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A350 Groundschool > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the max runway slope

A

+/-2%

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2
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

41450’ (one pilot on oxy above 41000’ (NORM)

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3
Q

Min TAT

A

-52°C

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4
Q

Max T/O and landing altitude

A

12500’

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5
Q

Max Speed

A

340 kts/0.89

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6
Q

HF Radios with refuelling

A

Don’t use them

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7
Q

Max T/O weight

A

308T

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8
Q

Max Landing weight

A

220T

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9
Q

Min Weight T/O

A

155T

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10
Q

Min Weight Landing

A

138T

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11
Q

Weight less than 170T and crosswind >20kts limitation

A

You must use D12 or D16 derate

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12
Q

Weight below 175T and t/o CONF 3 then:

A

FLEX NOT allowed

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13
Q

Light weight landing restriction re flaps and tailwind?

A

If below 150T then must CONF 3 and max 10kt tailwind

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14
Q

Overweight landing - is the overweight landing proc mandatory?

A

Yes

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15
Q

Max cabin diff

A

10.29 psi

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16
Q

Min cabin diff

A

-0.72 psi

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17
Q

What must you do if you plug in HP air?

A

Turn off the APU bleed first

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18
Q

What must you do if you plug in conditioned air?

A

Turn the packs off first

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19
Q

Above what cabin diff will the Ram Air Inlet NOT open

A

2 psi

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20
Q

Earliest the AP will engage after take-off?

A

5 seconds

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21
Q

Above what height will the A/P engage after a manual G/A?

A

100’

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22
Q

Disc A/P at what height on approach in F-G/S mode?

A

200’

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23
Q

Disc A/P at what height on approach in V/S or FPA mode?

A

200’

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24
Q

Disc A/P at what height on approach in APP-DES mode?

A

200’

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25
Q

Disc A/P at what height on approach in G/S mode and APPR 1 on FMA?

A

160’

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26
Q

Disc A/P at what height on approach in G/S mode and either LAND 1, 2, 3 (single or dual)?

A

80’ if manual landing, else 0’ if autoland (not a limitation but an operating limitation recommendation

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27
Q

Disc A/P at what height on approach in every other case?

A

500’

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28
Q

Can you use all A/P and FD modes without autothrust?

A

Yes

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29
Q

Can Autothrust be used without autopilot engaged?

A

Yes

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30
Q

What is BA policy re autothrust (3 points)

A
  1. Use it always, however 2. If speed not maint on final with thrust at IDLE then it is ok to go man thrust and 3. If OEI where directional control is more diff then man thrust is ok
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31
Q

FLS only for which types of approach?

A

LOC and BC only

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32
Q

SLS only for which types of approach?

A

For RNAVs with LP/LPV minimums

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33
Q

What 2 things must happen for an RNP app with RF leg that req RNP below 1nm?

A
  1. FD and/or AP must be engaged and 2. The numerical cross track dev must be monitored on the nav display. This limitation does not concern RNP AR operations
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34
Q

With NAV PRIMARY what is the RNP accuracy?

A

En-route 1nm, Term area 0.5nm, on approach 0.3nm

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35
Q

What is the minimum RNP for RNP AR?

A

0.1nm

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36
Q

For RNP AR (all phases of flight) must the AP be engaged?

A

Most certainly

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37
Q

For RNP AR on departure what mode must you be in?

A

NAV

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38
Q

For RNP AR on the Init and inter approach what mode must you be in?

A

NAV

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39
Q

For RNP AR on final approach what modes (in turn) must you be in?

A

NAV followed by APP-DES

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40
Q

For RNP AR on missed approach what mode must you be in?

A

NAV

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41
Q

For an RNP AR limited to RNP 0.3nm can you hand fly it?

A

Yes, with FDs but Airbus recommends you AP for all RNP AR approaches

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42
Q

At present can you do an RNP AR Via to a non RNP AR approach?

A

No, not yet

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43
Q

Is nav accuracy demonstrated without NAV PRIMARY?

A

Yes as long as RNP has been entered/checked and HIGH is displayed

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44
Q

FLS - can you use it for VOR/DME approach?

A

Yes as long as F-APP is displayed without backup if approval is given, or with raw backup without approval, or LOC or BC without raw but you must check FAF dist for range???

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45
Q

APP-DES vertical mode - is it cert for RNAV(RNP) final approaches?

A

Yes, provided the RNP AR capability is compliant with the selected procedure

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46
Q

Is APP-DES mode permitted for RNAV with LNAV minima or LNAV/VNAV minima or LP/LPV minima, or app based on navaids?

A

No

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47
Q

What must you check to use NAV after take-off?

A

NAV PRIMARY avail and check FMS runway pos update

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48
Q

What 3 conditions (any) to use NAV in the terminal area?

A

NAV PRIMARY or HIGH displayed, or Back up with NAVAIDS

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49
Q

When can you fly in NAV on the approach based on radio aids (2 conditions)

A

If NAV PRIMARY is avail and a/c or gnd aids u/s then approval req, or if NAV PRIMARY is not avail then if all equ working then you may do it.

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50
Q

When can you fly an RNAV app with LNAV minima in NAV mode?

A

As long as NAV PRIMARY is avail

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51
Q

Min number of APs for an Autoland?

A

One. Must be in APPR mode and at least LAND 1 displayed

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52
Q

OEI Autoland - what is the latest point to continue the approach?

A

1000’ all OEI procedures must be complete

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53
Q

OEI Autoland - what flap setting?

A

3 or FULL

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54
Q

Is there a minimum weight for autoland?

A

Yes - 165T

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55
Q

Max elev for autoland?

A

9200’

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56
Q

Min and max G/S for autoland?

A

2.5° to 3.5°

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57
Q

What is the lowest cat of autoland you can do onto a contaminated runway?

A

CAT 3B

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58
Q

Can you do a CAT 3B autoland onto a contaminated runway?

A

No

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59
Q

What is the surface condition category you can do a ROLLOUT on?

A

WET (GOOD 5) but not 4 (MED to GOOD). You can actually do it but it has not been demonstrated so be ready to take over

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60
Q

What do you need to consider if doing an autoland onto a contaminated runway with a crosswind?

A

Whether the contam crosswind will be more limiting than the autoland crosswind limit.

61
Q

What is the crosswind limit for autoland?

A

30 kts

62
Q

What is the tailwind limit for autoland?

A

Same as normal - 15kts

63
Q

Is tower wind or a/c wind the deciding factor as to whether to do an autoland?

A

Tower wind - if this is outside limits then do a manual landing

64
Q

What needs to happen to do an CAT 1 autoland with no LVPs?

A

CAT 1LTS or better minima published, No opp LOC transmitting, at least LAND 2 displayed, use CAT 2/3 procs and use CAT 1 minima. Be ready to disc autopilot if beam fluctuations occur

65
Q

Can you do OTS CAT 2?

A

Yes but must do an autoland, Min DH is 100’ and at least 1 AP engaged in APPR mode and LAND 2 or better displayed.

66
Q

How many APs for a CAT 2 autoland and what is the minimum LAND status required?

A

1 AP required and LAND 2 or better needs to be displayed

67
Q

How many APs are needed for a CAT 3 app with DH below 50’?

A

2 APs and LAND 3 DUAL or better must be displayed.

68
Q

What is the maximum G/S at elev 8000’ or above?

A

4°

69
Q

Max flaps operating altitude?

A

20000’

70
Q

Vfe F1

A

260 kts

71
Q

Vfe F1+F

A

231 kts

72
Q

Vfe F2

A

219 kts

73
Q

Vfe F3

A

206 kts

74
Q

Vfe FULL

A

192 kts

75
Q

What speed does ARS kick in?

A

221 kts

76
Q

What is Vmcl (Min control speed for landing)

A

123 kts

77
Q

What is approx Vmca?

A

130 kts

78
Q

Max wiper speed?

A

230 kts

79
Q

Can you start the APU if OIL LEVEL LO?

A

Yes - just get it done within 20 hours

80
Q

How many APU starts before a half hour wait?

A

3

81
Q

Max rotor speed APU?

A

106%

82
Q

Max EGT for APU start?

A

1260°C

83
Q

Max EGT for APU running?

A

680°C

84
Q

Are you allowed to restart APU or start it after autoshutdown if refuelling?

A

No

85
Q

APU Electrics alt?

A

Any

86
Q

APU for start assist

A

25000’

87
Q

APU with 1 pack ON

A

25000’

88
Q

APU with 2 packs ON

A

22500’

89
Q

Can you use APU bleed for Wing Anti-Ice?

A

No

90
Q

Engine EGT T/O or G/A

A

900°C for 5/10 minutes

91
Q

Engine EGT Max CON (OEI)

A

850°C

92
Q

Engine EGT Max starting in the Air

A

850°C

93
Q

Engine EGT max starting on GND

A

700°C

94
Q

What is the Engine N1 max speed?

A

104.3%

95
Q

What is the Engine N2 max speed?

A

102.6%

96
Q

What is the Engine N3 max speed?

A

99.8%

97
Q

Max Oil temp continuous?

A

186°C

98
Q

Min Oil temp for starting engine?

A

-40°C

99
Q

Min Oil temp for take-off?

A

50°C

100
Q

Min Engine Oil pressure?

A

25psi

101
Q

Min Oil QTY below 5 hour flight?

A

13 qts

102
Q

Min Oil QTY 5 to 7 hour flight?

A

15 qts

103
Q

Min Oil QTY 7 and above hour flight?

A

23.6 qts

104
Q

Engine start limits

A

2 x 3 mins, 1 x 1 min, 30 min cool (or 5 mins cont)

105
Q

Engine warm-up time before take-off

A

2 or 5 mins (90 min turnaround is the cutoff)

106
Q

Max speed for max reverse?

A

70 kts

107
Q

Can you use FLEX power on contaminated runways?

A

No

108
Q

Can you use derated power on contaminated runways?

A

Yes

109
Q

What is the max TFLEX?

A

TMAXFLEX which is ISA+60°C

110
Q

What does TMAXFLEX represent in terms of thrust?

A

A 40% reduction from the full rated T/O thrust

111
Q

What is the min value of TFLEX?

A

TREF (flat rating) which is ISA+15°C below 2000’. Also it can’t be lower than OAT.

112
Q

Can you push the levers fully forward on take-off when on a DERATED take-off?

A

No - you must not use TOGA

113
Q

Can you combine a FLEX with a derated t/o?

A

No

114
Q

Can you do a DERATED take-off off a contaminated runway?

A

Yes

115
Q

Can you use soft G/A with OEI?

A

No

116
Q

Max fuel temp?

A

+55°C

117
Q

Min fuel temp?

A

-40 or -47°C depending on the fuel

118
Q

Max Lateral fuel imbalance?

A

3T but this doesn’t apply in abnormal conditions

119
Q

Can you keep the a/c stationary with the brakes with 1 engine on high power setting?

A

Maybe, but the braking system is not designed to

120
Q

Max brake temp temp for take-off

A

300°C

121
Q

Can you reset the gear gravity drop system in flight?

A

You must NOT

122
Q

Can you use the parking brake when moving?

A

No, except in an emergency

123
Q

Max speed with a damaged or deflated tyre?

A

3 kts

124
Q

Max nosewheel steering angle with a deflated tyre?

A

30°

125
Q

Max number of nosewheels deflated?

A

1

126
Q

Max number of mainwheels deflated on one axle?

A

1

127
Q

Max number of mainwheels deflated on one side?

A

2

128
Q

What 3 situations can you not use Backup Steering function?

A

Contaminated runways, For turns more than 90° and To perform more than 2 turns

129
Q

During refuelling which lights CAN you switch on?

A

Nav, Logo and wing/engine lights

130
Q

Airport Navigation Function - what can each pilot display for Taxi, Take-off and during flight

A

Taxi - Both can display it. T/O only PM may display it. During flight (climb not specified) either may display it

131
Q

IRS - between which N and S lats can you align the IRSs?

A

Between 82°N and 78.25°S

132
Q

IRS in NAV mode - what is the N limit of displaying mag heading?

A

N of 82°N and when between 90°W and 120°W N of 73°N

133
Q

IRS in NAV mode - what is the S limit of displaying mag heading?

A

S of 60°S

134
Q

Outside the IRS mag display limits what must you select?

A

TRUE ref

135
Q

Printer - what is the definitive source?

A

Display; not the printer

136
Q

Min flight crew oxygen on flight deck?

A

750 or 1050 depending on number of seats

137
Q

BTV if landing on contaminated runway what must you set as the LDF PERF CODE?

A

4 (GM compacted snow) regardless of the available report

138
Q

ROW - can you use it on all runway states?

A

Yes

139
Q

ROW - does it allow for failures?

A

No

140
Q

ROW - can you land with a warning?

A

No, unless you have authorisation to do so, and have de-activated it using the ROW PB or if not installed, the TERR SYS button.

141
Q

ROW if you need to de-activate the system, then when can you do it?

A

When inside 15nm from the airfield

142
Q

T-PED on FD or in corridor to FD - what devices?

A

WIFI and bluetooth, not 3G

143
Q

PED Power - can it be on for take-off and landing?

A

No

144
Q

G Limits Clean?

A

-1G to +2.5G

145
Q

G Limits dirty?

A

0G to +2G

146
Q

Normal (Dry or Good) Crosswind limits for take-off?

A

35 kts

147
Q

Normal (Dry or Good) Crosswind limits for landing?

A

40 kts

148
Q

Crosswind limits for contaminated runways?

A

GM 4- 27kts, M3/MP2-20kts and Poor 1 - 15kts

149
Q

Cargo Door operation?

A

40 kts but closed before 60 kts

A350 Groundschool (1 decks)

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