Limitations COPY Flashcards

1
Q

MAXIMUM TAILWIND FOR TAKEOFF

A

15 kt

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2
Q

Maximum tailwind for landing

A

15 kt

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3
Q

Earliest autopilot engagement

A

The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values:

At takeoff- At least 5 s after lift-off

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4
Q

Autoland Crosswind limit

A

Maximum crosswind: 30 kt

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5
Q

Tailwind Limit for take-off and landing?

A

15 KT

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6
Q

MAXIMUM CROSSWIND FOR TAKEOFF AND LANDING ( including gusts)

A
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7
Q

What is VLE?

A

Maximum speed with the landing gear extended (VLE/MLE): 250 kt ( Same for all gear speeds)

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8
Q

Wiper Speed Limit

A

230kts

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9
Q

Max altitude APU Bleed to assist engine start

APU?

A

Max altitude to assist engine start - 25 000 ft

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10
Q

At what altitudes can the APU provide electrical

power

A

The electric generator of the APU can operate in the entire flight envelope.

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11
Q

What is the maximum altitude with 2 packs for

the APU bleed?

A

Dual pack operating ceiling 22,5000 (single pack 25000)

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12
Q

APU Max EGT when running?

A

Maximum EGT for APU running: 680 °C

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13
Q

What are engine starter cycle limitations?

A

Maximum continuous starter operation is 5 min:
-Two consecutive cycles of 3 min maximum, plus one additional cycle of 1 min, with a run down to zero N3 and wait 30 s between each cycle, or
-One 5 min cycle.
Wait 30 min after the last cycle to allow the starter to cool.

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14
Q

Max G
Clean configuration
Other configurations

A

-1 g to +2.5 g

0 g to +2.0 g

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15
Q

Max Temp

A

55°C

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16
Q

Max operating altitude

A

43100

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17
Q

Runway slope (mean)

A

± 2 %

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18
Q

Maximum wind for cabin and cargo doors operation

A

40 kt

*note: The cabin and cargo doors must be closed before the wind reaches 60 kt.

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19
Q

Maximum Flaps/Slats Speeds
Maximum altitude with flaps/slats

A

Max altitude = 20000ft

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20
Q

In CONF 1+F, when the aircraft reaches a speed of….. the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) automatically retracts the flaps to CONF 1.

A

210kt

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21
Q

VMO
MMO

A

340 kt
0.89

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22
Q

Maximum speed with the landing gear extended
Maximum speed with the landing gear operating
Maximum speed for landing gear gravity extension

A

(VLE/MLE) 250 kt / M 0.55
VLO/MLO) 250 kt / M 0.55
VLO/MLO) 220 kt / M 0.48

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23
Q

Maximum ground speed

A

204kt

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24
Q

MINIMUM CONTROL SPEED FOR LANDING (VMCL)

A

VMC = 122kt

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25
Q

Wipers Maximum Operating Speed

A

230kt

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26
Q

Do not use bleed air from the APU BLEED and from the HP Air Start Unit at the same time, to prevent…..

A

any adverse effect on the Bleed Air System (BAS).

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27
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure
Maximum negative differential pressure

A
  1. 29 PSI
    - 0.72 PSI

These two operating limitations correspond to the settings of the Negative Relief Valve and the Overpressure Relief Valve.

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28
Q

In order to prevent any adverse effect on the Air Conditioning system:

Do not use conditioned air from the packs and from the LP air conditioning unit at the same time

Do not set the AIR FLOW selector to HI if an LP air conditioning unit is used and the aircraft

A

is electrically powered.

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29
Q

The ram air inlet opens, only if the differential pressure is..

A

below 2 PSI.

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30
Q

The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values

A
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31
Q

AIRPORT CONDITIONS
Automatic landing is demonstrated, as follows:

With an airport elevation up to ……..ft
With a glide slope angle between ……..°
On runways (and terrain profiles before the runway) with CAT II/III characteristics
With a runway slope within +/- ……%
With CAT II and CAT III ILS beam, for ILS operations

A

9 200 ft
-2.5 ° and -3.5 °
1%

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32
Q

CAT IIIB operation is not authorized on ………… runways

A

contaminated

33
Q

CATEGORY II AUTOMATIC APPROACH WITH OR WITHOUT AUTOMATIC LANDING
Minimum decision height …..ft
At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode and……… approach and landing capability must be displayed on the FMA.

A

100ft
LAND2, LAND3 SINGLE or LAND3 DUAL

34
Q

CATEGORY III WITH DH AT OR ABOVE 50FT AUTOMATIC APPROACH WITH AUTOMATIC LANDING

Minimum decision height ………ft
Alert height (if LAND3 DUAL is diaplayed on FMA) 200ft AGL

At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode and……… approach and landing capability must be displayed on the FMA.

A

50ft
LAND3 SINGLE or LAND3 DUAL

35
Q

CATEGORY III WITH DH AT OR ABOVE 50FT AUTOMATIC APPROACH WITH AUTOMATIC LANDING

Minimum decision height ………ft
Alert height 200ft AGL

At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode and……… approach and landing capability must be displayed on the FMA.

A

Below 50ft or no DH
LAND3 DUAL

36
Q

APU START
After ……… consecutive APU start attempts, the fliohgt crew must wait ………min before a new start attempt

After three consecutive APU start attempts, the flight crew must wait… before a new start attempt.

A

three
60 min

37
Q

APU MAXIMUM N SPEED

N=North, Rotor Speed

38
Q

Maximum EGT for APU start
Maximum EGT for APU running

A

1260 °C
680 °C

39
Q

The APU ELECTRIC GENERATOR can operate in ……….

A

the entire flight envelope.

40
Q

An APU start is not permitted during a refuel/defuel procedure if the APU has failed to start or an automatic shutdown has occurred.

A normal APU shutdown must be completed if a fuel spill has occurred during the

A

refuel/defuel procedure.

41
Q

APU BLEED
Max altitude to assist engine start
Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (single pack operation)
Max altitude for air conditioning and pressurization (dual pack operation)
Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted.

A

25 000 ft
25 000 ft
22 500 ft

42
Q

The power supply for the Portable Electronic Device (PED carried by the passengers) must be …..during takeoff and landing.

A

turned off

43
Q

During ground fuel operations (i.e. refueling, defueling, fuel transfer), do not use….. communication.

44
Q

EGT limits
T/O and GA :

A

all engines 5 mins and 900°C
OEI 10 mins and 900°C

45
Q

Max Continuous Thrust

A

850°C unlimited time

46
Q

Max EGT starting:
On Ground…
In Flight…

A

700°C
850°C

47
Q

There are 3 different shaft speeds for N1 N2 and N3 depending on MSN.

A

See limitations

48
Q

OIL TEMPERATURE
Maximum continuous temperature
Minimum starting temperature
Minimum temperature before takeoff

A

180°C
-40 °C
50 °C

49
Q

Minimum oil pressure
Minimum OIL QUANTITY.

A

25 PSI
13 qts

50
Q

Maximum continuous starter operation is 5 min:

  • Two consecutive cycles of 3 min maximum, plus one additional cycle of 1 min, with a run down to zero N3 and wait 30 s between each cycle, or
  • One 5 min cycle.

Wait …..min after the last cycle to allow the starter to cool.

No running engagement of the starter when the N3 is above ….% on ground, or …..% in flight.

A

30 min
10% on ground & 30% in flight

51
Q

State the Reverse Thrust limitations

A
  • Selection of the reverse thrust is prohibited in flight
  • Backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is not permitted
  • Maximum reverse should not be used below 70 kt (or when the indication starts to fluctuate). Idle reverse is allowed down to aircraft stop.
52
Q

Takeoff at reduced thrust, so-called as FLEX takeoff, is allowed only if the airplane meets all performance requirements at the takeoff weight, with the operating engines at the thrust available for the flexible temperature (TFLEX).

Takeoff at reduced thrust is allowed with any inoperative item affecting the performance only if the associated performance shortfall has been applied to meet the above requirements.

FLEX takeoff is not permitted on

A

contaminated runways.

53
Q

TFLEX cannot be:

A
  • Higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to ISA + 60. TMAXFLEX corresponds to a reduction of 40 % from the full rated takeoff thrust.
  • Lower than the flat rating temperature (TREF), equal to:
    ISA + 15, for pressure altitudes below 2 000 ft
    ISA + 10, for pressure altitudes between 4 000 ft and 8 000 ft
    ISA + 15, for pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
    For pressure altitudes between 2 000 ft and 4 000 ft, and for pressure altitudes between 8 000 ft and 10 000 ft, TREF is determined by linear interpolation between ISA + 10 and ISA + 15.
  • Lower than the actual OAT.
54
Q

The use of GA SOFT mode is…. with one engine inoperative.

A

prohibited

55
Q

There are Maximum Taxi Time in FZFG conditions

A

Check limitations and FCOM PRO-NOR-SUP-SUP-ADVWXR Engine Operation on Ground in FZFG

56
Q

The engines must warm up at idle or taxi thrust before takeoff.

IF ENGINES WERE SHUT DOWN 90 MIN OR LESS:

IF ENGINES WERE SHUT DOWN MORE THAN 90 MIN:

A

< 90min: Warm-up Time 2 min
> 90min: Warm-up Time 5 min

57
Q

Maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended

58
Q

Maximum fuel temperature :

JET A, JET A1, JP 5, JP 8, N°3 JET, RT and TS-1 :

59
Q

The table indicates the maximum allowed wing imbalance at takeoff, in flight and at landing.

A

Left Tank / Right Tank3 000 kg or6 613 lb

Note:
In abnormal conditions (e.g. fuel system failures/fuel leakage) the above-mentioned maximum fuel imbalance values may be exceeded without significantly affecting the aircraft handling qualities. The aircraft remains fully controllable in all phases of the flight.

60
Q

Use the rain repellent in the case of heavy rain only.

CAUTION
Rain repellent must not be used as a windshield washer, and never be applied on a……

A

dry windshield.

61
Q

The braking system is not designed to hold the aircraft in a stationary position when a high thrust level is applied on at least one engine. During ground procedures that require a thrust increase with braking, the flight crew must ensure that the aircraft remains…..

A

stationary

62
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff

63
Q

The landing gear gravity extension reset function must not be used in flight.

CAUTION
The landing gear gravity extension must be reset only on…..

A

ground by maintenance personnel.

64
Q

Use of parking brake while aircraft is moving is prohibited unless….

A

in emergency.

65
Q

To vacate the runway or taxi with one or more deflated or damaged tires all of the following limitations apply:
* Maximum taxi speed: …….kt
* Maximum nosewheel steering angle: …..°
* No more than one affected tire on the nose landing gear
* No more than two affected tires on each main landing gear provided that the affected tires are not on the same axle.

In addition, if tire damage is suspected, the flight crew must…….

A

3kt
30°

ask for an aircraft inspection prior to vacate the runway or taxi. If the ground crew suspects that a tire burst may damage the landing gear, maintenance action is due.

For more information, Refer to FCTM/PR-AEP-LDG Taxi with Deflated Tires.

66
Q

The Backup Steering Function (BSF) must not be used:

A

On contaminated runways,

For more than 90 ° turns,

To perform more than 2 turns.

When the BSF activates, do not use manual differential braking or differential thrust to steer the aircraft unless required for controllability at the end of the rollout.

67
Q

During any ground fuel operations, do not use the exterior lights, except for:

A

Navigation lights (NAV sw),

Logo lights (LOGO sw),

Wing and engine scan lights (WING sw).

68
Q

Airport Navigation Function (ANF)

The use of the airport moving map is approved for certain flight phases only.

A

TAXI
The use of the airport moving map is authorized on both PF and PM displays.

TAKEOFF
The use of the airport moving map is not authorized on PF display.

GO-AROUND, CRUISE, DESCENT AND APPROACH UNTIL TOUCHDOWN
The use of the airport moving map is authorized on either PF or PM display for BTV (brake to vacate).

ROLL OUT AFTER TOUCHDOWN
The use of the airport moving map is authorized on both PF and PM displays.

69
Q

In the case of a discrepancy between the printed and displayed information, the flight crew should use the…..

A

displayed information for flight and fuel planning, ATC communication, etc.

70
Q

Minimum Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure

A

two crew oxygen bottles installed, the LH bottle provides oxygen to the Capt and 4th observer, the RH bottle provides oxygen to the FO and 3rd observer

For 2 crew operation the minimum dispatch pressure is 1000 PSI per bottle for all routes

For 3 or 4 crew operation, refer to table for minimum dispatch pressure for each route.

71
Q

CONTAMINATED RUNWAY
For landing on a contaminated runway, the flight crew must set the LDG PERF CODE………, regardless of the available airport reports (e.g. Pilot Report of Braking Action = Good or Estimated Surface Friction = Good).

Note:
The flight crew must pay attention to the validity of the reported depth of contamination at the time of landing.

For more information about:
The definition of the landing performance equivalent to wet, Refer to PER-LDG-30 Contaminated Runway
The runway condition assessment matrix, Refer to PER-LDG-30 Runway Condition Assessment Matrix for Landing
The selection of a runway condition, Refer to DSC-34-32-20-20-70 RWY CONDITION/BRAKING ACTION Matrix.

A

at or below 4 (COMP SNOW - GOOD TO MEDIUM)

72
Q

The ROW/ROP is certified :
………

Note:
In the case of a failure affecting landing performance, the ROW/ROP alerts are available. The ROW/ROP alerts are based on landing performance that does not take into account the performance penalties linked to the alert that impacts the landing performance. The flight crew must always follow the ROW/ROP alerts.

Operations where the ROW landing distance is above the LDA (“TOO SHORT” indication displayed on the ND) must not be conducted unless a specific authorization is obtained from the appropriate authority to deactivate the ROW/ROP for these operations.

In this case, the flight crew must deactivate the ROW/ROP via either:

The ROW/ROP pb-sw@ on the SURV overhead panel@ , or
The TERR SYS button on the MFD SURV page, if the ROW/ROP pb-sw@ is not installed. In this case, the flight crew must deactivate the ROW/ROP when the aircraft position is less than 15 NM from the airfield.

A

On dry, wet and contaminated runways,

With thrust reversers available,

Without failure affecting landing performance.

73
Q

The TAWS function should be inhibited (TERR SYS button set to OFF on the MFD SURV/CONTROLS page):

A

For operations from/to runways not incorporated into the TAWS database

For specific approach procedures, which have previously been identified as potentially producing false terrain alerts. The TAWS should be inhibited when the aircraft position is less than 15 NM from the airfield.

74
Q

Minimum pressure altitude for transponder altitude reporting

75
Q

The Transmitting Portable Electronic Device (T-PED) can be used in the flight deck, the cabin and the cargo area.

Note:
In the flight deck and in the corridor of the flight deck privacy area, T-PED use is only restricted to Wi-Fi, Bluetooth or any low power technology.
Use of GSM, 3G, 4G, and other standards is………. in this area when the aircraft is moving

A

not permitted

76
Q

WV 001:
Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)

A

275 000kg
207 000kg
195 700kg

77
Q

WV 008:
Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)

A

240 000kg
207 000kg
195 700kg

78
Q

Minimum pavement width for a 180 deg turn

A

A359 - 53m
A35K - 59m

B-LRB - 51.1m = 52m