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SV/LIMITATIONS > LIMITATIONS > Flashcards

LIMITATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Ramp weight

A

85,870

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2
Q

Takeoff weight

A

85,517

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3
Q

Landing weight

A

74,957

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4
Q

Max ZFW

A

69,886

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5
Q

FWD cargo

A

3,306

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6
Q

AFT cargo

A

2,535

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7
Q

Min RWY width

A

100ft

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8
Q

Max altitude

A

41,000

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9
Q

Max T/O and LND altitude

A

8,000

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10
Q

Max&min T/O and LND

A

ISA +35

-40

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11
Q

Max runway slope

A

+-2

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12
Q

Max tailwind

A

15kts

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13
Q

Max single pack alt

A

31,000

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14
Q

Vmo below 8,000

A

300

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15
Q

Vmo above 10,000

A

320

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16
Q

Mmo

A

.82

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17
Q

Va

A

240

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18
Q

Gear speed

A

250

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19
Q

Max tire speed

A

195

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20
Q

RAT min

A

130

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21
Q

Vb under 10,000

A

250

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22
Q

Vb above 10,000

A

270/.76

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23
Q

Max wiper speed

A

250

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24
Q

Flaps 1

A

230

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25
Q

Flaps 2

A

215

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26
Q

Flaps 3

A

200

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27
Q

Flaps 4

A

180

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28
Q

Flaps 5

A

180

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29
Q

Flaps full

A

165

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30
Q

Max crosswind DRY

A

38

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31
Q

Max crosswind WET

A

31

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32
Q

Max crosswind compacted snow

A

20

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33
Q

Max crosswind standing contaminants

A

18

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34
Q

Max crosswind ICE

A

12

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35
Q

Standing takeoff not recommended with crosswind above __

A

30

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36
Q

Max SLAT/FLAP altitude

A

20,000

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37
Q

Min spoiler speed

A

180

will auto stow

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38
Q

CAT II must land with FLAPS __

A

FLAPS 5

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39
Q

On ground starter limits

A

Start 1+2=90 seconds on 10 off

Starts 3-5=90 seconds on 5 mins off

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40
Q

In flight starter limits

A

Start 1+2=120 seconds on 10 seconds off

Starts 3-5=120 seconds on 5 mins off

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41
Q

Max fuel capacity

A

20,935

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42
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

800 (794)

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43
Q

Min fuel tank temp

A

-37

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44
Q

APU max start alt

A

30,000

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45
Q

APU max operating alt

A

33,000

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46
Q

APU max pack op alt

A

15,000

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47
Q

APU max alt for engine start

A

21,000

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48
Q

APU start limits

A

Start 1+2=60 seconds off

Start 3=5 mins off

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49
Q

Max pressure differential

A
  1. 8 to 37,000
  2. 34 above 37,000
    - .5 NEG
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50
Q

Max differential pressure for takeoff and landing

A

+-.2

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51
Q

Min HYD reservoir TEMP

A

-18

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52
Q

Min autopilot engagement T/O

A

400

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53
Q

Min autopilot alt

A

50

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54
Q

Min autopilot alt on NPA

A

MDA

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55
Q

TAS, TAT, SAT reliable above what speed?

A

60

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56
Q

COM 1 transmitting the compass is deemed

A

Unreliable

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57
Q

BARO altimeter must be used for

A

NPA and CAT I ILS

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58
Q

Max frost underwing

A

1/8”

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59
Q

Min battery voltage

A

22.5

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60
Q

Anti-ice ENG

A

OAT 10-5C and contaminated or visible moisture/clouds below 1700

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61
Q

Anti-ice ALL

A

OAT less than 5C contaminated or visible moisture/clouds below 1700

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62
Q

Min oil PSI after start

A

25

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63
Q

Max window open speed

A

160

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64
Q

Max differential pressure

A

8.77

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65
Q

When flaps are selected to a pos greater than 0 while configuring for a landing will the ACMP’s turn on?

A

Yes

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66
Q

Single engine taxi on engine 2. Which pumps are active?

A

ACMP 3A, EDP2

ACMP 1 should be turned on

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67
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

Assist in gear extension or retraction should the right engine or right EDP fail

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68
Q

H-PBIT will run when all 3 systems are pressurized and?

A

HYD reservoir temp at above 10 or H-PBIT timer is at 0 hours

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69
Q

Which HYD sys handles the nosewheel?

A

2

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70
Q

If pump 3A fails on taxi will 3B automatically turn on?

A

No

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71
Q

How long does the PBE provide oxygen for?

A

15 mins

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72
Q

The crew oxygen mask provides how much O2?

A

22 mins in 100% and 98 mins in normal at 10,000

73
Q

How will you identify a properly charged flashlight?

A

Flashing red light

74
Q

Which color is normal for the PBE humidity indicator?

A

Blue

75
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down for an in flight fire?

A

No

76
Q

Max APU alt

A

33,000

77
Q

How many separate air data systems are required to fly a CAT II approach?

A

2

78
Q

Appropriate speed for SE driftdown?

A

green dot

79
Q

What airspeed to retract flaps if F bug not present?

A

Green dot plus 10

80
Q

Green dot provides __ g of protection

A

1.3

81
Q

What color are advisory messages?

A

Cyan

82
Q

What is the takeoff config OK button looking for?

A

Flap pos matches MCDU
Trim green
Parking brake
Spoilers

83
Q

Can you scroll past WARNING MESSAGES on EICAS?

A

Hell naw

84
Q

Can you discharge fire bottles with no power to the aircraft?

A

Yea

85
Q

What happens if a fire is detected in the FWD cargo compartment?

A

Air circulation fan cuts out
Ventilation outflow valve closes
High rate bottle armed
Fire button illuminated

86
Q

Will the APU auto shutdown for a fire in flight?

A

Nope

87
Q

What are you checking for “check thrust”

A

N1 at target
ATTCS green
Engine parameters normal

88
Q

When is flex takeoff prohibited?

A

Windshear reported or forecast
Contaminated RWY
Prohibited by procedure

89
Q

With thrust levers set to TOGA when will ATTCS command RSV?

A

Difference in N1 more than 15%
Windshear
Eng fail on TOGA

90
Q

FADEC eng abort start is any pilot action required?

A

Yes, FADEC does not close the Starter Control Valve

91
Q

Engine abort oil pressure

A

No oil psi within 10 seconds of N2 rise

92
Q

Engine abort N1

A

No indication before starter cutout

93
Q

Engine abort light off

A

No light off within 30 seconds

94
Q

Does the stick shaker disconnect the auto pilot?

A

yea buddy

95
Q

AFCS FAULT displayed and erroneous air data

A

Turn on the ADSP heat

96
Q

Single engine approach flap setting

A

5

97
Q

Stab trim priority

A

Backup
CA
FO

98
Q

AC ESS BUS items

3221

A

HYD pump 3A
AC fuel pump 2
Slat channel 2
Flap channel 1

99
Q

How will you know if the RAT has deployed?

A

BATTERY DISCHARGING EICAS msg will go away

100
Q

What is an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY?

A

Loss of normal AC power to bus 1 and 2

101
Q

With RAT deployed which electrical fuel pumps will we have?

A

ACMP2 and DC

102
Q

Min fuel temp

A

-40

103
Q

Water dump striper bar will extinguish when

A

Faulty drain mast heater indication in the aft FA control panel
Button pressed again
Empty
Gear extension

104
Q

Max straight line taxi speed

A

30

105
Q

When will pax mask auto deploy?

A

Cabin alt 14-14,750

Good for 12 mins

106
Q

Descent rate for DES NOW

A

1000

107
Q

FMS speeds in single engine flight?

A

chill

108
Q

When is the windshield automatically heated?

A

Two engines are fired up

109
Q

What speed does TAT, SAT, TAS become valid?

A

60

110
Q

Contaminated runway landing proc

A

Max revers and auto brake set to med

111
Q

Max tire speed

A

195

112
Q

MIC button must be selected to MASK to allow the microphone in the mask to work

A

truuuu

113
Q

What does 22.5V on batteries give us?

A

10 mins power and 2 APU starts

114
Q

APU auto shutdown on ground (SHELF)

A 
Sensor fail
High oil temp
EGT overtemp
Low oil psi
Fire
115
Q

Fire presses

A

At least 1 press
Add a press if non annunciated
Add a press for low rate on gnd

116
Q

Cat A MEL

A

Specified

117
Q

Cat B MEL

A

3 days

118
Q

Cat C MEL

A

10 days

119
Q

Cat D MEL

A

120

120
Q

Order we do checklists (MEAN)

A

Memory
Emergency (QRH/QRC)
Abnormal (QRH)
Normal

121
Q

“Nearest suitable airport” is Brazilian for

A

DECLARE AN EMERGENCY

122
Q

AC power priority

A

Onside
Inside
Outside
Cross side

123
Q

Only AC bus you have on batteries?

A

AC standby bus

Has igniters on it

124
Q

What does direct mode do?

A

Cuts FCM out of the loop

125
Q

How long does the E PBIT take?

A

3 mins from when ac power was applied

126
Q

Ways to fuck up the E PBIT

A

Run any HYD pump
Interruption of AC pwr
Flight control mode switches are cycled

127
Q

H PBIT runs when

A

All 3 HYD sys running

Takes 1 min

128
Q

How to fuck up H PBIT

A

Move controls

129
Q

ACMP will auto on when?

A

EDP fails
On takeoff (Flaps, TOGA, GS more than 50)
Landing flaps in

130
Q

PTU must have

A

EDP 1 not failed

At least 12% fluid in reservoir

131
Q

When would you turn on ADS probe ht on the originating check?

A

less than -18
Contaminated probe
Freezing temps and visible moisture
Erroneous air data

132
Q

Ground spoilers retract when

A

Wheel speed 45 or below for seconds

TLA above 35

133
Q

What happens at 60kts on takeoff

A

ADSP info becomes valid

AT go to HOLD mode (disengages TL servos)

134
Q

What happens at 100 kts on takeoff?

A

TRACK

135
Q

What happens at 200ft on takeoff?

A

LNAV jumps the fence

Wont turn until 400ft

136
Q

What happens at 400ft on takeoff?

A

HOLD goes back to TO for AT

137
Q

What happens at 1000ft on takeoff?

A

VNAV jumps the fence to FLCH

138
Q

Valet bags weigh

A

30lbs

139
Q

Ticketed bag weight

A

Same as child weight

80-82 depending on time of year

140
Q

A child is between __ years old

A

2 and 13

141
Q

Min temp for APU

A

-54

142
Q

Height of tail

A

32’4”

143
Q

Turbulence penetration speed below 10,000

A

250

144
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed above 10,000

A

270/.76

145
Q

What do you have during an electrical emergency?

A 
Nav1
Com1
Irs1
Ccd1
Fms2
Mcdu2
1/2 dome lights
146
Q

How long for RAT to deploy?

A

8 seconds

147
Q

How is Vap calculated?

A

Half the steady headwind componet plus the gust factor

148
Q

Landing distance to be used in emergency

A

Unfactored

149
Q

Min and max Vap

A

Always at least 5 max 20

150
Q

When should preview needles show up

A

150 miles

151
Q

Can you get a low fuel msg for low collector tank fuel with good main tank fuel?

A

yea boi

152
Q

What feeds the APU

A

DC on bat start
AC once started
Main ejector when engine running

153
Q

How does a PATH mode descent start?

A

LNAV/VNAV
TOD displayed
Lower altitude selected

154
Q

Can we fuel with pax on board?

A

Fuck yeah so long as engines are off
Main cabin door open
Or direct communication with the fueler

155
Q

What does AUTO on battery 2 do?

A

Allows us to start on DC GPU

156
Q

After one minute of APU fire on ground what illuminates?

A

Fire push

157
Q

When does the fuel quantity turn amber?

A

1320

158
Q

Does HYD3A do anything different when powered by the RAT?

A

Flow limiter

159
Q

When does the PTU come on?

A

Flaps greater than 0
OR
Gear not up and locked

160
Q

What does pressure dump do?

A

Packs off
Re-circulation fan off
Outflow valve open
2000fpm descent to 12,400

161
Q

Max differential up to FL37?

A

7.8

162
Q

Max differential above FL37?

A

8.4

163
Q

When does auto ice prot turn off?

A

When no ice has been detected in the last 2 minutes

164
Q

A/I from 10-5 includes

A

ENG

165
Q

At what temp does ALL A/I start?

A

4 and below

166
Q

When does wing anti ice turn on on takeoff?

A

40kt wheelspeed

167
Q

Must have HYD warm up if tank is below

A

-18

168
Q

When to make config changes in windshear?

A

1500ft

Clear windshear and terrain

169
Q

Airspeed trend line

A

10 seconds

170
Q

Altitude trend line

A

6 seconds

171
Q

If emergency release used will we have NSW steering?

A

No

172
Q

Auto brake disengage

A

20% toe brakes

Push back more than 5kts

173
Q

When does auto brake begin on takeoff?

A

60kt

174
Q

Locked wheel prot over what speed?

A

30kt

175
Q

When will locked wheel prot cut out a brake

A

difference in 33 perent

176
Q

What speed does antiskid become active?

A

10

177
Q

Min fuel

A

2250

178
Q

Emergency fuel

A

1500

179
Q

What should the FO take with on an evacuation

A

CRASH AXE!!!
Flash light
And pin card

SV/LIMITATIONS (1 decks)

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