Line D Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

For an Arc current of under 60 A, what is the MINIMUM protective shade number?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 10
d. 11

A

a. 7

For arc current UNDER 60 A, the MINIMUM protective shade is 7.

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2
Q

For an Arc current of 120 A, what is the MINIMUM protective shade number?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 10
d. 11

A

b. 8

For an arc current between 60-180 A, the MINIMUM protective shade is 8

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3
Q

For an Arc current of 190 A, what is the MINIMUM protective shade number?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 10
d. 11

A

c. 10

For an arc current between 160-250 the MINIMUM protective shade is 10.

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4
Q

For an Arc current of 310 A, what is the MINIMUM protective shade number?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 10
d. 11

A

d. 11

For an arc current of 250-550 A, the MINIMUM protective shade is 11

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5
Q

True or false. The employer is responsible to ensure workers are trained in the care and use of personal protective equipment PRIOR to its use.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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6
Q

What is the primary function of the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process?

a) Generating electricity
b) Melting the surfaces of the joint and the metal electrode
c) Cooling and solidifying molten metal
d) Providing a protective shield around the weld joint

A

b) Melting the surfaces of the joint and the metal electrode

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7
Q

How is the filler metal introduced into the weld joint in SMAW?

a) It is injected into the joint before the arc is established then carried through
b) It is carried across the arc from the workpiece to the electrode
c) It is preheated and then applied manually onto the joint
d) It is automatically fed into the arc from a separate feeding mechanism

A

b) It is carried across the arc from the workpiece to the electrode

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8
Q

What happens to the metal electrode and the base metal during the SMAW process?

a) They are vaporized by the heat of the arc
b) They are cooled rapidly by a water-cooling system
c) They are gradually melted by the arc
d) They are shielded from the arc by a gas flow

A

c) They are gradually melted by the arc, [providing a moving pool of molten metal]

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9
Q

What knowledge is essential to understand the SMAW process completely

a) Advanced mathematics
b) Fundamentals of chemistry
c) Basics of electricity and welding machine operation
d) Principles of mechanical engineering

A

c) Basics of electricity and welding machine operation

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10
Q

What is voltage in an electrical system often compared to in other systems?

a) Temperature
b) Force
c) Velocity
d) Color

A

b) Force

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11
Q

Which term is sometimes used interchangeably with voltage?

a) Amperage
b) Resistance
c) Electromotive force
d) Capacitance

A

c) Electromotive force [EMF]

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12
Q

What unit is used to measure electrical potentials?

a) Amperes
b) Watts
c) Volts
d) Ohms

A

c) Volts

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13
Q

What is the essential difference between an alternator and a generator?

a) Their physical size
b) Their weight
c) The way they produce voltage
d) The color of their casing

A

c) The way they produce voltage

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14
Q

In a conductive circuit, which terminal of the power source is the source of electrons?

a) Positive (+)
b) Negative (-)
c) Ground
d) Neutral

A

b) Negative (-)

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15
Q

What does OCV stand for in the context of SMAW?

a) Overheating Current Voltage
b) Open Circuit Voltage
c) Overloaded Current Voltage
d) Ohm’s Circuit Variation

A

b) Open Circuit Voltage

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16
Q

Where does current flow from and to?

a) From positive to negative terminal
b) From negative to positive terminal
c) From both terminals simultaneously
d) From the center of the source to the outer casing

A

b) From negative to positive terminal

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17
Q

What property of copper wire makes it suitable for use in electrical circuits?

a) High resistance
b) Low resistance
c) High capacitance
d) Low capacitance

A

b) Low resistance

The low resistance makes it a great conductor because it provides “low resistance” to the passage of current.

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18
Q

What is the role of the negative (-) labeled terminal on the output connections of a power source?

a) It attracts electrons from the circuit
b) It repels electrons from the circuit
c) It is a source of electrons for the circuit
d) It is a sink for electrons in the circuit

A

c) It is a source of electrons for the circuit

Electrons move from the negative side of the power source, travel through the circuit, and reach the positive side. The negative (-) labeled terminal on the output of the power source is where electrons come from.

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19
Q

In SMAW what is OCV (open circuit voltage) used to measure?

a) Voltage drop during welding process
b) Current flow during welding process
c) Voltage between electrode and work lead not during welding process
d) Resistance of the welding cables nut during the welding process

A

c) Voltage between electrode and work lead not during welding process

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20
Q

Which of the following describes the polarity of direct current electrode negative?

a) reverse polarity
b) straight polarity

A

b) Straight polarity

[“Straight” people are “N”aked]

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21
Q

Which of the following describes the polarity of direct current electrode positive?

a) reverse polarity
b) straight polarity

A

a) reverse polarity

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22
Q

In welding, how can the direction of DC current be changed?

a) By altering the power supply voltage
b) By changing the type of electrode
c) By using a polarity switch or reconnecting the cables
d) By adjusting the welding speed

A

c) By using a polarity switch or reconnecting the cables

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23
Q

What happens to the polarity of AC (alternating current)?

a) It remains constant throughout the welding process
b) It changes every quarter cycle
c) It changes every half cycle
d) It changes randomly

A

c) It changes every half cycle

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24
Q

What is the relationship between arc length and changes welding current?

1.”Short arc length corresponds to low welding current”
2. “Short arc length corresponds. to high welding current”
3. “Long arc length corresponds to low welding current”
4. “Long arc length corresponds to high welding current”

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4&1
d) 2&3

A

d) 2&3

With a SHORT arc length, you achieve a high welding current and a low arc voltage.

With a LONG arc length, you achieve a low welding current and a high arc voltage.

The relationship between the voltage and the current produced by a welding power source is usually expressed in the form of a graph that shows the volt-ampere curve.

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25
Q

How are changes in arc length reflected on the volt-ampere curve?

a) They do not affect the volt-ampere curve
b) They create new electrical characteristics on the volt-ampere curve
c) They cause the volt-ampere curve to flatten vertically
d) They shift the volt-ampere curve horizontally away from the current

A

b) They create new electrical characteristics on the volt-ampere curve

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26
Q

What does weld heat input primarily depend on?

a) Electrode type ambient and temperature
b) Welding speed and current
c) Voltage and current
d) Arc length and ambient temperature

A

c) Voltage and current

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27
Q

What is the importance of understanding arc control in arc welding?

a) It determines the color of the weld
b) It affects the hardness of the electrode
c) It influences the stability and quality of the process
d) It determines the weight of the welding equipment

A

c) It influences the stability and quality of the process

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28
Q

How are changes in the welding circuit reflected?

a) In the welding speed
b) In the electrode composition
c) On the volt-ampere curve
d) In the welding environment

A

c) On the volt-ampere curve

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29
Q

What type of power source is typically used for manual welding processes like Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)?

a) Constant voltage
b) Constant current
c) Variable voltage
d) Variable current

A

b) Constant current

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30
Q

Which welding process is most commonly associated with constant voltage power sources?

a) Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW)
b) Flux-Cored Arc Welding (FCAW)
c) Gas Tungsten Arc Welding (GTAW)
d) Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)

A

a) Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW)

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31
Q

In terms of power availability, what is typically associated with single-phase power?

a) Industrial applications
b) Commercial applications
c) Residential applications
d) Rural applications

A

c) Residential applications

When buying a welding power supply, always verify the type of power availability before making the purchase (i.e., residential power is single-phase and maximum voltage is 240 V)

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32
Q

What is the maximum voltage for a single-phase power source)

a) 240
b) 300
c) 540
d) 600

A

a) 240

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33
Q

In terms of power availability, what is typically associated with three-phase power?

a) Industrial and commercial applications
b) Residential and rural applications
c) Industrial and residential applications
d) Commercia and rural applications

A

a) Industrial and commercial applications

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34
Q

True or false. Power sources are classified as BOTH constant current and constant voltage.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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35
Q

What characteristic is exhibited by a constant current (CC) welding power source when its voltage changes over a wide range?

a) Steadiness
b) Drooping
c) Spiking
d) Fluctuating

A

b) Drooping [also known as sloping]

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36
Q

What range is an open circuit voltage (OCV) be around?

a) 50 V to 100 V
b) 0 V to 50 V
c) 80 v to 160 V
d) 150 V to 250 V

A

a) 50 V to 100 V

The OCV can range between 50 V and 100 V, but is normally around 80 V.

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37
Q

What voltage is an open circuit voltage (OCV) normally?

a) 50 V
b) 80 V
c) 100 V
d) 240 V

A

b) 80 V

The OCV can range between 50 V and 100 V, but is normally around 80 V.

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38
Q

What condition is represented at the bottom right of the CC curve when the welding electrode is in DIRECT CONTACT with the workpiece?

a) Short circuit
b) Open circuit
c) Arc initiation
d) Arc termination

A

a) Short circuit

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39
Q

During short circuit (when the welding electrode is in direct contact with the workpiece), which of the following applies

a) Maximum voltage with minimum current flow across the arc
b) Maximum voltage with maximum current flow across the arc
c) Minimum voltage with minimum current flow across the arc
d) Minimum voltage with maximum current flow across the arc

A

d) Minimum voltage with maximum current flow across the arc

a short circuit in which the welding electrode is in direct contact with the workpiece, shows almost no voltage across the arc, while at the same time there is maximum current flow.

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40
Q

Which type of power source is more suitable for situations where arc length is controlled by the welding equipment (wire fed processes)?

a) Constant current
b) Constant voltage
c) Variable current
d) Variable voltage

A

b) Constant voltage

Constant voltage output is most used with wire feed process such as GMAW where arc length is controlled by the welding equipment.

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41
Q

What aspect should be verified before purchasing a welding power supply?
a) Maximum amperage output
b) Type of welding process compatibility
c) Type of power availability
d) Length of welding cables included

A

b) Type of welding process compatibility

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42
Q

What is the function of a diode?

a) they allow current to flow in one direction only.
b) They allow voltage to flow in one direction only.
c) They allow current to flow in opposite directions
d) They allow voltage to flow in opposite directions

A

a) they allow current to flow in one direction only.

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43
Q

What device is created by grouping diodes together?

a) Capacitor
b) Transformer
c) Rectifier
d) Inductor

A

c) Rectifier

Grouping diodes together creates a device called a “rectifier”.

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44
Q

How do solid-state diodes conduct current?

a) In both directions with equal efficiency
b) In both directions with minimal voltage drop
c) In one direction with minimal voltage drop
d) In one direction with maximal voltage drop

A

c) In one direction with minimal voltage drop

Solid-state diodes allow rectification or conversion of AC to DC.

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45
Q

What does the arrow-like symbol for a diode indicate?

a) Voltage direction
b) Current direction
c) Resistance direction
d) Frequency direction

A

b) Current direction

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46
Q

What is the purpose of a diode in a fluid system analogy?

a) To regulate pressure
b) To control flow direction
c) To increase flow rate
d) To decrease fluid viscosity

A

b) To control flow direction

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47
Q

Half-wave rectifiers use one diode to produce _____ DC.

a) Single-phase
b) Two-phase
c) Three-phase
d) Four-phase

A

a) Single-phase

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48
Q

How many diodes does a half-wave rectifier use?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

A

a) One

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49
Q

What type of waveform does a half-wave rectifier produce?

a) Pulsating DC
b) Smooth DC
c) AC
d) Alternating DC

A

a) Pulsating DC

This pulsating type of waveform is too inefficient for a welding machine.

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50
Q

What is the main disadvantage of using a half-wave rectifier in a welding machine?

a) Low efficiency
b) Low ripple
c) Pulsating waveform
d) Smooth DC output

A

c) Pulsating waveform

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51
Q

How many diodes connected produce a full-wave rectified waveform?

a) Three-diode bridge
b) Four-diode bridge
c) Five-diode bridge
d) Six-diode bridge

A

b) Four

four diodes can be connected into a rectifier bridge to produce a full-wave rectified waveform, which includes both cycles of the AC.

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52
Q

How is it possible a three-phase alternating current can be full-wave rectified?

a) With a Three-diode bridge
b) With a Four-diode bridge
c) With a Five-diode bridge
d) With a Six-diode bridge

A

d) With a Six-diode bridge

Three-phase AC can also be full-wave rectified with a six-diode bridge to produce a much smoother DC output.

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53
Q

What is the term used to describe the variation in voltage after rectification?

a) Surge
b) Ripple
c) Spike
d) Fluctuation

A

b) Ripple

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54
Q

What is the output of a simple AC generator or alternator called?

a) Single phase
b) Multiple phase
c) Complex phase
d) Dual phase

A

a) Single phase

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55
Q

How are multiple AC outputs produced from a single alternator?

a) By increasing the armature windings
b) By decreasing the armature windings
c) By spacing the armature windings evenly
d) By connecting multiple alternators

A

c) By spacing the armature windings evenly

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56
Q

In a three-phase alternator, how are the windings spaced to produce three output waves?

a) Randomly
b) Unequally
c) Equally
d) Sequentially

A

c) Equally

Three-phase alternators have the windings spaced equally in order to produce three output waves, each shifted by one third of a cycle or 120°

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57
Q

How much are the output waves shifted in a three-phase alternator?

a) 60°
b) 90°
c) 120°
d) 180°

A

c) 120°

Three-phase alternators have the windings spaced equally in order to produce three output waves, each shifted by one third of a cycle or 120°

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58
Q

What is the standard for most power generation in the world?

a) Single-phase
b) Dual-phase
c) Three-phase
d) Quadruple-phase

A

c) Three-phase

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59
Q

How many separate single-phases does a three-phase generator produce?

a) Twelve
b) Nine
c) Six
d) Three

A

c) Three

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60
Q

Why are three-phase welding power supplies typically smoother than single-phase machines?

a) Due to the stability of the higher current flow ability
b) Due to the stability of the lower current flow ability
c) Due to the stability of the three-phase output
d) Due to the stability of the fluctuations in the output

A

c) Due to the stability of the three-phase output

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61
Q

What type of equipment is designed to operate efficiently from a three-phase supply?

a) Low-power devices only
b) High-power devices only
c) Both low and high-power devices
d) None of the above

A

c) Both low and high-power devices

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62
Q

What happens when an alternating current flows through one coil placed next to another coil without electrical contact?

a) The coils repel each other
b) The magnetic field changes direction
c) The coils generate heat
d) The coils create a direct current

A

b) The magnetic field [created by the flowing current] changes direction

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63
Q

How is a voltage induced in the second coil when the magnetic field changes?

a) By increasing the number of coils in the second coil
b) By reducing the size of the first coil
c) By increasing the current flow in the first coil
d) By altering the direction of the magnetic field

A

d) By altering the direction of the magnetic field

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64
Q

In a welding transformer, where are the leads connected?

a) To the first coil
b) To a separate power source
c) To the second coil
d) To the core

A

c) To the second coil

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65
Q

How is the output characteristic of a welding transformer achieved?

a) By changing the type of electrode
b) By altering the size and shape of the core
c) By adjusting the welding speed
d) By increasing the number of coils

A

b) By altering the size and shape of the core

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66
Q

What is the purpose of moving the primary coils away from the secondaries in a transformer-based welding machine?

a) To increase the output voltage
b) To decrease the output current
c) To reduce the effects of coupling
d) To improve the efficiency of coupling

A

c) To reduce the [effectiveness] of coupling

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67
Q

How is voltage induced in the second coil when the magnetic field changes?

a) By physical contact between the coils
b) By increasing the current in the first coil
c) By decreasing the resistance in the second coil
d) By electromagnetic induction

A

d) By electromagnetic induction

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68
Q

What does striking an arc in a welding transformer circuit accomplish?

a) It increases the voltage in the secondary coil
b) It completes the circuit and allows current to flow
c) It reduces the magnetic flux between the coils
d) It changes the direction of the magnetic field

A

b) It completes the circuit and allows current to flow

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69
Q

What is the primary function of a transformer in a welding power source?

a) To produce direct current
b) To amplify the sound waves of a DC
c) To regulate the temperature of an AC
d) To change the voltage of an AC

A

d) To change the voltage of an AC

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70
Q

How is the sloped output characteristic of a welding transformer achieved?

a) By increasing the resistance in the secondary coil
b) By changing the efficiency of coupling
c) By altering the shape of the leads
d) By decreasing the size of the core

A

b) By changing the efficiency of coupling [between primary and secondary coils]

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71
Q

What does moving the primary coils away from the secondary coils do to the transformer’s output?

a) Increases it
b) Decreases it
c) Stabilizes it
d) Does not affect it

A

b) Decreases it

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72
Q

What is the effect of moving part of the core to increase or decrease the strength of the magnetic field coupled to the secondary?

a) It increases the resistance in the primary coil
b) It reduces the efficiency of coupling
c) It changes the polarity of the secondary coil
d) It adjusts the output of the transformer

A

d) It adjusts the output of the transformer

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73
Q

What is the typical (10 minutes) duty cycle of a welding machine that runs for two minutes.

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%

A

b) 20%

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74
Q

What is the rated output of a welding machine at a 100% duty cycle?

a) 225 amps
b) 100 amps
c) 50 amps
d) 20 amps

A

b) 100 amps

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75
Q

What are welding cables typically insulated against?

a) Water, air born moistures, and mold
b) Sparks, flames, oils, and grease
c) Extreme temperatures only
d) Mechanical impact

A

b) Sparks, flames, oils, and grease

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76
Q

Why are specially manufactured types of insulation used for welding cables?

a) To reduce the cost of production
b) To increase the flexibility of the cables
c) To withstand adverse conditions
d) To improve conductivity

A

c) To withstand adverse conditions

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77
Q

What effect does the flow of electricity through welding cables have?

a) It reduces the flexibility of the cables
b) It increases the resistance to flow
c) It causes the cables to cool down
d) It heats and increases voltage drop

A

d) It heats and increases voltage drop

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78
Q

How are welding cables designed to minimize power loss and overheating?

a) By using thinner insulation layers
b) By increasing the resistance in the cables
c) By ensuring the cables are the correct size for the current and distance
d) By using aluminum instead of copper for the conductors

A

c) By ensuring the cables are the correct size for the current and distance

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79
Q

What is the purpose of thousands of very fine copper wires stranded in welding cables?

a) To increase the resistance to flow
b) To reduce flexibility
c) To improve conductivity and flexibility
d) To decrease the strength of the cables

A

c) To improve conductivity and flexibility

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80
Q

What material is typically used for the covering of welding cables?

a) Plastic
b) Paper
c) Rubber
d) Metal

A

c) Rubber

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81
Q

What material is typically used separate the wire in welding cables?

a) Plastic
b) Paper
c) Rubber
d) Metal

A

b) Paper

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82
Q

What does the paper wrapping around the wire in welding cables separate?

a) Conductor from insulation
b) Copper wires from each other
c) Rubber from the wire
d) Insulation from the outer covering

A

a) Conductor from insulation

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83
Q

What provides extra strength to welding cables?

a) Paper wrapping
b) Plastic sheath
c) Braided reinforcement
d) Copper wires

A

c) Braided [or solid sheath] reinforcement

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84
Q

Typically welding cable sizes range from #8 to_______.

a) #1
b) #1/0
c) #4
d) #4/0

A

d) #4/0

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85
Q

Welding cable size is determined by________.

a) Distance from machine and current settings
b) Width of workpiece and volt-amp curve
c) Rod size
d) Type of welding being done

A

a) Distance from machine and current settings

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86
Q

In a SMAW cable size chart, what does * mean?

a) Use double strand of #1/0
b) Use double strand of #2/0
c) Use double strand of #3/0
d) Use double strand of #4/0

A

b) Use double strand of #2/0

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87
Q

In a SMAW cable size chart, what does ** mean?

a) Use double strand of #1/0
b) Use double strand of #2/0
c) Use double strand of #3/0
d) Use double strand of #4/0

A

c) Use double strand of #3/0

88
Q

What is machine capacity measured in?

a) Volts
b) Watts
c) Amps
d) Ohms

A

c) Amps

89
Q

Duty cycle percentage typically ranges from 20% to _______.

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%

A

b) 60%

90
Q

Machine capacity typically ranges from 100 amps to _____.

a) 500 amps
b) 550 amps
c) 600 amps
d) 650 amps

A

d) 650 amps

91
Q

For copper cable sizes 15-30m (50-100 ft), the number range is from _________

a) #8 to #3/0
b) #4 to #3/0
c) #3 to #4/0
d) #2 to double strand #2/0
e) #1 to double strand #3/0

A

b) #4 to #3/0

92
Q

For copper cable sizes up to 15m (50 ft), the number range is from _________

a) #8 to #3/0
b) #4 to #3/0
c) #3 to #4/0
d) #2 to double strand #2/0
e) #1 to double strand #3/0

A

a) #8 to #3/0

93
Q

For copper cable sizes 45-60m (150-200 ft), the number range is from _________

a) #8 to #3/0
b) #4 to #3/0
c) #3 to #4/0
d) #2 to double strand #2/0
e) #1 to double strand #3/0

A

d) #2 to double strand #2/0

94
Q

For copper cable sizes 30-45m (100-150 ft), the number range is from _________

a) #8 to #3/0
b) #4 to #3/0
c) #3 to #4/0
d) #2 to double strand #2/0
e) #1 to double strand #3/0

A

c) #3 to #4/0

95
Q

For copper cable sizes 60-75m (200-250 ft), the number range is from _________

a) #8 to #3/0
b) #4 to #3/0
c) #3 to #4/0
d) #2 to double strand #2/0
e) #1 to double strand #3/0

A

e) #1 to double strand #3/0

96
Q

What is the primary function of the solid core wire in a SMAW electrode?

a) Shielding the arc
b) Stabilizing the arc
c) Conducting electrical current
d) Controlling weld metal chemistry

A

c) Conducting electrical current

Touching the flux of the electrode to the workpiece doesn’t create an arc, but touching the solid core of the electrode does.

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the flux coating in a SMAW electrode?

a) Shielding the arc and molten metal
b) Stabilizing the arc
c) Providing directional metal transfer
d) Altering the chemical composition of the weld

A

d) Altering the chemical composition of the weld

98
Q

What role does the flux coating play in terms of the weld metal chemistry?

a) It controls it
b) It stabilizes the arc
c) It provides a slag coating
d) It alters it

A

a) It controls it

99
Q

What measurement system does the CSA (Canadian Standards Association) system use?

a) Metric
b) Imperial
c) Both metric and imperial
d) None of the above

A

a) Metric

100
Q

Which organization certifies low-carbon steel electrodes in Canada?

a) CSA
b) AWS
c) CWB
d) ANSI

A

c) CWB

101
Q

How many electrodes are available in the area of low-carbon, low alloy, stainless, and specialty steels?

a) Over 50
b) Over 75
c) Over 100
d) Over 150

A

d) Over 150

102
Q

What is the arc temperature in SMAW?

a) 3000°
b) 4000°
c) 5000°
d) 6000°

A

d) 6000°

103
Q

How is the welding arc formed in (SMAW)?

a) By passing electricity through the electrode holder
b) By applying pressure between the electrode and the workpiece
c) By striking the electrode against the workpiece
d) By creating a circuit between the electrode, workpiece, and machine

A

d) By creating a circuit between the electrode, workpiece, and machine

104
Q

With reverse polarity, current will flow __________.

a) From the workpiece through the electrode lead back to the power source.
b) From the workpiece through the workpiece lead, back to the power source
c) From the power source through the electrode lead ending at the arc
d) From the power source through the workpiece lead ending at the arc.

A

b) From the workpiece through the workpiece lead, back to the power source

105
Q

What is pressure in an electrical circuit?

a. Amperes
b. Volts
c. Ohms
d. Watts

A

b. Volts

106
Q

What is the measurement called when the welding power source is turned on but hasn’t been struck?

A

Open circuit voltage

107
Q

Resistance is measured in_____

a. Amperes
b. Volts
c. Ohms
d. Watts

A

c. Ohms

108
Q

What is the formula for Ohms law?

a) V over (I)(R)
b) W over (A)(V)

A

a) V over (I)(R)

109
Q

What is the formula to calculate electrical power?

a) V over (I)(R)
b) W over (A)(V)

A

b) W over (A)(V)

110
Q

The further away from the welding power source the _________ the welding lead should have/be.

a) Larger diameter
b) Smaller diameter
c) Longer
d) Shorter

A

a) Larger diameter

111
Q

Electrical power is measured in ____.

a. Amperes
b. Volts
c. Ohms
d. Watts

A

d. Watts

112
Q

How many electrodes are available in the area of low-carbon, low alloy, stainless, and specialty steels?

a) Over 50
b) Over 75
c) Over 100
d) Over 150

A

d) Over 150

113
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the “E” represent?

E 49 1 8-1-HZ and E7018-1HZ R

a) Energy
b) Electrode
c) End
d) E-Volt

A

b) Electrode

114
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the first two digits represent?

E 49 1 8-1-HZ and E7018-1HZ R

a) Diameter of the electrode
b) Minimum tensile strength
c) Maximum current capacity
d) Manufacturer’s code

A

b) Minimum tensile strength

115
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the third digit represent?

E 49 1 8-1-HZ and E7018-1HZ R

a) Manufacturer’s code
b) Minimum tensile strength
c) Welding positions
d) Diameter of the electrode

A

c) Welding positions

116
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the fifth digit represent?

E7018-1HZ R

a) Improved impact strength
b) Minimum tensile strength
c) Welding positions
d) Diameter of the electrode

A

a) [Optional designator for improved notch toughness for CSA] Improved impact strength

117
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the fourth digit represent?

E 49 1 8-1-HZ and E7018-1HZ R

a) Manufacturer’s code
b) Minimum tensile strength
c) Welding positions
d) Covering and current type

A

d) Covering and current type

118
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the HZ represent?

E 49 1 8-1-HZ and E7018-1HZ R

a) Manufacturer’s code
b) Minimum tensile strength
c) Welding positions
d) Controlled hydrogen

A

d) [Optional designation for] controlled hydrogen represents the H, [the Z represents the number of mL per 100g and can have the values 2, 4, 8, or 16.]

119
Q

In the electrode specification, what does the R represent?

E7018-1HZ R

a) Passed the manufacturer’s code
b) Meet requirements of minimum tensile strength
c) Passed the absorbed moisture test
d) Controlled hydrogen

A

c) Passed the absorbed moisture test

120
Q

Which organization publishes standards almost identical to CSA W48-18?

a) ANSI
b) ISO
c) ASME
d) AWS

A

d) AWS

121
Q

What does the number “2” signify when used for SMAW electrodes?

a) Suitable for all positions
b) Designed for flat and horizontal fillets
c) Intended for flat welding only
d) Suitable for flat, horizontal, overhead, and vertical down positions

A

b) Designed for flat and horizontal fillets

122
Q

Which welding position is indicated by the abbreviation “OH”?

a) Flat position
b) Horizontal position
c) Vertical upward progression
d) Overhead position

A

d) Overhead position

123
Q

Which type of electrode has the designation “EXX10”?

a) Cellulose with sodium coating (DC electrode positive)
b) Cellulose with potassium coating (AC or DC electrode positive)
c) Cellulose with sodium coating (AC electrode positive)
d) Cellulose with potassium coating (DC electrode positive)

A

a) Cellulose with sodium coating (DC electrode positive)

124
Q

What position does “VU” represent in welding?

a) Vertical (vertical, upward progression)
b) Vertical (vertical, downward progression)
c) Flat position
d) Horizontal position

A

a) Vertical (vertical, upward progression)

125
Q

What type of electrode would have the designation “EXX11”?

a) Cellulose with sodium coating (DC electrode positive)
b) Cellulose with potassium coating (AC or DC electrode positive)
c) Cellulose with sodium coating (AC electrode positive)
d) Cellulose with potassium coating (DC electrode positive)

A

b) Cellulose with potassium coating (AC or DC electrode positive)

126
Q

What positions are indicated by an electrode with the number “4”?

a) Flat and horizontal only
b) Vertical upward and horizontal
c) Flat, horizontal, overhead, and vertical down
d) Vertical upward only

A

c) Flat, horizontal, overhead, and vertical down

127
Q

What is the significance of the number “1” in SMAW electrode designation?

a) Suitable for all positions
b) Designed for flat and horizontal fillets
c) Intended for flat welding only
d) Suitable for vertical welding only

A

a) Suitable for all positions

128
Q

What type of welding position is indicated by the abbreviation “VD”?

a) Vertical upward progression
b) Vertical downward progression
c) Flat position
d) Horizontal position

A

b) Vertical downward progression

129
Q

What type of electrode is E4310 (E6010)?

a) Low hydrogen electrode
b) Cellulose electrode
c) Rutile electrode
d) Basic electrode

A

b) Cellulose electrode

130
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of E4310 (E6010)?

a) Fast-freezing slag
b) All-position electrode
c) Used with direct current electrode positive (DCEP) only
d) Suitable for welding in horizontal positions

A

d) Suitable for welding in horizontal positions

131
Q

What is the typical polarity used with E4310 (E6010)?

a) Direct current electrode negative (DCEN)
b) Alternating current (AC)
c) Direct current electrode positive (DCEP)
d) Direct current electrode neutral (DCEN)

A

c) Direct current electrode positive (DCEP)

132
Q

Which element is added to E4311 (E6011) electrodes to increase arc stability at low open circuit voltage and low welding currents?

a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Calcium
d) Aluminum

A

b) Potassium

133
Q

Cellulose in electrode coatings helps to:

a. Increase weld metal deposition rates.
b. Bind the flux ingredients together.
c. Increase penetration.
d. Produce a thick slag covering for the weld.

A

c. Increase penetration.

134
Q

What is the most common electrode length?

a. 254 mm (10 in).
b. 300 mm (12 in).
c. 350 mm (14 in).
d. 406 mm (16 in).

A

c. 350 mm (14 in).

135
Q

Electrodes come in lengths of 225 mm (9 in) to:

a. 350 mm (14 in).
b. 609 mm (24 in).
c. 1000 mm (36 in).
d. 1219 mm (48 in).

A

c. 1000 mm (36 in)

136
Q

Electrode diameters range from 1.6 mm (1/16 in) to:

a. 4 mm (5/32 in).
b. 4.8 mm (3/16 in).
c. 5.6 mm (7/32 in).
d. 6.4 mm (1/4 in).

A

d. 6.4 mm (1/4 in).

137
Q

Which category of electrode is well suited to welding sheet metal?

a. Fast-fill.
b. Fast-freeze.
c. Fill-freeze.
d. Low-hydrogen.

A

c. Fill-freeze.

138
Q

High deposition electrodes are usually used in _____ positions:

a. Vertical and overhead.
b. All.
c. Flat and horizontal.
d. Flat only.

A

c. Flat and horizontal.

139
Q

What is the most commonly used electrode?

a. EXX10.
b. EXX14.
c. EXX18.
d. EXX24.

A

c. EXX18.

140
Q

The most common stainless-steel alloys are part of the _____ series.

a. 200.
b. 300.
c. 400.
d. 500.

A

b. 300.

141
Q

If a stainless-steel electrode code has an “L” attached to it, this indicates:

a. Low hydrogen.
b. Low carbon.
c. Low nickel.
d. Low iron.

A

b. Low carbon.

142
Q

What is the most common stainless steel alloy known as?

a) 18-8
b) 18-10
c) 16-8
d) 16-10

A

a) 18-8

The most common stainless steel is called “18-8 or austenitic stainless steels.” Which means it contains 18% chromium and 8% nickel.

143
Q

Which standard covers the requirements for covered electrodes for welding stainless steels?

a) ANSI Standard W48
b) ISO Standard W48
c) CSA Standard W48
d) ASTM Standard W48

A

c) CSA Standard W48

144
Q

Which AWS standard corresponds to stainless steel electrode type E70XX?

a) AWS A5.1
b) AWS A5.5
c) AWS A5.4
d) AWS A5.9

A

a) AWS A5.1

145
Q

In electrode classification such as E”309”L or E”310”LM, what do the three numbers indicate?

a) Chromium content
b) Nickel content
c) Weld metal composition
d) Carbon content

A

c) Weld metal composition

146
Q

What do the last two digits in electrode classification usually represent?

a) Welding position
b) Alloy type
c) Carbon content
d) Tensile strength

A

a) Welding position

147
Q

Which position is indicated by the number 1 in electrode classification?

a) Flat and horizontal only
b) All positions
c) Vertical only
d) Overhead only

A

b) All positions

148
Q

What are the two types of flux coating on SMAW electrodes?

a) Basic lime and acidic type
b) Rutile or titania type
c) Basic lime and rutile
d) Acidic and neutral type

A

c) Basic lime and rutile [or titania type]

149
Q

What is the recommended moisture level for cellulosic electrodes?
a) 1 to 3%
b) 3 to 7%
c) 7 to 10%
d) 10 to 15%

A

b) 3 to 7%

150
Q

True or false. (EXX10 and 11) should be placed in holding ovens.

a) True
b) False

A

b) False

151
Q

Which type of electrodes is most susceptible to moisture absorption?

a) Cellulosic
b) Low-hydrogen
c) Rutile
d) Basic

A

b) Low-hydrogen

152
Q

At what temperature should electrodes be stored in holding ovens after opening?

a) 80°C (176°F)
b) 100°C (212°F)
c) 120°C (248°F)
d) 150°C (302°F)

A

c)120°C (248°F)

153
Q

Why should electrode types not be mixed together in the holding oven?

a) It could lead to contamination
b) It increases the risk of explosion
c) It’s really annoying for Mike
d) It results in uneven heating

A

c) It’s really annoying for Mike

154
Q

How long should you take enough electrodes for use under normal circumstances?

a) Two-hour period
b) Three-hour period
c) Four-hour period
d) Six-hour period

A

c) Four-hour period

155
Q

What is the consequence of storing electrodes at improper moisture levels?

a) Decreased welding speed
b) Increased weld strength
c) Higher risk of porosity
d) Improved electrode performance

A

c) Higher risk of porosity

156
Q

For an E4918 (E7018) electrode, at what holding temperature should they be kept at?

a) 25° C to 140° C below ambient temperature
b) 25° C to 140° C above ambient temperature

A

b) 25° C to 140° C above ambient temperature

157
Q

What are the consequences of welding with low amperage?

a) Excessive spatter and irregular weld bead
b) Electrode melting too fast and insufficient heat
c) Difficulty in maintaining the arc and excessive heat
d) Insufficient heat and high bead with incomplete fusion

A

d) Insufficient heat and high bead with incomplete fusion

158
Q

What are the effects of welding with excessively high amperage?

a) Insufficient heat and electrode sticking
b) Weld puddle becoming too large to control and irregular weld bead
c) Difficulty in maintaining the arc and insufficient heat
d) Excessive spatter and electrode melting too fast

A

b) Weld puddle becoming too large to control and irregular weld bead

159
Q

When the amperage in welding is too low, what happens to the electrode?

a) It melts too fast
b) It becomes difficult to maintain the arc
c) It sticks to the workpiece
d) It produces excessive spatter

A

c) It sticks to the workpiece

160
Q

What happens if the amperage of the welding current is too high?

a) Electrode sticks and insufficient heat
b) Insufficient amperage and incomplete fusion
c) Excessive spatter and undercutting
d) Weld metal piles up producing a high bead

A

c) Excessive spatter and undercutting

161
Q

A normal recommended arc length is ____ the diameter of the core wire.

a) Four times
b) Three times
c) Two times
d) One times

A

d) One times

Basically saying the arc length should be the diameter of the core wire. Though the size does vary based on the electrode used.

162
Q

What is the work angle for groove welds?

a) 0°
b) 5-15°
c) 20-35°
d) 40-50°

A

a) 0°

163
Q

What is the work angle for fillet welds?

a) 0°
b) 5-15°
c) 20-35°
d) 40-50°

A

d) 40-50°

164
Q

Generally the electrode angle is ___ the total joint angle.

a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 1/10

A

c) 1/2

165
Q

What is travel angle in welding?

a) The speed at which the electrode moves during welding
b) The angle of the electrode relative to the workpiece
c) The distance between the electrode and the workpiece
d) The thickness of the welding material

A

b) The angle of the electrode relative to the workpiece

166
Q

What is the travel angle called when the electrode points toward the start of the weld?

a) Pull angle
b) Push angle
c) Lead angle
d) Drag angle

A

a) Pull angle

and

d) Drag angle

167
Q

What is the travel angle called when the electrode points in the direction of travel?

a) Pull angle
b) Push angle
c) Lead angle
d) Drag angle

A

b) Push angle

and

c) Lead angle

168
Q

What is another term for backhand welding?

a) Forehand welding
b) Pull welding
c) Drag welding
d) Trailing welding

A

a) Forehand welding

169
Q

What is another term for pull (drag) angle?

a) Backhand welding
b) Pull welding
c) Drag welding
d) Trailing welding

A

a) Backhand welding

170
Q

Normally weaving beads should never exceed ________ times the electrode diameter.

a) 1 1/2
b) 2
c) 2 1/2
d) 3

A

c) 2 1/2

Normally weaving beads should never exceed 2 1/2 times the electrode diameter because there is a risk of slag entrapment at the toes of the weld if the bead is too wide.

171
Q

Which type of material is edge joints primarily used on?

a) Heavy-gauge material
b) Cast iron
c) Sheet metal
d) Aluminum

A

c) Sheet metal

172
Q

What equipment is commonly used to turn up the edges of sheet metal in preparation for edge joints?

a) Welding torch
b) Plasma cutter
c) Metal grinder
d) Brake

A

d) Brake

173
Q

Why are turned-up edges preferred when working with thin metal?

a) They decrease the risk of burn-through
b) They decrease the risk of distortion
c) They decrease the need for additional filler metal
d) They are fancy

A

b) They decrease the risk of distortion

174
Q

When working with plate for edge joints, what must be done to ensure sufficient penetration?

a) No additional preparation is needed
b) The edges must be chamfered or beveled
c) The edges must be blow torched
d) The edges must be coated with a special solution

A

b) The edges must be chamfered or beveled

175
Q

(2 part question)

The MINIMUM overlap for lap joints should be ____ times the thickness of the ____ part joined.

a) Five
b) Four
c) Three
d) Two

a) Thicker
b) Thinner
c) Slanted
d) Curved

A

a) Five
b) Thinner

The MINIMUM overlap for lap joints should be five times the thickness of the thinner part joined.

176
Q

What is an acceptable fillet weld profile?

The convexity shall not exceed__________

a) 0.05W + 1.5 mm
b) 0.07W + 1.6 mm
c) 0.09W + 1.6 mm
d) 1W + 1.5 mm

A

b) 0.07W + 1.6 mm

177
Q

Fillet weld sizes are usually measured in mm in the ___ system
or “ in the ______ customary system

a) SI and CAD customary system
b) SE and US customary system
c) SE and JAP customary system
d) SI and US customary system

A

d) SI and US customary system

178
Q

The smallest dimension for fillet welds is adjusted to the nearest size in ____ intervals.

a) 1.6mm (1/16”)
b) 1.9mm (5/64)

A

a) 1.6mm (1/16”)

179
Q

The number of passes for groove welds depends on the _______

a) Length of the base metal
b) Thickness of the base metal
c) Thickness of your welds
d) Temperature of your arc

A

b) Thickness of the base metal

180
Q

For groove welds, the maximum thickness for the base metal is ____.

a) 6mm (1/4”)
b) 8.5mm (1/3”)
c) 5mm (1/5”)
d) 3mm (1/8”)

A

a) 6mm (1/4”)

181
Q

When grinding stainless steel, use _____________ wheels and sanding abrasives.

a) Stainless steel
b) Aluminum
c) Aluminum oxide
d) Diamond

A

c) Aluminum oxide

182
Q

What is the function of the coating (slag) on a stainless steel weld bead?

a) To improve the appearance of the weld
b) To protect the weld from oxidation
c) To provide electrical conductivity
d) To increase the strength of the weld

A

b) To protect the weld from oxidation

183
Q

When can the slag typically detach from a stainless steel weld bead?

a) Immediately after welding
b) During the welding process
c) As the workpiece cools
d) After the workpiece has cooled completely

A

c) As the workpiece cools

184
Q

Under what circumstances might slag on a stainless steel weld bead pose a safety risk?

a) When the slag is still molten
b) When the slag forms a smooth surface
c) When the slag is completely cooled
d) When the slag pops of while cooling

A

d) When the slag pops of while cooling

185
Q

Why are austenitic stainless steels more prone to distortion during welding compared to carbon steels?

a) They have higher thermal conductivity
b) They have lower coefficient of thermal expansion
c) They have lower heat resistance
d) They have higher coefficient of thermal expansion

A

b) They have lower coefficient of thermal expansion

186
Q

How does the thermal conductivity of austenitic stainless steels compare to that of carbon steels?

a) It is higher
b) It is lower
c) It is about the same
d) It varies depending on the grade

A

b) It is lower

187
Q

What effect does the lower thermal conductivity of austenitic stainless steels have on the weld bead and surrounding area during welding?

a) They cool faster
b) They stay hotter longer
c) They expand less
d) They contract rapidly

A

b) They stay hotter longer

188
Q

What can happen to the root opening of an unrestrained groove weld during welding of austenitic stainless steel?

a) It becomes narrower
b) It remains unchanged
c) It becomes wider
d) It disappears

A

c) It becomes wider

189
Q

Which technique can be used to minimize distortion when welding thin materials?

a) Increase welding speed
b) Increase heat input
c) Use frequent tack welds
d) Use skip or back-step welding

A

c) Use frequent tack welds
d) Use skip or back-step welding

190
Q

What purpose do robust jigs and fixtures serve during welding of austenitic stainless steel?

a) Increase distortion
b) Decrease distortion
c) Prevent distortion
d) Have no effect on distortion

A

b) Decrease distortion

191
Q

How can the cooling rate of welds be increased when welding austenitic stainless steel?

a) Use thicker materials
b) Use thinner materials
c) Use frequent tack welds
d) Use chill blocks

A

d) Use chill blocks

192
Q

What strategy can be employed for large assemblies to minimize distortion when welding austenitic stainless steel?

a) Welding without any sequence
b) Random welding sequence
c) Planned welding sequence
d) Increase welding speed

A

c) Planned welding sequence

193
Q

What primarily causes distortion in metal during welding?

a) Decrease in temperature
b) Uniform expansion of the metal
c) Unbalanced residual stresses
d) Decrease in volume

A

c) Unbalanced residual stresses [that are greater than the yield strength o the part of parts].

194
Q

What influences distortion?

a) Heat input from welding process
b) Mechanical and thermal properties of parent metal
c) Restrain
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

195
Q

How does angular distortion happen?

a) When the angles between welded parts are altered by contraction
b) When the sides between heated parts are altered by expansion
c) When the angles underneath welded parts are altered by expansion
d) When the sides between welded parts are altered by contraction

A

a) When the angles between welded parts are altered by contraction

196
Q

a T-joint made with single fillet weld will have ______ in two planes.

a) Excessive expansion
b) Heated contraction
c) Angular distortion
d) None of the above

A

c) Angular distortion

197
Q

Adding a second weld will help realign distortion on the vertical part, but ______

a) Decrease expansion on the horizontal plate
b) Increase contraction on the horizontal plate
c) Increase distortion on the horizontal plate
d) None of the above

A

c) Increase distortion on the horizontal plate

198
Q

What is excess reinforcement in welding?

a) Insufficient weld material deposited
b) The ideal amount of weld metal deposited
c) Excessive convexity in a fillet weld
What is excess reinforcement in welding?

a) Insufficient weld material deposited
b) The ideal amount of weld metal deposited
c) Excessive convexity in a fillet weld
d) The amount of weld metal deposited past limits

A

d) The amount of weld metal deposited [exceeding acceptable] limits

199
Q

What issue can arise due to excess reinforcement in a weld?

a) Increased structural integrity
b) Decreased weld strength
c) Concentration of stresses
d) Enhanced weld appearance

A

c) Concentration of stresses

200
Q

According to CSA standard W59, what is the maximum permitted reinforcement on groove welds?

a) 1 mm (1/16 in)
b) 2 mm (1/8 in)
c) 3 mm (1/8 in)
d) 4 mm (3/16 in)

A

c) 3 mm (1/8 in)

201
Q

What is overlap in welding?

a) A condition where there is insufficient weld metal at the toe of a weld
b) A condition where the weld metal extends beyond the limits of fusion
c) A condition where there is no fusion between the base metals
d) A condition where there is excessive heat input during welding

A

b) A condition where the weld metal extends beyond the limits of fusion

Overlap is a condition where an excess of weld metal exists at the toe of a weld beyond the limits of fusion. This condition produces notches that are harmful due to a resultant stress concentration under load and, in the case of a filet weld, may reduce its effective size.

202
Q

What can overlap hide?

a) Weld pool size
b) Undercut
c) Welding parameters
d) Incomplete fusion

A

d) Incomplete fusion

203
Q

How is overlap typically corrected?

a) By increasing the travel speed during welding
b) By adding more surface contaminants
c) By removing the excess metal and blending the area
d) By adjusting the base metal temperature

A

c) By removing the excess metal and blending the area

204
Q

What action should be taken if the resulting weld after correcting overlap is undersize?

a) Add more surface contaminants to create the desired weld size
b) Increase the voltage and amperage to create the desired weld size
c) Apply a protective coating to create the desired weld size
d) Add another pass to create the desired weld size

A

d) Add another pass to create the desired weld size

205
Q

What type of stress concentration can occur due to overlap?

a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Notch stress

A

d) Notch stress

206
Q

What is incomplete fusion in welding?

a) A defect where the weld melts excessively
b) An internal issue where the weld doesn’t melt into base materials
c) A condition causing excessive heat in the weld
d) A phenomenon where the welding process fails

A

b) An internal issue where the weld doesn’t melt into base materials

207
Q

How can incomplete fusion weaken the weld?

a) By making the weld too brittle
b) By causing excessive heat
c) By creating gaps in the weld joint
d) By preventing proper bonding between materials

A

d) By preventing proper bonding between materials

208
Q

How can incomplete fusion be detected?

a) Through visual inspection only
b) Only by ultrasonic testing
c) Through guided bend tests or ultrasonic testing
d) By measuring the temperature of the weld

A

c) Through guided bend tests or ultrasonic testing

209
Q

True or false. The primary factors to incomplete fusions are electrode selection, welding parameters, joint design, and fit-up

a) True
b) False

A

a) True

210
Q

On material over ______, side bends are chosen.

a) 38 mm (1-1/2 in)
b) 10 mm (3/8 in)
c) 25 mm (1 in)
d) 50 mm (2 in)

A

b) 10 mm (3/8 in)

211
Q

Side bend specimens are normally ______ wide regardless of thickness.

a) 38 mm (1-1/2 in)
b) 10 mm (3/8 in)
c) 25 mm (1 in)
d) 50 mm (2 in)

A

b) 10 mm (3/8 in)

212
Q

For pieces 10 mm (3/8 in) wide regardless of thickness which of the following bend test applies?

a) Root bend
b) Face bend
c) Side bend
d) None of the above

A

a) Root bend

and

b) Face bend

213
Q

In a face bend test, the metal is bent so that the face is __________________.

a) on the inside curvature so that it is under the least tensile stress
b) on the outside curvature so that it is under the least tensile stress
c) on the inside curvature so that it is under the greatest tensile stress
d) on the outside curvature so that it is under the greatest tensile stress

A

d) on the outside curvature so that it is under the greatest tensile stress

214
Q

What size should the edges of the bend specimens should be ground rounded to?

a) 1 mm (1/16 in)
b) 2 mm (1/8 in)
c) 3 mm (1/8 in)
d) 4 mm (3/16 in)

A

c) 3 mm (1/8 in)

215
Q

All grinding marks on the face and root surfaces should be _______ to the lengths (or direction of rolling) of the specimen.

a) Horizontal
b) Flush
c) Parallel
d) Vertical

A

c) Parallel

216
Q

Aside from the marks on the face and root surfaces, the weld deposit reinforcement should be _____ with the base metal.

a) Horizontal
b) Flush
c) Parallel
d) Vertical

A

b) Flush