Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCC APS > Limitations A320 > Flashcards

Limitations A320 Flashcards

1
Q

FLIGHT ENVELOPE

A

Clean Configuration: -1g to +2.5g
Other: 0g to 2g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Environment limits

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rwy slope (mean)

A

+- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rwy altitude

A

9200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nominal runway width

A

45m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum demonstrated xwind (takeoff and landing)

A

38 knots (gust included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum tailwind for Takeoff

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum tailwind for Landing

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For landing with a tailwind greater than 10 knots

A

use FLAPS FULL only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum tailwind for Automatic Landing and Rollout

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum wind for passenger door operation

A

65 ktM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation

A

40 kt (or 50, if the aircraft nose is into the wind, or if the FWD and AFT cargo doors are on the leeward side

FWD and CARGO doors must be closed before the wind speed exceeds 65 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max Taxi weight

A

73900 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max Take Off Weight

A

73500 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

61000 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Min Weight

A

37230 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SPEED LIMITS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MMO

A

0.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

VMO

A

350 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MINIMUM CONTROL SPEEDS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

VMCL

A

108 Knots for BLY and BLZ
113 Knots for others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

VMCA

A

110 knots IAS at Sea Level, decreasing with increase in altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

VMCG

A

111 knots IAS at Sea Level with CONF 1+F, decreasing with increase in altitude and flap setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MAXIMUM FLAPS / SLATS SETTINGS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lever Position 1

A

SLATS FLAPS Ind. on ECAM MAX SPD FLIGHT PHASE
18 0 1 230 HOLDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lever Position 1

A

SLATS FLAPS Ind. on ECAM MAX SPD FLIGHT PHASE
18 10 1 + F 215 TAKEOFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lever Position 2

A

SLATS FLAPS Ind. on ECAM MAX SPD FLIGHT PHASE
22 15 2 200 TAKEOFF/APPROACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lever Position 3

A

SLATS FLAPS Ind. on ECAM MAX SPD FLIGHT PHASE
22 20 3 185 TO/APCH/LDG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lever Position 4

A

SLATS FLAPS Ind. on ECAM MAX SPD FLIGHT PHASE
27 35 FULL 177 LANDING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GEAR DOWN SPEEDS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

VLE

A

280/ 0.67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

VLO EXTENSION

A

250/ 0.60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

VLO RETRACTION

A

220/ 0.54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TYRE SPEED

A

Maximum Ground Speed - 195 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Wipers in Use

A

Max Speed - 230 Knots (applicable when the wipers are sweeping)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

COCKPIT WINDOW OPEN

A

Max Speed - 200 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

AIR BLEED/COND/PRESS/VENT

A

With PAX on board, not recommended to exceed 20 min without air conditioning supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

APU with HP GROUND UNIT

A

DO NOT USE HP ground unit when APU supplies bleed air to avoid bleed system damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

AIR-CONDITIONING WITH LP GROUND UNIT

A

Do not use conditioned air simultaneously from pachs and LP ground unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

AVIONICS VENTILATION

A

During ground operations, limit the aircraft electric power supply with avionics ventilation system in normal configuration as follows:

OAT: 49ºC No limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CABIN PRESSURE

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure

A

9.0 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure

A
  • 1 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Safety relief valve setting

A

8.6 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

RAM AIR INLET

A

Open if Differential Pressure < 1 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

AUTOPILOT FUNCTION: minimum values for use of autopilot

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Takeoff with SRS mode

A

100 feet AGL and at least 5 seconds after liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ILS CAT I

A

160 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ILS CAT II or CAT III

A

0 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In approach with FINAL APP, V/S or FPA mode

A

250 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

PAR approach (Precision Approach Radar)

A

250 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Circling Approach

A

500 feet AGL for CAT C and 600 feet AGL for CAT D

55
Q

After Manual Go-Around

A

100 feet AGL

56
Q

All other phases

A

500 ft AGL (The AP or FD in OP DES or DES mode can be used in approach)

57
Q

How can you use it?

A

Only if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above, the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500 ft AGL

58
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT FUNCTION

A
59
Q

GENERAL

RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY is

A
60
Q

AP ON(in NAV (all phases), In F-LOC (approach phase):

Enroute
In Terminal Area
In Approach

A

1 NM
0.5 NM
0.3NM

61
Q

With AP OFF and FD ON (in NAV (all phases), In F-LOC (approach phase)

Enroute
In Terminal Area
In Approach

A

1NM
0.51 NM
0.3 NM

62
Q

With AP OFF and FD OFF

Enroute
In Terminal Area
In Approach

A

1.1 NM
0.51 NM

0.3 NM with F-LOC deviation
Not authorized without F-LOC deviation

63
Q

DEGRADED SITUATION

A
64
Q

IF GPS PRIMARY LOST

A

navigation accuracy remains sufficient for RNP operations provided that, the RNP value is checked or entered on the MCDU and HIGH ACCURACY is displayed

65
Q

PREREQUISITES FOR USE OF NAV MODE AT TAKEOFF

A

GPS Primary available
FMGS Takeoff Updating Checked

66
Q

PREREQUISITES FOR USE OF NAV MODE IN TERMINAL AREA

A

GPS PRIMARY available
HIGH Accuracy displayed, appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU
FMS navigation is cross-checked with NAVAID RAW DATA

67
Q

APPROACH BASED ON RADIO NAVAIDS

A
68
Q

NAVAIDS approach performed in NAV, APP NAV or FINAL APP, with AP or FD engages

A

GPS PRIMARY available: NAVAID unserviceable or airborne equipment inoperative - Approval required

GPS PRIMARY not available - NAVAID and airborned equipment serviceable - Monitor Raw Data during approach

69
Q

RNAV APPROACH

A
70
Q

1AN RNAV(RNP) APPROACH

A

GPS PRIMARY available - RNAV (GNSS) approach may be performed
GPS PRIMARY not available - RNAV (GNSS) approach may be performed if: no Radio NAVAID coverage supports RNP value
HIGH accuracy is displayed
Approval obtained

71
Q

2 APPROACH BASED ON RADIO NAVAIDS

A
72
Q

2a VOR/DME flown with FLS

A

F-APP displayed on FMA - Navaids & airborn equipment may be inoperative subject to approval

F-APP + RAW Capability Displayed on FMA - Navaids & airborn equipment must be operative tuned and monitored

73
Q

2b ILS (G/S Out) or LOC APP flown with LOC and F-GS mode of FLS

A

F-APP displayed on FMA - Ref navaids for vertical path validation must be tuned and checked at FDP

F-APP + RAW Capability Displayed on FMA - Ref navaids for vertical path validation must be tuned and checked at FDP & monitored during approach

74
Q

3RNAV(GNSS) APPROACH

A

With LNAV Minimum & F-APP capability Displayed on FMA - MAY be flown with FLS

With LNAV/VNAV Minimum & F-APP capability Displayed on FMA - MUST be flown with FLS

75
Q

NON-PRECISION APPROACHES WITH ENGINE-OUT

A
76
Q

For AP-BLY and BLZ

A

if one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the autopilot to perform NPAs in

FINAL APP mode
NAV V/S
NAV FPA

Only FD use is permitted

77
Q

ILS CAT II

A
78
Q

Min Decision height

A

100 ft AGL

79
Q

of AP engaged in…

A

At least one engaged in APPR mode

80
Q

what must be displayed on the FMA

A

CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE OR CART 3 DUAL

81
Q

For manual landing:

A

AP must be disengaged not later than 80 ft AGL

82
Q

ILS CAT III SINGLE (FAIL PASSIVE)

A
83
Q

Min decision height

A

50 ft AGL

84
Q

What must be used in selected or managed speed

A

A/THR

85
Q

How many AP and in what mode?

A

At least 1 in APPR mode

86
Q

what must be displayed on the FMA?

A

CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL

87
Q

ILS CAT III DUAL (FAIL OPERATIONAL)

A
88
Q

What must be used in selected or managed speed

A

A/THR

89
Q

How many AP? in what mode?

A

2 in mode APPPR

90
Q

what must be displayed on the FMA?

A

CAT 3 DUAL

91
Q

Alert Height?

A

100 ft

92
Q

CAT III with DH minimum decision height?

A

20 ft

93
Q

CAT III without DH Minimum RVR?

A

75 m

94
Q

ENGINE OUT CAT II AND CAT III SINGLE APPROACH

A
95
Q

In what cases is it only approved?

A

Configuration FULL
Engine-out procedures completed before reaching 1000 ft

96
Q

MAXIMUM WIND CONDITIONS FOR CAT II / III AUTOMATIC APPROACH, LANDING AND ROLLOUT

A

30 knots Head Wind
20 knots xwind
10 knots Tail Wind

97
Q

AUTOMATIC LANDING CONFIGURATION

A
98
Q

For what is approved in CONF 3 and CONF FULL?

A

ILS/MLS CAT II and CAT III
GLS CAT I

99
Q

AUTOMATIC LANDING DEMONSTRATION

A
100
Q

How is it demonstrated?

A

With CAT II/III ILS/MLS beam and CAT I GLS Beam
With slope angle within -2.5º and -3.15º

101
Q

AUTOMATIC LANDING WITH AUTOMATIC ROLLOUT

A
102
Q

Automatic landing is not allowed below…

A

( - 1000) ft pressure altitude

103
Q

Where has automatic rollout performance been approved?

A

On dry and wet runways

104
Q

What can the flight crew use during automatic rollout with one engine inop or one thrust reverser inop?

A

Remaining thrust reverser, provided that the wind does not exceed the maximum wind conditions for automatic rollout

105
Q

AUTOLAND IN ILS CAT I

A
106
Q

Automatic landing in CAT I or better weather conditions is possible on?

A

CAT I ground installations
CAT II/III ground installations when ILS/MLS sensitive areas are not protected

107
Q

What precautions are required?

A

Airline must check the ILS/MLS beam quality and the effect of the terrain profile (especially 300 m) before the rwy threshold. It should have no adverse effect on AP/FD guidance
Acft weight should be below the maximum landing weight
FMA should show CAT2 capability at least and crew should use CAT II/III procedures
Crew awareness that LOC or G/S beam fluctuations may occur
Be prepared to disconnect the autopilot in case of unsatisfactory guidance
Visual references are obtained at an altitude appropriate for the CAT I approach, if not then go-around

108
Q

APU

A
109
Q

Oil quuantity

A

APU may be opperated with LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory

Maintenance action is required within next 10 h of APU operation

110
Q

APU START

A

After 3 consecutive start attempts

Wait 60 min before a new start attempt

111
Q

APU Rotor Speed

A

Maximum N: 107%

APU automatically shuts down at 107% N speed, that appears on the ECAM

This corresponds to an actual N speed of 105% for AP-BLB, BLC, BLD, or 106% for others

112
Q

APU EGT:

Max EGT for APU start:

Below 25000ft?
Above 25000 ft?

A

900 ºC
982 ºC

113
Q

Maximum EGT for APU running

Within 5 seconds confirmation for shutdown?
For inmediate shutdown?

A

682 ºC
From 700-742ºC

114
Q

APU START/SHUTDOWN DURING REFUELING/DEFUELING

Permitted with the following restrictions:

APU failed to start?
APU automatic shutdown
Fuel spill occurs

A

Do not start again
Do not start again
Perform a normal APU shutdown

115
Q

APU BLEED

Max altitude to assist engine start?
Dual Pack Operation?
Is APU Bleed Air used for wing anti-ice?

A

20000ft
25000 ft

Not permitted

116
Q

ENGINES

A
117
Q

THRUST/EGT LIMITS

Takeoff (TOGA, FLEX, DERATES) or GO-AROUND

EGT?
Time Limit?
One Engine Inoperative?

A

950ºC
All Engine Operative: 5 mins
One Engine Inoperative 10 mins

118
Q

MCT

EGT?
Time?

A

915ºC
Unlimited

119
Q

Starting EFT?

A

725ºC

120
Q

SHAFT SPEEDS

N1 MAX?
N2 MAX?

A

104% ambient conditions / bleed config may limit N1 to a lower value
105%

121
Q

OIL

Max continuous temperature?
Max transient temeperature (15 mins)?
Minimum starting temperature?
Minimum temperature for takeoff?
Minimum oil quantity?

A

140ºC
155ºC
-40ºC
-10ºC
>9.5qt Estimated Consumption *average consumption is 0.5 qt/h

122
Q

STARTER

What’s one cycle?
How many seconds between succesive cycles?
What do we do after 4 failed cycles?
When musn’t you start the starter?

A

Auto start with up to 3 start attempts
20 seconds pause (for auto or manual ground starts)
15 min cooling period
When N2 is above 20%(no running engagement of starter)

123
Q

REVERSE THRUST

Can you use it in flight?
Can you backup the acft with reverse thrust?
What the minimum speed under which you can not use reverse thrust?

A

No
No
70 knots

124
Q

REDUCE THRUST TAKEOFF

Flex temperature:

Upper limit?
Lower limit?

A

ISA +53ºC (25% thrust reduction)
TREF & OAT

125
Q

DERATED TAKEOFF

Max operating altitud with flaps and/or slats extended?
What may happen is rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw?

A

20000ft

Structural failures at any speed

126
Q

FUEL

A
127
Q

JET A1 Temperatures:

Max?
Min?

A

54ºC
-43ºC

128
Q

What’s the approximate quantity for:

Outer Tank
Inner Tank

A

700 Kgs
5500 Kgs

129
Q

Minimum quantity for Takeoff?
What musn’t be displayed on ECAM for takeoff?

A

1500 kg
WING TK LO LVL

130
Q

FUEL MIXABILITY

Can different types of fuel be mixed?
What happens to the freezing point of a fuel?

A

Yes, in all proportions

It varies, based on non-linear laws

131
Q

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

ICING CONDITIONS

A

OAT/TAT <-10ºc
Visible moisture - Fog (vis <1600m) Clouds, Rain, Snow, Sleet, Ice Crystals
Ramp, Taxiways and Rwys with - Standing water, snow, slush

132
Q

SEVERE ICING

when does it happen_

A

When ice accumulation on airframe reaches approximately 5 mm or more

133
Q

TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS ON CONTAMINATED RUNWAYS

When is takeoff not recommended?

A

Wet ice
Water on top of compacted snow
Dry snow or Wet snow over Ice

MCC APS (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions