is gradual onset, rarely

fatal, and associated with cirrhosis and portosys-
temic shunting.

74
Q

for Patients with cirrhosis and ascites, at what protein level do you start prophylaxis for SBP?

A

Patients with cirrhosis and ascites if the ascitic fluid protein is <1.5 g/dL (15 g/L) along with either impaired renal function or liver failure, give antibiotic prophylaxis

75
Q

For cirrhotic patients who come in with decompensation, whats the most important and early thing to do?

A

It is vital to perform a diagnostic paracentesis in patients who present with decompensation.
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can precipitate acute-on-chronic liver failure and so early diagnosis is critical.

76
Q

After transplant, can recurrent primary biliary cholangitis occur?

A

Recurrent primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) can
occur after transplantation.

77
Q

What is the most likely cause of the elevated alk phos in a patient with history of PBC who has had transplant?

A

rise in alkaline phosphatase represents a florid bile duct lesion, which is a classic finding in patients with PBC

78
Q

In a patient with AIH, who has a liver transplant, and they have worsening LFTs after that continue to worsen within 24 hours, what diagnosis should come to mind as the most likely cause?

A

Primary graft nonfunction is a serious and rare complication that occurs after transplantation. The patient’s clinical worsening within 24 hours suggests this diagnosis. She has a history of auto-immune hepatitis (AIH); however, in the setting of high-dose steroids, it would be unusual to have her numbers continue to rise as it would in severe AIH.

79
Q

Which type of hepatic encephalopathy is associated with acute liver failure?

A

type A

80
Q

In a liver transplant patient, what are the three CARDINAL Features of acute rejection on liver biopsy histology?

A
  1. Central endotheliitis
  2. Mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the portal triad (primary lymphocytic) and destructive
  3. nondestructive nonsuppurative cholangitis involving interlobular bile duct epithelium
81
Q

How is acute rejection from liver transplant treated?

A

boluses of high-dose steroids.

82
Q

In patients taking Tacrolimus after liver transplant, what should be doine with TAC in the setting of kidney injury?

A

first step to possible calcineurin inhibitors renal toxicity is to lower the dose of tacrolimus while following the transaminase levels.

83
Q

Liver transplant patients on immunosuppression with TAC and MMF, who have increased sun exposure are at highest risk of what condition?

A

Nonmelanomatous skin cancer is correct. Given
his immunosuppression and sun exposure by
living and exercising in Florida, he is at increased
risk for skin cancer.

84
Q

Liver patients with PSC should be screened annually for what?

A

Colonoscopy yearly for colon cancer detection
is correct based on the increased risk of colon
cancer in patients with PSC who have received a
liver transplant. This is also true of patients with
ulcerative colitis.

85
Q

Can you treat a pregnant mom with Hep C with antivirals? can the the newborn be treated? Can she breastfeed?

A

antiviral therapy is not currently approved for the mother while pregnant or breastfeeding or for newborn infants.

86
Q

What is one major thing that should be avoided in pregnant moms to reduce risk of hep c transmission to baby?

A

Invasive monitoring (fetal scalp monitoring) should be avoided to reduce risk of transmission.

87
Q

For acute hepatitis C, will you see antibodies in the acute setting?

A

Antibodies to hepatitis C
virus are not typically detectable until 8 weeks
from exposure, and an evaluation of viral load
is essential to establish the diagnosis.

88
Q

For patients with evidence of cryoglobinemia related to hep c , whats the treatment?

A

treat underlying hepatitis C virus infection with a regimen approved for patients with renal dysfunction, Elbasvir/grazoprevir (Zepatier)

89
Q

Before treating a patient for hep c, what other virus should be checked and why?

A

Patient’s at high risk of coinfection with hepatitis B and C viruses and should be evaluated for hepatitis B virus infection before initiating therapy for Hep C because treatment with direct-acting antiviral therapy in the setting of coinfection with hepatitis B and C viruses might increase risk of reactivation and hepatitis.

90
Q

How are patients with both hep b and c hepatitis managed in active infection?

A

Patients coinfected with positive surface antigen and evidence of
active replication should receive HBV therapy
during treatment for HCV and at least 12
weeks after therapy with close monitoring.

91
Q

Is active use of intravenous drugs a contraindication to HCV therapy?;

A

Active use of intravenous drugs is not

a contraindication to therapy;

92
Q

How should you treat a patient who received a HCV posiitve liver transplant and thy were HCV negative ?

A

Due to organ shortages and the advent of
direct-acting antiviral therapy, centers are
increasingly using HCV viremic donors for
transplantation into HCV-negative recipients.

Experience thus far indicates excellent out-
comes; however, informed consent and coun-
seling is essential. Early therapy within the first month is recommended when the patient

is stable.

93
Q

For pts who are receiving a solid organ transplant (other than a liver) from a HCV donor, when should they get treated for HCV?

A

Treatment for HCV-negative recipients of nonliver organs from HCV-positive patients should begin immediately in the perioperative period at day 0 without waiting to confirm

viral load positivity. Early therapy started
preemptively with direct-acting antiviral
therapy prevents development of chronic HCV
infection and possible complications.

94
Q

In patients with decompensated Child-Pugh
B/C cirrhosis, who have Hep C, can they be treated with typical Hep C regimens ?

A

For patients with decompensated Child-Pugh
B/C cirrhosis regimens containing protease
inhibitors are contraindicated due to hepatic
metabolism and risk of drug-induced liver
disease. dipasvir. Treatment regimens should be based
on a combination of sofosbuvir and an NS5A
inhibitor (sofosbuvir/ledipasvir or sofosbuvir/
velpatasvir) like Epclusa

95
Q

what class of meds do cyclosporine have bad interactions with mostly?

A

After liver transplantation, patients are often
taking multiple medications, which may
complicate HCV therapy. Cyclosporine has multiple interactions with direct-acting anti-viral therapies; thus, careful consideration is essential when selecting regimens.

96
Q

which pattern of liver injury is associated with elevation of ALT and AST more than Alk Phos?

A

Hepatocellular

97
Q

which pattern of liver injury is associated with elevation of ALKP more than ALT/AST (R <2)

A

Cholestatic

98
Q

which pattern of liver injury is associated with elevation of both ALT/AST and ALKP?

A

Mixed pattern: elevation of both ALT/AST and ALKP (R = 2 to 5)

99
Q

What are the 4 causes of liver injury that lead to high ALT and AST levels >1000 IU/L?

A
  1. Drug induced liver injury
  2. Acute viral hepatitis
  3. Ischemic hepatitis,
  4. Mushroom poisoning.
100
Q

In addition to High ALT and AST levels >1000, what other lab is elevated in ischemic hepatopathy?

A

LDH is elevated in ischemic hepatopathy.

101
Q

What condition is suggested by an elevated AST/ALT ratio ?

A

Elevated AST/ALT ratio is suggestive of advanced alcoholic liver disease, rather than heavy alcohol drinking without liver disease

102
Q

Aside from alcohol use, what are the other conditions that can cause an elevated AST/ALT ratio ?

A

Other causes of this pattern are cirrhosis, ischemic hepatitis, congestive hepatopathy, Budd Chiari syndrome and TPN !

103
Q

In patients with mild mild elevation of liver enzymes, what diagnosis should be considered?

A
  • Celiac disease can present with mild elevation of liver enzymes.
  • Test for celiac disease in patients with elevated liver enzymes of unclear etiology
104
Q

what is the most common cause of mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Gilbert syndrome

105
Q

Aside from Gilbert syndrome, what other two conditions can lead to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia ?

A

Fasting and stress can lead to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (usually < 3 mg/dL, up to 6-8 mg/dL).

106
Q

In assessing post op jaundice, what is one of the most important things to rule out?

A

Rule out intra- or extra-hepatic obstruction with an ultrasound, CT, or MRI.

Investigate the presence of previous chronic liver disease. Consider drug induced liver injury.

107
Q

Aside from intra- or extra-hepatic obstruction, what other 4 causes of post op jaundice should be considered?

A
  • Other etiologies to consider:
    1. TPN
    2. Resorption of a large hematoma
    3. Multiple blood transfusions (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)
    4. congestive hepatopathy
108
Q

How can sepsis lead to Sepsis induced cholestasis?

A

Sepsis due to any cause can lead to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
* Sepsis results in changes in bile transport such as decreased clearance of conjugated bilirubin, decreased basolateral and canalicular transport of bile acids. These changes can lead to hyperbilirubinemia.

109
Q

Sepsis induced cholestasis is usually associated with which type of bacteria?

A
  • Most associated with gram-negative bacteremia and intraabdominal infection.
110
Q

Should ERCPs be done in post op jaundice with no cholangitis?

A

*Avoid ERCPs if there are no clues for cholangitis (no abdominal pain, normal bile ducts).

111
Q

which clinical condition is associated with progressive increase in conjugated bilirubin starting within 2 to 10 days after surgery?

A

Benign post-operative jaundice. Bilirubin levels range between 10 to 40 mg/di, while AST, ALT and ALKP are < 5 times ULN.

112
Q

what is the most common cause of liver disease in pregnancy?

A

Liver disease in pregnancy is commonly due to etiologies not specific to pregnancy.
Viral hepatitis (A, B, C, D, and E) is the most common cause of liver disease in pregnancy,

113
Q

which type of hepatitis is associated with HIGH mortality in pregnancy?

A

Acute hepatitis E has a high mortality in pregnancy (up to 20%).

114
Q

which type of hepatitis in pregnancy, associated with a rash, , can progress to fulminant hepatic failure? And what should be the empiric treatment while awaiting serology?

A
  • HSV hepatitis
    Consider empiric treatment in patients with fulminant hepatic failure while awaiting the results of HSV serologics Treatment of choice is with acyclovir.
115
Q

Aside from viral hepatitis, what is the next most common cause of liver enzyme elevation in pregnancy?

A

Gallstones are a common cause of liver enzyme elevation in pregnancy.

116
Q

why are pregnant women at an increased risk of developing gallstones ?

A

Pregnant women are at an increased risk of developing gallstones due to decreased gallbladder contractilty combined with increased cholesterol saturation in the bile.

117
Q

In pregnant patients who are symptomatic with gallstone disease, what should be the management?

A
  • Most patients with gallstones remain asymptomatic, and they should be managed conservatively.
    Symptomatic patients (biliary pain, choledocholithiasis, cholecystitis, and pancreatitis) should be strongly considered for cholecystectomy (+/- ERCP) during pregnancy to decrease the rate of recurrent symptoms and hospitalizations.? 1º The ACG recommends that symptomatic cholecystitis should be managed with early surgical intervention with laparoscopic cholecystectomy
118
Q

In pregnant patients who are symptomatic with gallstone disease, when should Laparoscopic cholecystectomy safest to be performed?

A

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is safest in the second trimester. Patients who develop gallstone complications in the third trimester should undergo cholecystectomy in the early postpartum period.

119
Q

which clinical syndrome is associated with persistent nausea and vomiting with weight loss of > 5% of pre-pregnancy body weight in preggo pts?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

120
Q

Which clinical condition is associated with

A
121
Q

During which trimester is Hyperemesis gravida normally present?

A

> . It presents early in the first trimester. Patients may have a mild elevation of liver enzymes.

122
Q

Which clinical condition is associated with new onset pruritus in the second or third trimester, and elevated bile acid levels >10?

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP)

123
Q

During what trimester does
Intrahepatic cholestasis normally present?

A

in the second or third trimester

124
Q

what is the most common liver disease specific to pregnancy?

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

125
Q

Which liver disease specific to pregnancy (hyperemesis gravidum, intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, HELLP, acute fatty liver of pregnancy) has the highest mortality?

A

acute fatty liver of pregnancy

126
Q

Which liver disease specific to pregnancy (hyperemesis gravidum, intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, HELLP, acute fatty liver of pregnancy) causes pruritus?

A

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

127
Q

what is the treatment for pre-eclampsia?

A

ASPIRIN AND HTN Management

128
Q

For patients with severe pre-eclampsia (really high BP, end organ damage), when should delivery occur compared to those without severe pre-eclampsia?

A

34 weeks for severe and 37 weeks for non severe

129
Q

Where is Iron is mainly absorbed ?

A

Iron is mainly absorbed in the proximal small intestine,

130
Q

How is iron absorbed in the small intestine?

A

Ferric iron is reduced to ferrous iron (Fe}) by duodenal cytochrome B (DeytB). It is then absorbed by the mucosal transmembrane protein DMTI into the enterocyte.
* Ferroportin (FPN) exports iron across the basolateral membrane into the circulation.
This also requires the iron oxidase hephaestin (Hp) that converts Fe* to Fe* (requires copper). Fe* then binds to transferrin (Tf).

131
Q

Loss of function mutation in what gene leads to “ferroportin disease?

A

Loss of function mutation in ferroportin gene SLC40A1

132
Q

what effect does Hepcidin have on iron absorption?

A

Hepcidin is a negative regulator of iron absorption. It is synthesized in the liver in response to excess iron. It downregulates ferroportin, which leads to decreased iron absorption.

133
Q

What is the important protein involved in the molecular pathway leading to the expression of hepcidin? A defect in this leads to very low hepcidin levels and increased iron absorption.

A

Hemojuvelin (HJV) is an important protein involved in the molecular pathway leading to the expression of hepcidin. A defect preventing JV expression leads to very low hepcidin levels and increased iron absorption.

134
Q
A