Limitations N641GT Flashcards

1
Q

Approved Operations

A

Visual (VFR)
Instrument (IFR)
Icing Conditions
Extended Overwater Operations (ETOPS, except -200SF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max operating altitude

A

43,100’ pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing altitude

A

8,400’ pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum takeoff/landing tailwind

A

10kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ground wind limit for entry and lower cargo doors

A

40 kts while opening or closing
65kts while open (-300)
60kts (-200)

40 main deck cargo door fully open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Takeoff crosswind component

RCC 6

A

40kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Landing crosswind component

RCC 6

A

40

*zero crab landings not recommend excess of 26kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 5(good)
A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 5 (good)
A

40

* zero crab landings not recommend excess of 26kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 4(good to med)
A

20kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 4 (good to medium)
A

35

zero crab landings not recommend excess of 26kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 3(medium)
A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 3 (medium)
A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 2(medium to poor)
A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 2(medium to poor)
A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 1(poor)
A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 1(poor)
A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 0(Nil)
A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 0(Nil)
A

N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Whenever asymmetric reverse thrust is used on wet or contaminated rwys reduce crosswind guidelines by…

A

5 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Max Taxi Weight

A

409,000 pds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

A

408,000 pds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

320,000 pds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max Zerofuel Weight

A

295,000 pds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Min Inflight Weight
179,000 pds
26
Preflight crew oxygen
1350 for ETOPS 1250 for non ETOPS Supplemental pgs if more crew members
27
Max cabin differential pressure
9.10psi
28
Max allowable cabin differential pressure for takeoff and landing
0.125psi | 200’ below airport press alt
29
Maximum APU start attempts in 60 minute period
3
30
Time between attempts (APU selector OFF)
1 minute
31
APU bleed air is not available above
17,000’ | 11 items
32
Use of aileron trim with autopilot engaged is
Prohibited
33
Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on takeoff / go-around...
250’ AGL
34
Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on Non ILS Approach
50’ below MDA/DA
35
Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on Single Channel ILS Approach
100’ AGL
36
Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on Autoland (Two or Three Autopilots)
Touchdown/Rollout
37
Do not use FLCH mode on final below
1000’ AFE
38
When using auto brakes with Autoland add _____ feet to the advisory landing distance in QRH Performance INFLT chapter or to TLR without AUTOLAND distances
1000
39
Do not use Autoland system if either the left or right RA appears to be providing ...
Erroneous altitude reading
40
If a RA is suspected to be erroneous or showing a flag do not use associated...
Autopilot
41
Automatic landings will be made with (what flap setting)
Flaps 25 or 30
42
Maximum Autoland glide slope angle
3.25 degrees
43
Minimum glide slope angle
2.5 degrees
44
Can you use autoland for overweight landings?
NO
45
Maximum Headwind/crosswind for Autoland
25
46
Maximum crosswind CAT II/III for Autoland?
15
47
Maximum tailwind for Autoland
10
48
Do not use the center VHF comms for
Voice communications
49
Do not operate HF radios during
Refueling operations
50
Reset of a tripped fuel pump or fuel pump control circuit breaker is prohibited....
In flight.
51
Reset of a circuit breaker may be made only once after a cooling period of...in interest of safety by PIC
2 min
52
Entry door evac slide system must be armed and girt bar engaged prior to taxi, takeoff, or landing whenever...
Pax are present
53
Flight Deck Access System operational check accomplished...
once each flight day
54
Use of Fixed Derates TO1 or TO2 ...
Not Authorized
55
In case of dual engine failure disregard start limit and use standby engine indicator max EGT FOR
Inflight start EGT limit
56
641GT limited to ___ minutes takeoff thrust.
10
57
Anytime takeoff thrust exceeds __min total operating time must be entered in logbook.
5
58
Engine starter duty cycle ...
5min continuous
59
Engine starter duty cycle cool down..
30 seconds
60
Engine Starter Re-engagement | 0% N2
Recommended
61
Engine Starter Re-engagement | 0-20%N2
Permissible
62
Engine Starter Re-engagement | 21-30%N2
Only in case of fire
63
Engine Starter Re-engagement | >30%
May result in starter damage
64
Engine type
CF6-80C2B6F
65
Engine oil system min press
10
66
Engine oil system max temp
``` 160 degreesC (continuous) 175(15min max) ```
67
Engine oil system min dispatch quantity
17 quarts
68
Continuous ignition must be ON encountering ...
``` Mod to heavy rain MOD to SEV turbulence Volcanic ash Icing conditions Standing water or slush on rwy ```
69
During ground operations in visible moisture and OAT 3 degrees or below...
Comply with the run-up procedures in supplementary procedures, cold WX operations, taxi-out or after landing procedures.
70
Inflight selection of reverse thrust
Prohibited
71
Backing the airplane with reverse thrust
Prohibited
72
Stab trim must be set within green band for ..
Takeoff
73
Maximum altitude flaps extended
20,000
74
Fight maneuvering loads flaps UP
+2.5g to -1.0g
75
Flight maneuvering load flaps DOWN
+2.0 to 0.0g
76
Do not extend speed brakes in flight below
800’AGL
77
Do not extend speed brakes in flight with flaps
25 or 30
78
If “UNABLE RNP” EICAS alert msg displays on approach
Pilots must go-around
79
Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following... LOC
Localizer and / or glide slope pointer on ADI
80
Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following... XXX-DME
Valid DME data
81
Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following... VOR
VOR Needles
82
Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following... NDB
NDB Needles
83
The following instrument approaches are not authorized ...
FAA: RNAV (RNP) ICAO: RNP (AR) RNAV: (RNP 1) departures with Radius to Fix (RF) required
84
Navigation in RVSM airspace requires...
``` 1 autopilot altitude hold 2 air data computers 2 PFD altitude displays 1 altitude alerting 1 transponder ```
85
``` Navigation in Class 1 B-RNAV RNAV 5 RNAV 2 RNAV 1 RNP 1 requires ```
1 FMC 1 CDU Center + 1 IRU 1 Autopilot LNAV
86
Navigation in oceanic and remote continental navigation RNAV 10 (RNP 10) requires...
1 FMC Left and Right CDU Left and Center IRU 1 Autopilot LNAV
87
``` Navigation in oceanic and remote continental navigation ETOPS NAT HLA RNP 2 RNP 4 requires ```
2 FMC Left and Right CDU Left and Center IRU 1 Autopilot LNAV
88
Do not operate under IFR or at nights into airports north of 73 degrees North or South of 60 degrees South Latitude whose navigation aids are referenced to ...
Magnetic north
89
Surveillance | ADS-C and component
1 CDU 1 FMC 1 SATCOM 1 ACARS
90
QFE Operations...
Do not use LNAV or VNAV below transition altitude/level.
91
IFR approach procedures using VNAV to a DA are not authorized if the path angle is less than...
2.75 or more than 3.50 degrees
92
If leveling off within 2000’ after changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE, do not use VNAV to execute the level-off if QNH is less than ...
29.70”
93
Max fuel in center tank...
85,200 lbs
94
Max fuel in L or R Main Tanks...
43,097 lbs | Load main tanks then center
95
Max allowable fuel imbalance...
2500 pounds when total main tanks is 48,000 pounds or less 1500 pounds when total main fuel exceeds 79,800 pounds 2000 +/- 500
96
Use of Jet B and JP4 fuels are...
Prohibited
97
Jet A/JAA/NATO F-24 freezing point...
-40degrees C
98
Do not operate engine or wing anti-ice on ground or in flight when OAT is above...
10 degrees C
99
Engine anti-ice must be __ with engine thrust reduced for a descent or speed reduction while in visible moisture with the TAT less than 10 degrees C ...
ON
100
Maximum allowable inflight altitude difference is
200’ for RVSM
101
Max altitude difference on ground is
At Sea level 40’ At 5,000’ 44’ Max difference with field elevation 75’
102
Max speed flap 1
250
103
Max speed flap 5
230
104
Max speed flap 15
210
105
Max speed flap 20
210
106
Max speed flap 25
180
107
Max speed flap 30
170
108
Landing gear retract, extend, or extended...
270 or .82 whichever lower
109
Use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions with in 15 nm of airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database is
Prohibited
110
Avoid WX radar operation in hangar or within __ ft of fueling operations.
50
111
Turbulent air penetration speed is ___kts/___mach whichever is less
290/.78
112
Immediate action items...
1. Engine Fire or Engine Severe Damage or Separation 2. Engine Limit or Surge or Stall 3. Dual Engine Failure 4. Airspeed Unreliable 5. Cabin Altitude or Rapid Depressurization 6. Aborted Engine Start or Engine Tailpipe Fire 7. APU Fire 8. Evacuation
113
Left Main AC Bus powers...
``` Center AC BUS Left AC Xfer Bus Left Utility Bus / Left Galley Bus CA Flight Inst Xfer Bus TRU ```