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Line C ALL Flashcards

1
Q

What is the voltage limitation on the secondary side of a control power transformer for a safety control circuit of a gas fired appliance?

A

120 V

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2
Q

What is the primary purpose of the design of an isolation transformer?

A

To physically and electrically separate primary and secondary windings from each other.

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3
Q

What type of transformer is used for power conditioning?

A

Isolation transformer

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4
Q

What is protected by fusing the secondary side of a control power transformer?

A

The transformers secondary winding

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5
Q

Referring to the figure below, what type of transformer is represented?

A

Control power transformer

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6
Q

Referring to the figure below, what primary and secondary voltage is the transformer configured for?

A

Primary 480 V / secondary 120 V

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7
Q

What information is required from the loads energized to size a control power transformer?

A

Total inrush VA

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8
Q

What is the minimum ignition transformer secondary voltage required for direct spark ignition of main burner gas?

A

6000 V

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9
Q

What is the minimum ignition transformer secondary voltage required for ignition of an oil burner?

A

10,000V

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10
Q

Where are the potentiometers housed on a steam boiler with a single point positioning system utilizing a bridge circuit?

A

Modulation motor and modulating Pressuretrol

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11
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the fixed resistance between points B & W of the bridge circuit?

A

135 Ω

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12
Q

Referring to the figure below, once released to modulate, what would cause the modulation motor to rotate open?

A

A decrease in resistance between R & B and an increase of resistance between R & W of the modulating control.

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13
Q

Referring to the figure below, what will happen to the firing rate if the wiper (R) in the modulating control moved towards (W)?

A

The burner firing rate will decrease

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14
Q

Referring to the figure below, what would indicate that the bridge circuit is balanced?

A

The motor stops rotating.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the N.C. limit switches in the open winding and closed winding circuits of the modulation motor?

A

To prevent over rotation of the motor

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16
Q

What device is NOT part of the 4–20 ma control loop?

A

Sensor

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17
Q

What work does a power rectifier perform?

A

Converts alternating current (AC) in direct current (DC)

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18
Q

What work does a power inverter perform?

A

Converts direct current (DC) into alternating current (AC)

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19
Q

Where may a gasfitter see the use of a power inverter?

A

Within the last stage of a variable frequency drive (VFD)

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20
Q

Where may a gasfitter see the use of a power converter?

A

Within the first stage of a variable frequency drive (VFD)

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21
Q

What electrical device(s) within the power rectifier converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC)?

A

Bridge rectifier

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22
Q

What electrical device(s) within the power inverter converts direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC)?

A

Transistors and MOSFETs

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23
Q

For control point instrumentation, what does RTD stand for?

A

Resistance temperature detector

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24
Q

What type of RTD is mostly used in the industrial sector?

A

Coiled element RTD

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25
Q

The known electrical resistance at a specific temperature of the metal that makes up an RTD allows the RTD to be accurate within its temperature limits.

A

True

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26
Q

What metal is most commonly used in an RTD in industrial applications?

A

Platinum

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27
Q

How does an RTD work?

A

The resistance increases as the temperature of the sensor increases

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28
Q

Which is the most common RTD wiring configuration that gives a good combination of accuracy and convenience?

A

3-wire

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29
Q

A 4-wire RTD gives the best accuracy even though most industrial controllers/measurement devices cannot make a true four wire measurement.

A

True

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30
Q

What is the characteristic of a 3-wire RTD configuration?

A

It allows the measurement to factor out the resistance of the leads

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31
Q

What type of circuit is used in an RTD to measure the resistance?

A

Wheatstone bridge

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32
Q

How does a thermocouple interpret changes in temperature?

A

Change in Voltage

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33
Q

A ____________ has wider operation ranges than an RTD.

A

Thermocouples

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34
Q

RTDs are more sensitive than thermocouples thus they react faster.

A

False

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35
Q

Which statement is true when comparing thermocouples to RTDs?

A

Thermocouples react faster than RTDs, but RTDs are more accurate

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36
Q

What can limit the maximum range of a thermocouple?

A

Its diameter

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37
Q

How does a pressure transducer work?

A

It converts pressure into an electrical signal

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38
Q

What produces the electrical signal in a pressure transducer?

A

Strain gauge

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39
Q

What types of electrical output is available for a pressure transducer?

A

Millivolt, 0-10 Voltage, 4-20 mA

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40
Q

How many platinum RTDs does a thermal mass flow meter use?

A

2

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41
Q

In a thermal mass flow meter, what task does each RTD perform?

A

One RTD measures the fluid temperature and the second maintains a constant temperature differential above the process fluid

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42
Q

What three things is an automatic O2 trim system designed to compensate for?

A

Fuel characteristics, temperature, barometric pressure

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43
Q

What sensor is the critical component used to reduce emissions in a modern biomass boiler?

A

O2 sensor

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44
Q

To give better control and more consistent/accurate positioning for a modulating burner, in what system are servo motors used?

A

In a parallel positioning system

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45
Q

What is the standard voltage used for industrial control circuitry?

A

120 volts

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46
Q

Why are separate ignition transformers used for industrial burner systems?

A

To generate a big and hot enough spark to ensure the fuel ignites quickly and efficiently

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47
Q

Are limit circuits wired in parallel or series?

A

In series

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48
Q

List four specific conditions that a limit in a circuit control can control for?

A

Temperature, Pressure, Liquid Level and Liquid Flow

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49
Q

What are the two types of reset for limit switches?

A

Manual or Automatic

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50
Q

Referring to Figure 1, what type of limit is represented?

A

A High pressure limit switch

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51
Q

What does an operating control do and what are the two most common limits associated with them?

A

An operating control turns the burner system on and off based on temperature or pressure.

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52
Q

Referring to Figure 2, what is this the symbol for in a limit circuit?

A

Pressure switch

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53
Q

Referring to Figure 3, what is this the symbol for in a limit circuit?

A

Temperature switch

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54
Q

Referring to Figure 4, what is this the symbol for in a limit circuit?

A

Float switch

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55
Q

Referring to Figure 5, what is this the symbol for in a limit circuit?

A

Flow switch

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56
Q

What is one purpose of a permissive circuit?

A

To ensure two incompatible events don’t occur at the same time.

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57
Q

Define an interlock:

A

An interlock is a feature that makes the state of two mechanisms or functions mutually dependent (one can’t work without the other)

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58
Q

A DFMAH shall be ______ in such a way as to prevent its operation unless the exhaust system is functioning.

A

Interlocked

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59
Q

What must be proved when using automatically operated louvres for the inlet and discharge of a DFMA?

A

They must be proved fully open.

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60
Q

What is the purpose of a purge interlock?

A

To prove that the purge air flow rate is at maximum during the purge

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61
Q

An airflow switch is an example of what type of interlock.

A

Running interlock

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62
Q

The low fire start interlock permits the ignition of the pilot of main flame at an input of:

A

40% or less of the rated maximum input

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63
Q

What are the advantage of a 3-phase motor over a single-phase motor?

A
  • They’re more efficient
  • Physical size is less for the same power and voltage rating
  • It’s easier to change the direction of rotation
64
Q

What are the two main industry standards for electric motors?

A

IEC and NEMA

65
Q

What is the purpose of a Service Duty for an electric motor?

A

To determine if the motor is correct for the application

66
Q

What is the purpose of the Ingress Protection (IP) of an electric motor?

A

To measure how well the motor is protected from the surrounding environment

67
Q

What is the temperature rating of a Class B electric motor?

A

130 °C

68
Q

What is the temperature rating of a Class F electric motor?

A

155 °C

69
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the temperature rating of the motor?

A

155 °C

70
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the amount of overload (in %) the motor can handle for short periods of time when operating within its normal voltage and frequency tolerance?

A

15%

71
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the Power Factor of the motor?

A

93%

72
Q

Referring to the figure below, what would be the calculated RPM of the motor?

A

1,200 RPM

73
Q

If the synchronous speed of a motor is 1300 RPM and the rated full load speed is 1251 RPM, what is the calculated slip rating in a percentage?

A

3.77%

74
Q

What is the calculated Synchronous RPM of a 6-pole three-phase induction motor when operated at 60 Hz if the three-phase induction motor has a Full Load RPM rating on the nameplate of 1300 RPM?

A

1200 RPM

75
Q

What is the calculated Full Load RPM of a 4-pole three-phase induction motor when operated at 50 Hz if the three-phase induction motor has a Full Load RPM rating of 1745 and a synchronous RPM rating of 1800?

A

1454 RPM

76
Q

Torque induced on the rotor is directly proportional to the amount of slip of the induction motor.

TRUE / FALSE

A

TRUE

77
Q

What is the driving force of an electric motor?

A

Torque

78
Q

When is the most torque typically produced on an electric motor?

A

At start up

79
Q

If an electric motor is rated at 18 horsepower and runs at an RPM of 1900 how much torque can the motor produce?

A

49.76 ft/lb

80
Q

If an electric motor is rated at 6 KW and runs at an RPM of 1,850, how much torque can the motor produce in newton meters?

A

30.97 Nm

81
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the type of electric motor connection?

A

Delta

82
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the type of electric motor connection?

A

Star

83
Q

Referring to the figure below, what would the phase current be if the line voltage is 400 volt and the coil impedance is 15 Ohms?

A

26.67 Amps

84
Q

Referring to the figure below, what would the phase voltage be if the line voltage is 346 volt and the coil impedance is 30 Ohms?

A

200 Volts

85
Q

What is the most common causes of motor failure?

A

bad bearings

86
Q

What can cause excessive current draw on a motor during normal operation?

A
  • damaged bearings
  • damaged windings
  • broken shaft
87
Q

What will the size of the wire be from the mag starter to motor if 230 volts is used?

A

6 AWG

88
Q

What will the size of the mag starter be if 460 volts is used?

A

NEMA 2

89
Q

What size overloads are required for the motor starter if 460 volts is used?

A

31.25 Amps
25 amps
1.15 service equals 125% of 25 amps
less than 1.15= 115%
rule 28 -208?

90
Q

What will be the rated size of the disconnect time-delay fuses if 230 volts is used?

A

87.5 Amps

91
Q

For a PID controller, what does the proportional do?

A

It produces an output value that is proportional to the current error value

92
Q

For a PID controller, what does the derivative do?

A

It sums the error over time

93
Q

For a PID controller, what does the proportional gain do?

A

It determines the ratio of output response to the error signal

94
Q

For a PID controller, what does the integral do?

A

It acts as a brake or dampener on the control effort

95
Q

A VFD or variable frequency drive is also know by what other names?

A

Variable speed drives, adjustable drives, adjustable frequency drives, frequency converts

96
Q

What are some of the reasons why we would want to adjust motor speeds?

A

Save energy (improve efficiency), Match the speed to process requirements, match the torque to process requirements, lower noise levels, reduce mechanical stress, and improve working environment.

97
Q

What are some applications where a gas fitter may see a VFD used?

A

DFMA, pumps, fans, compressors

98
Q

What process takes AC power and turns it into DC power in a VFD?

A

The converter phase, also known as rectification.
AC-DC –DC– DC-AC
converter DC BUS Inverter

99
Q

What smooths out the DC power in a VFD?

A

The DC bus phase
AC-DC –DC– DC-AC
converter DC BUS Inverter

100
Q

What is the phase called were the DC power is turned back into AC power called?

A

The inverter phase

AC-DC –DC– DC-AC
converter DC BUS Inverter

101
Q

Why do we go through the process of changing AC power to DC power and then back to AC power?

A

This is done so that we can control the frequency (hertz) and voltage and in this way better control the motor.

102
Q

What electrical component is used to rectify the AC power and convert it into DC power?

A

Diodes

103
Q

How is the DC power smoothed out during the DC bus phase?

A

Through the use of capacitors which add energy to the DC waveform when voltage drops

104
Q

What is used to change the DC power back to AC power?

A

IGBT (insulated gate bipolar transistors)

105
Q

For what two reasons is an overcurrent protection device required in the AC supply to the VFD?

A
  • To provide thermal protection for the VFD cables between the location of the overcurrent protective device and the VFD
  • To limit the energy available at the location of a short circuit
106
Q

What four conditions can present issues for VFDs?

A
  • No Flow conditions
  • High speed response
  • Full load conditions
  • Equipment speed limitations
107
Q

What is main difference between the motors of a VFD and an ECM?

A

The ECM is a DC motor whereas the VFD is an AC motor.

108
Q

What type of current and how many phase is an ECM?

A

The power produced is 3 phase DC output

109
Q

What is the most common use of EC motors in the gas fitting world?

A

Fans: air-handlers, ventilation fans, furnace fans

110
Q

How does an ECM achieve commutation?

A

Electronically, with onboard electronics

111
Q

Where are the permanent magnets located in an ECM?

A

In the rotor

112
Q

What, commonly, can cause a power surge?

A

A Lightning Strike, High power draws, Tripped breakers

113
Q

What is the definition of insufficient voltage?

A

The decrease of electrical power to 90% of normal for 1 minute or more

114
Q

What is the most common cause of insufficient voltage?

A

An overloaded system

115
Q

What is a short circuit?

A

A low resistance connection between two conductors supplying electrical power to any circuit

116
Q

What could cause a short circuit?

A

Damaged insulation, a loose wire, faulty appliance wiring

117
Q

What device is used to break the circuit when it detects and electric arc in the circuit?

A

An Arc Fault Circuit Interrupter (AFCI)

118
Q

What could be a reason for a fuse to blow?

A

An overloaded circuit, a short circuit, a ground fault, an arc fault

119
Q

What could be a consequence of corrosion on our electrical connection?

A
  • Loss of material leading to loss of function
  • Introduction of additional resistance leading to added heat and eventual failure
120
Q

Which type of wire is the least resistant to corrosion?

A

Aluminum

121
Q

What is the consequence of switching the neutral wire instead of the hot wire on an appliance disconnect switch?

A

The appliance will always be live, even when the switch is open. Leading to a risk of electrical shock for the technician

122
Q

To protect against a low water condition how many fuel cutoff devices are required on an automatically fired steam boiler?

A

2

123
Q

Beside shutting off the burner, what is another function of a low water cut-off device on a steam boiler?

A

Energize feed pump

124
Q

What is done to change the operating level of an external float style LWCO device

A

Change the installation piping

125
Q

What is the purpose of a steam trap?

A

It prevents steam from entering the condensate return piping

126
Q

At what point does the thermostatic steam trap open?

A

When the condensate temperature drops below saturated steam temperature

127
Q

What does the thermodynamic steam trap operate on the basis of?

A

Bernoulli’s principle

128
Q

The thermodynamic steam trap will work on lower pressure systems.

TRUE / FALSE

A

FALSE

129
Q

What is an arc flash?

A

The light and heat created from an arc fault explosion

130
Q

What is an arc blast?

A

The pressure wave created after an arc fault

131
Q

What is the major cause of an arc flash?

A

Voltage transients

132
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is arc flash boundary 1 referred to as?

A

Arc flash protection boundary

133
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is arc flash boundary 2 referred to as?

A

Arc flash limited approach boundary

134
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is arc flash boundary 3 referred to as?

A

Arc flash restricted boundary

135
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is arc flash boundary 4 referred to as?

A

Arc flash prohibited boundary

136
Q

What is defined as an arc flash protection boundary?

A

The calculated safe working distance from electrical equipment which would not expose the employee to the hazards associated with an electrical arc flash.

137
Q

What is defined as an arc flash limited approach boundary?

A

The minimum permitted distance that unqualified and unprotected personnel may approach a live component.

138
Q

What is defined as an arc flash prohibited boundary?

A

The boundary where no electrical worker is permitted unless proper procedures, PPE, training, energized work permits, and risk assessment are all in place.

139
Q

What is defined as an arc flash restricted approach boundary?

A

The minimum permitted distance where personnel need to have been trained in shock protection techniques, be wearing the correct PPE, and have a written and approved plan for any work in the zone.

140
Q

Referring to the DFMA Wiring Diagram, the DFMA supply fan isn’t running and you take the following readings with your multimeter:
- 120 Volts across terminals 1 and 2
- 0 Volts across terminals 1 and 12
- 120 Volts across terminals 12 and 13

What is the conclusion that you come as to why the DFMA supply fan is not running?

A

The inlet damper limit switch is open. Possible causes: the damper is not fully opening; the damper motor is not working; the damper linkages are disconnected; or the damper limit switch is not working.

141
Q

Referring to the DFMA Wiring Diagram, the DFMA burner is not firing. You take the following readings with your multimeter:
- 120 Volts across terminals 1 and 2
- 0 Volts across terminals 13 and 16
- 120 Volts across terminals 16 and 18
- 0 volts across terminals 19 and 20
- 0 volts at #7 terminal on the Fireye flame relay

What is the conclusion that you come as to why the burner is not firing?

A

The burner start contact is open. Could be a faulty relay (not energizing) or the start button has not been pressed.

142
Q

Referring to the DFMA Wiring Diagram, the DFMA burner is not firing. You take the following readings with your multimeter:
- 120 Volts across terminals 1 and 2
- 0 Volts across terminals 13 and 16
- 0 Volts across terminals 16 and 18
- 120 volts across terminals 20 and 21
- 120 volts from terminals 20 to 2
- 0 volts from terminals 21 to 2

What is the conclusion that you come as to why the burner is not firing?

A

High airflow switch is open. Causes could be: fan speed too high (sheaves not set correctly - too much velocity across the profile plates), improperly adjusted profile plates (too much velocity), failed switch, sensing tubing disconnected.

143
Q

Referring to the DFMA wiring Diagram, the DFMA burner is not firing. You take the following readings with your multimeter:
- 120 Volts across terminals 1 and 2
- 120 Volts across terminals 18 and 22
- 0 volts across terminals 20 and 21
- 120 volts from terminals 20 to 2
- 120 volts from terminals 21 to 2
- 0 volts at #7 terminal on the Fireye flame relay

What is the conclusion that you come as to why the burner is not firing?

A

Low airflow switch is open. Possible causes: the inlet supply filters are plugged, faulty air switch, a service door is open, fan speed too low (sheaves not set correctly - too little velocity), sensing tubing disconnected.

144
Q

Referring to the DFMA wiring Diagram, the DFMA outlet temperature is too low. You take the following readings with your multimeter:
- 120 Volts across terminals 1 and 2
- 0 Volts across terminals 18 and 22
- 120 volts at #7 terminal on the Fireye flame relay
- 120 volts across terminal 30 to 2
- 24 volts across terminals 34 and 35
- 0 volts across terminals 36 and 37

What is the conclusion that you come as to why the burner is not firing?

A

Burner modulation 0-10 Volt system has no voltage. This means the burner is stuck in low fire and can’t modulate/ramp up to high fire.

145
Q

Referring to the figure below, the loop current is measured at 29 mA. What are the possible causes of the excess load on the loop?

A

Miswiring, ground loop, a problem with the transmitter

146
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the minimum power supply required for the 4-20 mA loop?

A

25 Volts

147
Q

If two points in a 4-20 mA loop are grounded it can create an alternate pathway for the loop current to flow through.

TRUE / FALSE

A

True

148
Q

Referring to the figure below, what should the resistance value be of the shunt resister given the following information?
- Source volts: 26
- Source current: 125
- Loop current: 20 mA max

A

125-20 = 105
26÷105= .2476 x 100 is 247.6 ohms
248 Ohms

149
Q

In computer networking, what Does LAN stand for?

A

Local Area Network

150
Q

In Computer networking, what does WAN stand for?

A

Wide Area Network

151
Q

In computer networking, what is a LAN?

A

A group of computer devices connected with each other in a small place such as a home, school, campus, hospital, or a factory

152
Q

In computer networking, what is a WAN?

A

A long-distance network that covers a country, continent, or the whole world

153
Q

In computer networking, what is a MAN?

A

A larger networking area connecting Local Area Networks to a larger network of computers

154
Q

In computer networking, what is the purpose of a firewall?

A

stops attacks from WAN to LAN

155
Q

Even though it is old technology, what type of serial interface connection is still commonly used with industrial machines?

A

RS232

156
Q

What type of ethernet connector is used in corrosive environments or when washdowns are needed?

A

M8 or M12 connectors

Line C (13 decks)

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