Limitations N641GT Flashcards

1
Q

Approved Operations

A

Visual (VFR)
Instrument (IFR)
Icing Conditions
Extended Overwater Operations (ETOPS, except -200SF)

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2
Q

Max operating altitude

A

43,100’ pressure altitude

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3
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing altitude

A

8,400’ pressure altitude

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4
Q

Maximum takeoff/landing tailwind

A

10kts

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5
Q

Ground wind limit for entry and lower cargo doors

A

40 kts while opening or closing
65kts while open (-300)
60kts (-200)

40 main deck cargo door fully open

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6
Q

Takeoff crosswind component

RCC 6

A

40kts

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7
Q

Landing crosswind component

RCC 6

A

40

*zero crab landings not recommend excess of 26kts

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8
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 5(good)
A

25

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9
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 5 (good)
A

40

* zero crab landings not recommend excess of 26kts

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10
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 4(good to med)
A

20kts

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11
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 4 (good to medium)
A

35

zero crab landings not recommend excess of 26kts

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12
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 3(medium)
A

17

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13
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 3 (medium)
A

25

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14
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 2(medium to poor)
A

15

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15
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 2(medium to poor)
A

17

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16
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 1(poor)
A

13

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17
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 1(poor)
A

15

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18
Q
Takeoff crosswind component 
RCC 0(Nil)
A

N/A

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19
Q
Landing crosswind component 
RCC 0(Nil)
A

N/A

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20
Q

Whenever asymmetric reverse thrust is used on wet or contaminated rwys reduce crosswind guidelines by…

A

5 kts

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21
Q

Max Taxi Weight

A

409,000 pds

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22
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

A

408,000 pds

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23
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

320,000 pds

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24
Q

Max Zerofuel Weight

A

295,000 pds

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25
Q

Min Inflight Weight

A

179,000 pds

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26
Q

Preflight crew oxygen

A

1350 for ETOPS
1250 for non ETOPS
Supplemental pgs if more crew members

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27
Q

Max cabin differential pressure

A

9.10psi

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28
Q

Max allowable cabin differential pressure for takeoff and landing

A

0.125psi

200’ below airport press alt

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29
Q

Maximum APU start attempts in 60 minute period

A

3

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30
Q

Time between attempts (APU selector OFF)

A

1 minute

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31
Q

APU bleed air is not available above

A

17,000’

11 items

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32
Q

Use of aileron trim with autopilot engaged is

A

Prohibited

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33
Q

Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on takeoff / go-around…

A

250’ AGL

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34
Q

Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on Non ILS Approach

A

50’ below MDA/DA

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35
Q

Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on Single Channel ILS Approach

A

100’ AGL

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36
Q

Autopilot engaged minimum altitude on Autoland (Two or Three Autopilots)

A

Touchdown/Rollout

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37
Q

Do not use FLCH mode on final below

A

1000’ AFE

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38
Q

When using auto brakes with Autoland add _____ feet to the advisory landing distance in QRH Performance INFLT chapter or to TLR without AUTOLAND distances

A

1000

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39
Q

Do not use Autoland system if either the left or right RA appears to be providing …

A

Erroneous altitude reading

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40
Q

If a RA is suspected to be erroneous or showing a flag do not use associated…

A

Autopilot

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41
Q

Automatic landings will be made with (what flap setting)

A

Flaps 25 or 30

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42
Q

Maximum Autoland glide slope angle

A

3.25 degrees

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43
Q

Minimum glide slope angle

A

2.5 degrees

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44
Q

Can you use autoland for overweight landings?

A

NO

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45
Q

Maximum Headwind/crosswind for Autoland

A

25

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46
Q

Maximum crosswind CAT II/III for Autoland?

A

15

47
Q

Maximum tailwind for Autoland

A

10

48
Q

Do not use the center VHF comms for

A

Voice communications

49
Q

Do not operate HF radios during

A

Refueling operations

50
Q

Reset of a tripped fuel pump or fuel pump control circuit breaker is prohibited….

A

In flight.

51
Q

Reset of a circuit breaker may be made only once after a cooling period of…in interest of safety by PIC

A

2 min

52
Q

Entry door evac slide system must be armed and girt bar engaged prior to taxi, takeoff, or landing whenever…

A

Pax are present

53
Q

Flight Deck Access System operational check accomplished…

A

once each flight day

54
Q

Use of Fixed Derates TO1 or TO2 …

A

Not Authorized

55
Q

In case of dual engine failure disregard start limit and use standby engine indicator max EGT FOR

A

Inflight start EGT limit

56
Q

641GT limited to ___ minutes takeoff thrust.

A

10

57
Q

Anytime takeoff thrust exceeds __min total operating time must be entered in logbook.

A

5

58
Q

Engine starter duty cycle …

A

5min continuous

59
Q

Engine starter duty cycle cool down..

A

30 seconds

60
Q

Engine Starter Re-engagement

0% N2

A

Recommended

61
Q

Engine Starter Re-engagement

0-20%N2

A

Permissible

62
Q

Engine Starter Re-engagement

21-30%N2

A

Only in case of fire

63
Q

Engine Starter Re-engagement

>30%

A

May result in starter damage

64
Q

Engine type

A

CF6-80C2B6F

65
Q

Engine oil system min press

A

10

66
Q

Engine oil system max temp

A
160 degreesC (continuous)
175(15min max)
67
Q

Engine oil system min dispatch quantity

A

17 quarts

68
Q

Continuous ignition must be ON encountering …

A
Mod to heavy rain
MOD to SEV turbulence
Volcanic ash
Icing conditions
Standing water or slush on rwy
69
Q

During ground operations in visible moisture and OAT 3 degrees or below…

A

Comply with the run-up procedures in supplementary procedures, cold WX operations, taxi-out or after landing procedures.

70
Q

Inflight selection of reverse thrust

A

Prohibited

71
Q

Backing the airplane with reverse thrust

A

Prohibited

72
Q

Stab trim must be set within green band for ..

A

Takeoff

73
Q

Maximum altitude flaps extended

A

20,000

74
Q

Fight maneuvering loads flaps UP

A

+2.5g to -1.0g

75
Q

Flight maneuvering load flaps DOWN

A

+2.0 to 0.0g

76
Q

Do not extend speed brakes in flight below

A

800’AGL

77
Q

Do not extend speed brakes in flight with flaps

A

25 or 30

78
Q

If “UNABLE RNP” EICAS alert msg displays on approach

A

Pilots must go-around

79
Q

Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following…
LOC

A

Localizer and / or glide slope pointer on ADI

80
Q

Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following…
XXX-DME

A

Valid DME data

81
Q

Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following…
VOR

A

VOR Needles

82
Q

Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid inside the FAF by display of the following…
NDB

A

NDB Needles

83
Q

The following instrument approaches are not authorized …

A

FAA: RNAV (RNP)
ICAO: RNP (AR)
RNAV: (RNP 1) departures with Radius to Fix (RF) required

84
Q

Navigation in RVSM airspace requires…

A
1 autopilot altitude hold
2 air data computers
2 PFD altitude displays 
1 altitude alerting 
1 transponder
85
Q
Navigation in 
Class 1
B-RNAV
RNAV 5
RNAV 2
RNAV 1
RNP 1 
requires
A

1 FMC
1 CDU
Center + 1 IRU
1 Autopilot LNAV

86
Q

Navigation in oceanic and remote continental navigation
RNAV 10
(RNP 10)
requires…

A

1 FMC
Left and Right CDU
Left and Center IRU
1 Autopilot LNAV

87
Q
Navigation in oceanic and remote continental navigation 
ETOPS 
NAT HLA
RNP 2
RNP 4
requires
A

2 FMC
Left and Right CDU
Left and Center IRU
1 Autopilot LNAV

88
Q

Do not operate under IFR or at nights into airports north of 73 degrees North or South of 60 degrees South Latitude whose navigation aids are referenced to …

A

Magnetic north

89
Q

Surveillance

ADS-C and component

A

1 CDU
1 FMC
1 SATCOM
1 ACARS

90
Q

QFE Operations…

A

Do not use LNAV or VNAV below transition altitude/level.

91
Q

IFR approach procedures using VNAV to a DA are not authorized if the path angle is less than…

A

2.75 or more than 3.50 degrees

92
Q

If leveling off within 2000’ after changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE, do not use VNAV to execute the level-off if QNH is less than …

A

29.70”

93
Q

Max fuel in center tank…

A

85,200 lbs

94
Q

Max fuel in L or R Main Tanks…

A

43,097 lbs

Load main tanks then center

95
Q

Max allowable fuel imbalance…

A

2500 pounds when total main tanks is 48,000 pounds or less

1500 pounds when total main fuel exceeds 79,800 pounds

2000 +/- 500

96
Q

Use of Jet B and JP4 fuels are…

A

Prohibited

97
Q

Jet A/JAA/NATO F-24 freezing point…

A

-40degrees C

98
Q

Do not operate engine or wing anti-ice on ground or in flight when OAT is above…

A

10 degrees C

99
Q

Engine anti-ice must be __ with engine thrust reduced for a descent or speed reduction while in visible moisture with the TAT less than 10 degrees C …

A

ON

100
Q

Maximum allowable inflight altitude difference is

A

200’ for RVSM

101
Q

Max altitude difference on ground is

A

At Sea level 40’
At 5,000’ 44’

Max difference with field elevation 75’

102
Q

Max speed flap 1

A

250

103
Q

Max speed flap 5

A

230

104
Q

Max speed flap 15

A

210

105
Q

Max speed flap 20

A

210

106
Q

Max speed flap 25

A

180

107
Q

Max speed flap 30

A

170

108
Q

Landing gear retract, extend, or extended…

A

270 or .82 whichever lower

109
Q

Use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions with in 15 nm of airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database is

A

Prohibited

110
Q

Avoid WX radar operation in hangar or within __ ft of fueling operations.

A

50

111
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed is ___kts/___mach whichever is less

A

290/.78

112
Q

Immediate action items…

A
  1. Engine Fire or Engine Severe Damage or Separation
  2. Engine Limit or Surge or Stall
  3. Dual Engine Failure
  4. Airspeed Unreliable
  5. Cabin Altitude or Rapid Depressurization
  6. Aborted Engine Start or Engine Tailpipe Fire
  7. APU Fire
  8. Evacuation
113
Q

Left Main AC Bus powers…

A
Center AC BUS
Left AC Xfer Bus
Left Utility Bus / Left Galley Bus
CA Flight Inst Xfer Bus
TRU