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Global Vision 2020 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum flight crew requirement?

A

One pilot and one copilot

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2
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

78,600 lb / 35,652 kg

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3
Q

What is the maximum ZFW (zero fuel weight)?

A

56,000 lb / 25,401 kg (􏰁Without SB􏰆) a􏰆nd

58,000 lb / 26,308 kg(􏰁With SB􏰆)

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4
Q

What􏰃 ar􏰂e 􏰃the manu􏰆ev􏰉􏰈er􏰂in􏰆g flaps􏰇􏰀 0/s􏰀lats in􏰆 load limit􏰃􏰀?

A

Slats/ Flaps retracted -1 G to +2.5 G

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5
Q

What are the manoeuvring Slats / Flaps extended ?

A

0 G to +2 G

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6
Q

What is the maximum runway slope approved for takeoff and landing?

A

+/- 2% uphill/ downhill

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7
Q

Can the Global operate from unpaved, gravel or grass runway?

A

NO. AFM prohibits operation on unprepared surfaces.

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8
Q

Wha􏰃 is􏰀 t􏰃he visual 􏰂eye reference for􏰅􏰂 lan􏰆din􏰆g 􏰇􏰇approach height􏰃 for􏰅􏰂 t􏰃he Gl􏰅bal 5000 a􏰆nd 􏰃the Gl􏰅bal 6000 ai􏰂rc􏰂raft􏰃?

A
  1. 40 ft /4.69M - 5000 and

15. 60 ft / 4.75M - 6000

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9
Q

What pilot action must be taken for takeoff or landing near bodies of water when the airplane is above the maximum landing wight?

A

Requires the OFV #2 to be closed and

one PACK shutdown

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10
Q

What is the wingspan

A

94 ft / 28.65

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11
Q

What is the tail height

A

25 ft 6 in / 7.77 M

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12
Q

What is the minimum 180 radius turn for the

Global 5000 / 6000

A

65 ft 4 in / 19.92M - 5000. and

68 ft / 20.73M - 6000

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13
Q

What distance in front of the aircraft is required to clear the wingtip for Global 5000/ 6000

A

11 ft 6 in / 3.5M - 5000 and

10 ft 9 in / 3.32M - 6000

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14
Q

What type is the APU

A

RE 220

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15
Q

What is the maximum RPM for the APU

A

106%

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16
Q

What is the Max alt operating for the APU

A

45.000 feet

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17
Q

What is the minimum temp for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground

A

-40C

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18
Q

How many start attempts are permitted for the APU

A

3 per Hour

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19
Q

What is the maximum starting altitude for APU

A

37.000 feet

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20
Q

What is the maximum OAT for bleed-air extraction from the APU for air conditioning

A

OAT 45C

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21
Q

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU

A

30.000 feet

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22
Q

What is the maximum electrical load rating for the APU Gen

A

40 KVA

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23
Q

What pilot action must be taken if the APU is powering an AC bus above 37.000 feet?

A

The associated hydraulic ACMP must be selected OFF

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24
Q

How are electrical loads given priority?

A

APU FADEC cycles the load control valve LCV closed

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25
Q

When does the APU door position display on the EICAS?

A

When the FADEC detects an inlet door fault

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26
Q

When is it recommended to top up the APU oil reservoir?

A

When the STATUS page indication is lower than 4.5 quarts

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27
Q

What occurs when the APU run switch is returned to the RUN position prior to the 60 sec cool down period?

A

The APU rpm returns to 100%

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28
Q

Name one of the 3 conditions that would cause the manual operation of the APU LCV impossible

A

Anti-ice active,
Left engine Pressure Regulating Valve is manually opened.,
Right Engine Pressure Regulating Valve and crossbreed valve are manually opened

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29
Q

Name the 4 ways the APU can be shut down during an emergency

A

1 APU fire DISCH handle pulled
2 APU SHUT-OFF button - Ext Service Panel - pushed
3 BATT MASTER switch selected to OFF
4 APU SHUTDOWN SWITCH - APU compartment - pushed

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30
Q

What is the APU shutdown RPM requirement before turning off the BATT MASTER switch?

A

less then 70%

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31
Q

What is the limitation for replenishing the APU oil system?

A

A minimum of 15 min after APU shutdown and within 45 min of engine shutdown

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32
Q

When is use of the oil replenishment system use prohibited ?

A

When the OAT is less than or equal to -12C

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33
Q

What are the sources of aircraft-generated AC power?

A

4 variable freq gen VFGs,
1 APU GEN,
1 RAT

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34
Q

What is the electrical rating of the variable freq Gens, APU Gen, and RAT

A

4 VFGs - 40 KVA
APU GEN - 40 KVA
RAT - 9 KVA

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35
Q

How many AC buses are on the Global aircraft?

A

4 AC Buses - 1,2,3,4 ACPC

4 AC Buses - 1A, 2A, 3A, ESS (CCBP)

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the AC power centre ACPC

A

The ACPC protects, controls, and distributes AC power to the main AC Buses

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37
Q

In the event of a single Gen operation which AC buses remain powered

A

AC buses 1 and 4

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38
Q

How many engine Gen must fail before AC buses are load shed by the AC power centre ACPC

A

3

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39
Q

Where is external power receptacle located?

A

Aft Service Control Panel

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40
Q

What does the AVAIL light on the Ext AC switch/light on the aft Service Control Panel indicate

A

It indicates that the correct phase, voltage and Freq of the Ext AC Power is connected and available

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41
Q

What electrical services are powered in GROUND SERVICE mode?

A

4 primary AC buses, cabin feeders, APU battery charger and heater
AC3 (CCBP) than powers the avionics battery charger and heater.

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42
Q

What is indicated when both the AVAIL and ON lights on the Ext AC switch/lights illuminate simultaneously ?

A

Ground Service switch has been left ON

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43
Q

Why must the Ground Service switch be selected OFF prior to selecting normal external AC power?

A

TAT3 and the Right windshield heaters will remain inoperative

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44
Q

Where is the external DC power receptacle located?

A

It is located aft of the AFT equipment Comp Door

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45
Q

What is powered with the external DC power?

A

APU start contactor assembly ASCA provides power to start the APU, should the APU battery not be available

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46
Q

What is the purpose of the Gen switch / lights on the ELECTRICAL panel?

A

To reset or turn off the applicable generator

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47
Q

What is the normal source of DC power for the aircraft?

A

4 TRUs located in the unpressurised nose Comp,

TRU1, TRU2, ESS TRU1, ESS TRU2

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48
Q

What are the 4 main DC buses?

A

DC Bus1, DC Bus2, DC ESS Bus, BATT Bus

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49
Q

In an emergency, how long will the aircraft batteries provide DC power?

A

Minimum of 15 min

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50
Q

In an emergency, what buses are powered by the batteries?

A

BATT Bus and DC EMER Bus

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51
Q

What EICAS message is displayed for a failed battery charger?

A

Advisory message
APU BATT CHGR FAIL or
AV BATT CHGR FAIL

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52
Q

Which DC buses are automatically load shed during single TRU operation?

A

DC Bus1 and DC Bus 2

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53
Q

What is the purpose of the EMER DC PWR OVRD switch?

A

Provides a bypass of a failed DCPC to provide power from ESS TRU 1 and 2 to the secondary power distribution assemblies SPDAs

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54
Q

Can a thermal CB be reset from the EMS CDU?

A

No. A thermal CB can only be physically reset at its location.

55
Q

In cruise flight, when does the RAT automatically deploy?

A

14 sec after loss of all AC power

56
Q

When would the RAT automatically and immediately deploy?

A

Loss of all AC power and
SLATS and FLAPS handle not IN and 0 or
Immediately after a dual engine failure

57
Q

At what speed as the aircraft decelerates on the approach does the RAT GEN go OFF line

A

below 147 kts

58
Q

Why is the RAT GEN taken OFF line as the aircraft decelerates on approach?

A

To ensure the RAT hydraulic pump has priority for flight controls

59
Q

What does the EICAS warning message

EMER PWR ONLY indicate?

A

RAT is powering the AC ESS BUS

60
Q

If a GEN is reset after the RAT has deployed, how can the normal power be restored

A

Select the RAT GEN OFF with the RAT MANUAL RELEASE in the stowed position

61
Q

Where are the fire detection sensing elements located on the engine ?

A

Accessory gearbox,
Engine core,
Fixed cowl

62
Q

What type of extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles

A

Halon

63
Q

What are the cockpit indications of an engine fire

A

Respective L / R Fire Discharge Handle illuminates ,
L ENG FIRE or R ENG FIRE warning msg with Master Warning lights.
Fire annunciation in the respective ITT indicator
Aural warning “LEFT Engine Fire” or “Right Engine Fire”

64
Q

Which are the 5 effects on the aircraft systems when the L / R Eng DISCH handle is pulled

A 
1  Fuell SOV closes
2 Hydraulic SOV closes
3 Bleed-Air SOV closes
4 VFGs taken offline
5 Arms the Fire Bottles
65
Q

Why is the ENG RUN switch selected OFF before pulling the Fire Handle during an engine fire?

A

Because the immediate shutdown is via the Eng Run, not the handle

66
Q

If an APU fire is detected on the ground and no action is taken, what will the FADEC command after 5 SEC?

A

Automatic shutdown of the APU

67
Q

Is an unattended APU operation permitted?

A

No. There is No provision for automatic fire bottle discharge

68
Q

During an EMER EVACUATION, how are the fire DISCH handles operated?

A

Press the release button - manual override, under the handle and while pressing it pull the associated handle

69
Q

What is the maximum number of smoke detectors the FIDEX can monitor?

A

8

70
Q

How is the Fire Suppression in the baggage comp, Lavatories and cabin closets provided?

A

Portable Fire Extinguishers

71
Q

What is the function of the APU lock out release pin

A

Prevents unintentional discharge of the 2nd extinguisher bottle into the APU

72
Q

How is the Fire system Tested

A

EMS CDU pilot- initiated test

73
Q

When a Fire Test detects a failure, what is the indication/

A

Appropriate EICAS Caution Message displays

74
Q

How are the Primary Flight Controls controlled and actuated ?

A

Mechanically controlled and Hydraulically actuated

75
Q

Which Hydraulic system powers the aileron power control units PCUs?

A

LEFT aileron - System 1 & 3

Right aileron - System 2 & 3

76
Q

How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system?

A

Operative control wheel overpowers the jam via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube

77
Q

One disconnected, can the ailerons be reconnected in flight?

A

NO

the system must be rest by maintenance

78
Q

How is the Pilot alerted if the aileron, rudder or stabiliser trim is out of the allowable range and the throttles are advanced for Takeoff?

A

Applicable EICAS warning message accompanied by the

NO TAKEOFF voice message

79
Q

When is the Yaw Dumper engaged by the flight guidance computer?

A

After the first engine start

80
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the Rudder power control units PCUs

A

Hydraulic System 1, 2 and 3

81
Q

Which hydraulic system power the Elevator power control units PCUs?

A

Left elevator 1 & 3

Right elevator 2 & 3

82
Q

What inputs activate the STAB trim?

A

Manual Trim - Capt overrides the Copilot
Auto Trim - Autopilot 1 or 2
MAch trim - Autopilot off

83
Q

What does the master disconnect - MSTR DISC switch do when pressed

A

Provides a disconnect command to the AFCS disconnects Pitch Trim and Stall Pusher while the switch is held ( NO Pusher Disconnect for the EASA certified A/C)

84
Q

Under which 2 conditions will the stabiliser in motion aural clacker sound?

A

Stabiliser runaway

Stab Trim held for an extended period

85
Q

How is the Slat / Flaps Operation controlled

A

By 2 independent Slat / Flap control Units SFCUs

86
Q

Will a Flap failure prevent the operation of the Slats?

A

No. The Flaps and Slats are two independent dual motor assemblies

87
Q

What is the purpose of the FLAPS switch on the TWAS / SMS panel?

A

Mute the Flap aural warning if the flaps are not in the correct landing configuration

88
Q

How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?

A

4 Multifunctional spoilers MFS

2 Ground Spoilers GS

89
Q

With Flaps extended, which MFSs are available?

A

Only 2 inboard pair of MFs

90
Q

What are the functions of the Multi functionals spoilers MFSs?

A

1 Roll assist
2 Proportional lift dumping
3.Ground lift dumping
4 Combination: Roll assist and proportional lift dumping

91
Q

How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?

A

The opposite panel is automatically disabled

92
Q

During landing, when will the ground spoilers deploy?

A

Throttles at idle or bellow and two of following conditions:
RA bellow 7 feet,
One main Landing Gear WOW,
One wheel speed greater than 16 knots

93
Q

How does the pilot override in order to interrupt the stick pusher?

A

Pressing and holding the MST DISC

Not certified for EASA

94
Q

What is the Maximum permissible fuel imbalance on ground and during the TakeOff and Landing if the fuel quantity is more than 20.250 lbs (9186 kg)?

A

600 lbs (266 kg)

95
Q

What is the Maximum permissible fuel imbalance on ground and during the TakeOff and Landing if the fuel quantity is less than 19450 lbs (8823 kg)?

A

1100 lbs (488 kg)

96
Q

What is the Maximum permissible fuel imbalance in flight?

A

1100 lbs (488 kg)

97
Q

What is the maximum usable fuel load for the wing tanks when using pressure refuelling?

A

15050 lbs (6825 kg) per wing tank

98
Q

What is the maximums usable fuel load for the AFT fuel tank on the XRS or 6000?

A

2300 lbs (1025 kg)

99
Q

According to AFM, which combination of the 2 conditions makes the Center Tank fuel unusable?

A

Each wing is NOT full at departure and planned cruise altitude is less than 30 000 ft

100
Q

According to AFM, which combination of the 2 conditions makes the AFT Tank fuel unusable?

A

Each wing does NOT contain at least 5500 lbs (2495 kg) fuel at departure and planned cruise altitude is less then 30 000 ft

101
Q

If the use of the centre / aft tank is planned what is the minimum required tank load?

A

500 lbs (230 kg) to ensure transfer pump reprime

102
Q

What is the minimum go-around fuel?

A

600 lbs (266 kg) per wing with wing level and Max climb attitude of 10 nose up

103
Q

What are the 2 limitations associated with fuel recirculation system?

A

Fuel recirculation is prohibited when using wide cut fuels, asymmetric operation is prohibited

104
Q

Bellow which fuel temp is TakeOff prohibited?

A

Below +5C is prohibited

105
Q

Is it permissible to takeoff and land with the XFEED SOV switch / light indicated OPEN?

A

NO

106
Q

Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refuelled?

A

Forward or Aft aux tanks

107
Q

How is the positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight?

A

NACA scoops provide ram air

108
Q

When should the operation of the pressure relief valves not be tested?

A

When associated wing tank is above 1180 lb and the center tank above 8000 lb

109
Q

What does the COMPAIRE FUEL QUANTITY indication in the FMS mean?

A

FMQGC and FMS fuel quantity differ by more than 2%

110
Q

Under which combination of conditions does the fuel recirculation system automatically activate?

A

Above 34 000 ft and a single fuel temp sensor below -20C or

Above 34 000 ft and average of temp sensors below -9C

111
Q

When do the 2 AC boost pumps in each tank operate ?

A

Onside ENG RUN switch ON

112
Q

Where is the SOV located and how is the valve closed?

A

Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead

It is closed via the associated fire discharge handle

113
Q

When does the fuel transfer from the centre tank to the wings ?

A

Wing tank quantity below 93% and continues until wing reaches full
(3% of volume maintained for fuel expansion)

114
Q

What is the fuel quantity at which fuel transfers automatically from the AFT aux tank to the wing tank?

A

When either of the wing tank quantities reduces to 5500 lb

115
Q

What will happen if one or both AC boost pumps fail?

A

Onside DC AUX pump automatically operates, providing engine fuel feed pressure

116
Q

Under which 3 conditions would both DC Aux pumps automatically operate?

A

1 Flap position greater than 0
2 In flight with Landing gear down
3 600 lb in either wing tank

117
Q

Under which condition is a lateral fuel imbalance automatically corrected ?

A

A wing imbalance of 400 lb and DC Aux pumps are not already running

118
Q

What is the AFM Limitation for the fuel XFEED SOV?

A

Must be closed for takeoff and landing

119
Q

What is the purpose of the XFEED SOV?

A

Single engine feed from Bothe wing tanks or both engine to be fed from a single tank

120
Q

After an engine failure, why is the XFEED SOV open?

A

To ensure balanced fuel use both tanks avoiding any significant lateral fuel imbalance

121
Q

Which fuel tank normally provides fuel for the APU?

A

The Right wing tank

122
Q

Which fuel pumps have no pilot control?

A

Central tank transfer pumps

123
Q

How is fuel automatically transferred to the central tank from the forward auxiliary tank?
XRS/6000

A

Transfer ejector or gravity flow

124
Q

Which 4 conditions inhibit an automatic wing fuel transfer?

A

1 Flaps position greater than 0
2 In flight with Landing Gear extended
3 Low fuel condition - less than 600 lb in either wing
4 DC aux pump supplying fuel feed an engine (AC pump failure)

125
Q

Why must manual operation of the wing transfer system be monitored?

A

Because no automatic shutdown or overfill protection is provided

126
Q

What is the power source for the refuel / defuel panel?

A

APU Battery Direct Bus - to prevent APU battery drain, ensure the panel is selected OFF after use

127
Q

During the refuel SOV test, what does the SOV FAIL message indicate?

A

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full

128
Q

How many Hydraulic systems provide the aircraft with hydraulic power

A

3

129
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are required for normal system operation?

A

One hydraulic pump for each system

130
Q

Which hydraulic systems are powered by engine driven pumps ?

A

1 & 2

131
Q

What is normal hydraulic operating pressure?

A

3000 psi

132
Q

What hydraulic fluid is used in Global?

A

SKYDROL

133
Q

Why is there a 2 sec delay between ACMP starts, when multiple hydraulic pumps are commanded on?

A

To prevent AC electric overload

134
Q

When will the ACMP start with the hydraulic switch in AUTO

A

Either Slats / Flaps not IN / 0 position or when system low pressure detected

Global Vision 2020 (2 decks)

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