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Q400 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of flight operations are approved?

A

Day and Night
IFR and VFR
Icing conditions

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2
Q

Minimum flight crew

A

Pilot and copilot

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3
Q

Maneuvering limit load factors with the flaps retracted

A

+2.5g to -1.0g

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4
Q

Maneuvering limit load factors with the flaps extended

A

+2.0g to 0.0g

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5
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance

A

600 lbs

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6
Q

Vmo 0 to 8,000 ft

A

245 KIAS

Maximum Operating Speed

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7
Q

Vmo 10,000 ft

A

282 KIAS

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8
Q

Vmo 18,000 ft

A

286 KIAS

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9
Q

Vmo 20,000 ft

A

275 KIAS

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10
Q

Vmo 25,000 ft

A

248 KIAS

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11
Q

Vfe 5°

A

200 KIAS

Maximum Flap Extension Speed

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12
Q

Vfe 10°

A

181 KIAS

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13
Q

Vfe 15°

A

172 KIAS

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14
Q

Vfe 35°

A

158 KIAS

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15
Q

Va: Full application of the rudder and ailerons, and maneuvers that involve angles of attack near the stall, should be confined to speeds below this value

A

204 KIAS

Maneuvering Speed

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16
Q

Vlo

A

200 KIAS

Maximum Gear Operating Speed

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17
Q

Vle

A

215 KIAS

Maximum Gear Extended Speed

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18
Q

Vra

A

210 KIAS

Rough Air airspeed

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19
Q

Maximum Alternate Gear Extension airspeed

A 
185 KIAS
(Limited because all wheel well doors remain open after the gear is extended.)
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20
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

25,000 ft

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21
Q

Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000 ft

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22
Q

Approach Category

A

Category C

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23
Q

Approved for CAT II and CAT III approaches?

A

No

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24
Q

Maximum runway slope

A

+2% (uphill) to -2% (downhill)

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25
Q

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff with flaps 10° or 15°, or landing with flaps 35°

A

20 kts

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26
Q

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff with flaps 5°, or landing with flaps 10° or 15°

A

10 kts

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27
Q

Minimum approved runway width

A

100 ft

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28
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a hard, dry or wet, runway

A

32 kts

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29
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a runway with dry, loose snow (4.0 in. for takeoff, 5.1 in. for landing)

A

18 kts

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30
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a runway with standing water, slush, or wet snow

A

14 kts

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31
Q
  • Flight and Ground -

Maximum operating ambient temperature

A

+50°C or ISA +35°C, whichever is lower

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32
Q
  • Flight and Ground -

Minimum operating ambient temperature

A

-54°C

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33
Q

If the aircraft is parked in temperatures lower than __°C ( __°F) for longer than __ hours, you must permit a warm-up period for the PFD, MFD, ED, ARCDU & FMS

A

-15°C
5°F
3 hours

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34
Q

Setting takeoff power prior to brake release, with the nose of the airplane more than __° out of wind, is prohibited for wind speeds greater than __ knots.

A

45°

8 knots

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35
Q

Single engine taxi [is/is not] authorized.

A

is not

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36
Q

Reverse taxi [is/is not] authorized.

A

is not

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37
Q

Auxiliary Fuel Pumps, Tank 1 and Tank 2, [may/must be] on for takeoff and landing.

A

must be on

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38
Q

Continuous operation with fuel heater outlet temperature indication below __°C or above __° C is prohibited.

A

0°C

71°C

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39
Q
  • Oil Pressures General -

Oil pressure minimum

A

44 psi

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40
Q
  • Oil Pressures General -

Oil pressure normal operating range

A

61 to 72 psi

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41
Q
  • Oil Pressures General -

Oil pressure transient minimum

A

44 to 61 psi

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42
Q
  • Temperature for Start -

Minimum oil temperature

A

-40°C

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43
Q
  • Temperature for Start -

Minimum oil temperature above FLT IDLE

A

0°C

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44
Q
  • Temperature at Ground Idle -

Minimum oil temperature

A

-40°C

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45
Q
  • Temperature at Ground Idle -

Maximum oil temperature

A

107°C

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46
Q
  • Temperature at Ground Idle -

Maximum oil temperature PLA (Power Lever Angle) between Disc and FLT IDLE

A

125°C

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47
Q
  • Temperature above Ground Idle -

Minimum oil temperature

A

0°C

55°C for takeoff in icing conditions

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48
Q

Minimum oil temperature required to ensure engine air inlet ice protection, prior to takeoff is __°C.

A

55°C

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49
Q

Minimum oil temperature required to ensure engine air inlet ice protection, inflight and within __ minutes of setting takeoff power is __°C.

A

3 minutes

65°C

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50
Q

APU is approved for ______ OPERATIONS ONLY and must be ________ prior to takeoff.

A

GROUND

shutdown

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51
Q

APU [may/must not] be operated unattended with __________ _________ or during ________ _________.

A

must not
passengers onboard
pressure refueling

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52
Q

APU must not be operated during ________ refueling.

A

gravity

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53
Q

APU ambient temperature limits

A

-35°C to +50°C or ISA +35°C, whichever is lower

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54
Q

With APU inlet louvers installed, APU operation is limited to __°C maximum ambient temperature limit.

A

21°C

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55
Q

APU Starter Cranking Limits

MX required after 3rd failed attempt.

A

1st Start: ON 60 seconds, OFF 2 minutes
2nd Start: ON 60 seconds, OFF 2 minutes
3rd Start: ON 60 seconds, OFF 30 minutes

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56
Q

Propeller Manufacturer and Model

A

Dowty Aerospace

R408

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57
Q

Powerplant Manufacturer and Model

A

Pratt & Whitney

PW 150A

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58
Q

Powerplant ambient temperature limitations

A

-54°C to +50°C or ISA +35°C, whichever is lower

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59
Q

With Bypass Doors Open, takeoff, landing, and setting MTOP (Maximum Takeoff Power) and MCP (Max Continuous Power) is limited to a maximum ambient temperature of ISA ___°C.

A

+25° C

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60
Q

Maximum altitude for Airstart

A

20,000 ft

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61
Q

Automatic Takeoff Power Uptrim

A

10% torque (nominal)

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62
Q 
Powerplant Limits for MTOP (Max T/O Power):
(Max Takeoff Rating is limited to 5 minutes.)
Maximum Torque \_\_\_%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) \_\_\_°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_% rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_% rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) \_\_\_ rpm
Oil Pressure \_\_\_ to \_\_\_ PSID
Oil Temp \_\_\_° to \_\_\_°
A 
Powerplant Limits for MTOP (Max T/O Power):
(Max Takeoff Rating is limited to 5 minutes.)
Maximum Torque 106%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) 880°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) 100% rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) 100% rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) 1020 rpm
Oil Pressure 61 to 72 PSID
Oil Temp 0° to 107°
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63
Q

Maximum Torque ___% for NTOP (Normal Takeoff Power)
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) (Chart °C)
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) (Chart % rpm)
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) (Chart % rpm)
Max NP (Propeller Speed) ___ rpm
Oil Pressure ___ to ___ PSID
Oil Temp ___° to ___°

A

Maximum Torque 90.3% * for NTOP (Normal Takeoff Power)
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) (Chart °C)
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) (Chart % rpm)
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) (Chart % rpm)
Max NP (Propeller Speed) 1020 rpm
Oil Pressure 61 to 72 PSID
Oil Temp 0° to 107°
* NTOP torque indication will be 90% or 91%.

64
Q 
Powerplant Limits for MCP (Max Continuous Power):
Maximum Torque \_\_\_%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) \_\_\_°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_% rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_% rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) \_\_\_ rpm
Oil Pressure \_\_\_ to \_\_\_ PSID
Oil Temp \_\_\_° to \_\_\_°
A 
Powerplant Limits for MCP (Max Continuous Power):
Maximum Torque 100%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) 880°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) 100% rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) 100% rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) 1020 rpm
Oil Pressure 61 to 72 PSID
Oil Temp 0° to 107°
65
Q

Powerplant Limits for Starting:
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) ___°C
Oil Pressure ____ PSID
Oil Temp -____° minimum

A

920°C, 20 seconds maximum
100 PSID, Max oil pressure165 PSID at discing with OAT below 0°C.
- 40° minimum

66
Q 
Transient Powerplant Limits:
(Maximum of 20 seconds.)
Maximum Torque \_\_\_%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) \_\_\_°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_%rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_%rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) \_\_\_ rpm
Oil Pressure \_\_\_ to \_\_\_ PSID, and
Oil Pressure \_\_\_ to \_\_\_ PSID
Oil Temp \_\_\_° (5 secs max for torque values above flight idle and less than 55%.)
A 
Transient Powerplant Limits:
(Maximum of 20 seconds.)
Maximum Torque 135%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) 920°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) 102.3%rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) 101.2%rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) 1173 rpm
Oil Pressure 44 to 61 PSID, and
Oil Pressure 72 to 100 PSID
Oil Temp 125° (5 secs max for torque values above flight idle and less than 55%.)
67
Q 
Powerplant Limits for Max Reverse:
Maximum Torque \_\_\_%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) \_\_\_°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_% rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) \_\_\_% rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) \_\_\_ rpm
Oil Pressure \_\_\_ to \_\_\_ PSID
Oil Temp \_\_\_° to \_\_\_°
A 
Powerplant Limits for Max Reverse:
Maximum Torque 35%
Max ITT (Indicated Turbine Temp) 880°C
Max NL (Low Press Rotor Speed) 100% rpm
Max NH (High Press Rotor Speed) 100% rpm
Max NP (Propeller Speed) 1020 rpm
Oil Pressure 61 to 72 PSID
Oil Temp 0° to 107°
68
Q

Engine Starter Cranking Limits

A

1st Start: ON 70 seconds, OFF 2 minutes
2nd Start: ON 70 seconds, OFF 2 minutes
3rd Start: ON 70 seconds, OFF 30 minutes

69
Q

Type of fuel prohibited

A

WIDE CUT TYPE FUELS

70
Q

Usable fuel tank capacity and total fuel

A

5,862 lbs. per tank

11,724 lbs. total

71
Q

Maximum engine torque on the ground is ____%

A

100%

72
Q

Minimum NH (High Pressure Rotor Speed) on the ground is ___.__%

A

64.2%

73
Q

Maximum wind speed for ground operation, with the nose of the airplane more than 30° out of wind, is __ kts.

A

50 kts

74
Q
  • Ground Maneuvering -

Maximum power setting with the airplane nose more than 30° out of wind and wind speed 9 to 20 kts

A

FLIGHT IDLE, momentarily higher for acceleration

75
Q
  • Ground Maneuvering -

Maximum power setting with the airplane nose more than 30° out of wind and wind speed 21 to 35 kts

A

FLIGHT IDLE

76
Q
  • Ground Maneuvering -

Maximum power setting with the airplane nose more than 30° out of wind and wind speed 36 to 50 kts

A

FLIGHT IDLE, Power Levers must be at DISC with airplane static.

77
Q

Requirement during ground operations when winds exceed 50 kts

A

Must be recorded and the maximum wind speed provided to MX within 24 hours.

78
Q
  • Ground Static Operation -

Maximum power setting with the airplane nose more than 30° out of wind and wind speed 9 to 20 kts

A

Power levers angle at 60° (approximately midway between FLIGHT IDLE and Takeoff power detent)

79
Q
  • Ground Static Operation -

Maximum power setting with the airplane nose more than 30° out of wind and wind speed 21 to 35 kts

A

FLIGHT IDLE

80
Q
  • Ground Static Operation -

Maximum power setting with the airplane nose more than 30° out of wind and wind speed 36 to 50 kts (gusts to 55 kts)

A

DISC

81
Q

Inflight operation of the POWER levers aft of the ______ _____ gate is prohibited.

A

FLIGHT IDLE

82
Q

Minimum SAT (Static Air Temp) inflight for engine relight is __°C.

A

-40°C

Inflight, the SAT = OAT

83
Q

For the Standby, Auxiliary, and Main Batteries, the maximum loadmeter reading for takeoff is ____

A

0.1

84
Q

For the Standby, Auxiliary, and Main Batteries, the minimum battery temperature for takeoff is ___°C

A

-20°C

85
Q

Maximum load air/ground for the AC GEN, DC GEN, and TRU is ___

A

1.0

86
Q

Maximum altitude for extending or extended landing gear or wing flap is _____

A

15,000 ft.

87
Q

Maximum tire speed is ___ kts groundspeed.

A

182 kts

88
Q

Normal cabin pressure differential limit is ___

A

5.46 psi ± 0.1 psi

89
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential limit is __

A

5.95 psi

90
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential limit during taxi, takeoff, and landing is ___

A

0.5 psi

91
Q

Maximum cabin altitude (pressurized flight) __

A

8,000 ft.

92
Q

Explain the wheel brake cooling limits.

A

Brake cooling times must be observed between a landing or a low-energy rejected takeoff and a subsequent takeoff, to ensure that sufficient brake energy is available to bring the airplane to a complete stop if the subsequent takeoff is rejected.

93
Q

For engine operation in icing conditions, the _____ ______ ______ doors must be open.

A

engine intake bypass

94
Q

When ice is detected, the _______ ____ ______ selector must be positioned at ___.

A

AIRFRAME MODE SELECT

FAST

95
Q

Icing conditions exist when SAT on the ground and for takeoff is __°C or below, SAT inflight is __°C or below and visible moisture is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals.

A

10°C

5°C

96
Q

AFCS (Automatic Flight Control System) is approved for autopilot approaches to CAT __ limits only.

A

I (One)

97
Q
  • AFCS -
    APP mode, autopilot engaged approaches, is approved for Flap __° (minimum altitude _____ft AGL).
    Also approved for Flap __°, ___°, ___°, and ___°
A

0°, 1,000 ft

5°, 10°, 15°, 35°

98
Q

Autopilot must be disengaged in ______ icing.

A

severe

99
Q

During autopilot operation, the pilot must be ______ __ ___ _______ ____ _______ _______.

A

seated at the controls with harness secured.

100
Q
  • AFCS -

Use of ___ without associated ___ is prohibited in APP mode.

A

VOR, DME

101
Q
  • AFCS -

After takeoff or go-around, the minimum height for autopilot engagement is _____ ft. AGL.

A

1,000 ft.

102
Q
  • AFCS -

For non-precision approaches the autopilot must be disengaged at or above ___ ft. AGL.

A

200 ft.

103
Q
  • AFCS -

Flight in conditions of ______ atmospheric turbulence with autopilot [engaged/disengaged] is prohibited.

A

severe

engaged

104
Q
  • AFCS -
    With an inoperative engine, an autopilot approach must not be continued past the ______ __________ fix or _____ ft. AGL, whichever is lower.
A

final approach

1,000 ft.

105
Q
  • AFCS -

Autopilot and Flight Director only approaches are approved for glideslope angles of ___° to a maximum of ___°.

A

2.5°

4°

106
Q
  • AFCS -
    Autopilot approaches have been demonstrated in crosswind components up to __ knots. This [is/is not] considered limiting.
A

18

is not

107
Q
  • AFCS -

On precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged at or above a minimum altitude of ___ ft. AGL.

A

200 ft.

108
Q

Unless the forward and aft cargo compartments are _____, the airplane must not be operated further than __ hour flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

A

empty

1

109
Q
  • Avionics -
    With Integrated Standby Instrument installed, the airplane must not be operated _______ ____ __ ____ _____ ____ ____ __ _________ _______ ___ _______.
A

further than 1-hour flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

110
Q
  • Avionics -
    To ensure uninterrupted operation of the pilot’s and copilot’s ___, ___, and __, electrical power must be cycled on all displays ____ every __ hours (flying day).
A

PFD, MFD, ED

once, 24

111
Q
  • FMS -

Approach Navigation is _________ with the FMS Data Base expired.

A

prohibited

112
Q
  • FMS -
    IFR enroute and terminal navigation is prohibited with the FMS Data Base expired unless the Pilot ______ ___ _________ ___ __________ __ _________ __ ______ __________.
A

verifies the waypoints for accuracy by reference to current publications.

113
Q
  • FMS -
    When using previously stored flight plans and waypoints, the waypoints must be _______ ___ __________, by reference to current publication, _____ to their use.
A

verified for accuracy

prior

114
Q
  • FMS -
    The aircraft must have approved navigation equipment appropriate to the route of flight installed and operating so as to provide an _________ _____ __ ______.
A

alternate means of navigation

115
Q
  • FMS -
    Flights above __° north latitude or below __° south latitude using the FMS may be conducted only when ________ _________ is input manually into the system or an ________ _____ ________ source is used and no manual variation has been input.
A

73°, 60°
magnetic variation
alternate true heading

116
Q
  • FMS -
    Fuel display parameter is advisory only and [may/must not] be used as the primary means for computing fuel load and range.
A

must not

117
Q

The FMS may only be used for navigation guidance if the reference coordinated data system for the intended route is referenced to in ____-__ or ___-__.

A

WGS-84

NAD-83

118
Q
  • FMS -
    Instrument approaches must be conducted in the __________ mode and, for GPS approaches, _____ must be available at the final approach fix.
A

approach

RAIM

119
Q
  • FMS -
    Instrument approaches must be accomplished in accordance with instrument approach procedures that are retrieved from the ______ __________.
A

FMS database

120
Q
  • FMS -

On RNAV approaches where vertical guidance (____ Mode) is used, the Company must bug MDA plus ____ ft.

A

VNAV
50
Derived Descent Altitude (DDA) allows for dip during a missed approach without descending below the charted LNAV MDA.

121
Q
  • FMS -

Navigation by means of Pilot-defined, non published approaches under IMC is _____.

A

prohibited

122
Q
  • FMS -

P-RNAV operations may only be conducted with the FMS in ____________ mode.

A

terminal

123
Q
  • FMS -
    When altitudes are manually entered before or after the __________ compensation function is activated, it may produce VNAV paths with climb segments, and result in a ____ disconnect.
A

temperature

VNAV

124
Q

The UNS-1E FMS is approved for ___/___ ________, _______, and approach _____ and _____ operations.

A

VFR/IFR enroute
terminal
LNAV and VNAV

125
Q
  • UNS-1E -
    Whenever navigation is predicated on the FMS, the _________ _______, Report No. 2423sv801 (or equivalent at current revision), must be available to the Flight Crew.
A

Operator’s Manual

126
Q
  • UNS-1E -

FMS based ___ and ___ approaches are prohibited.

A

ILS

MLS

127
Q
  • UNS-1E -
    VNAV vertical path angles greater than __° in enroute and terminal mode and greater than __° in approach mode are prohibited.
A

6°

4°

128
Q
  • FMS -
    All manually entered altitudes must be adjusted with the appropriate _________ _________ before they are entered into the FMS, even if the __________ ____________ function is not active.
A

temperature correction

temperature compensation

129
Q

The flight compartment door must be ________ and ________ at all times during flight except to provide access and egress as required per the FOM and SOP400.

A

closed

locked

130
Q

At 70°, the minimum Crew Oxygen and Portable Oxygen pressure for dispatch is

A

3 Crew - 1450 psi
2 Crew - 1050 psi

Portable Oxygen - 1600 psi

131
Q

Route of flight must be within __ hour(s) flight time of a suitable airport in _____ ____ at normal cruising speed with [one/all] engine(s) operative.

A

one
still air
one

132
Q

On the ground operation of landing (APPROACH and FLARE) lights is limited to __ minutes. This does not preclude continuous operation of the _____ light.

A

5

TAXI

133
Q
  • Maximum Structural Weight Limits -

Ramp Weight

A

64,700 lbs. (High Gross Weight)

65,400 lbs. (Enhanced Gross Weight)

134
Q
  • Maximum Structural Weight Limits -

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

64,500 lbs. (High Gross Weight)

65,200 lbs. (Enhanced Gross Weight)

135
Q
  • Maximum Structural Weight Limits -

Maximum Landing Weight

A

61,750 lbs. (High Gross Weight)

62,000 lbs. (Enhanced Gross Weight)

136
Q
  • Maximum Structural Weight Limits -

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

57,000 lbs.(High Gross Weight)

58,000 lbs. (Enhanced Gross Weight)

137
Q
  • High and Enhanced Gross Weight -

Forward CG limit up to 53,000 lbs.

A

13.8% MAC

138
Q
  • Enhanced Gross Weight -

Forward CG limit for 53,000 lbs. thru 65,200 lbs.

A

13.8% thru 17.7% MAC

Slopes from 13.8% MAC at 53,000 lbs. to 17.7% MAC at 65,200 lbs.

139
Q
  • High and Enhanced Gross Weight -

Aft CG limit

A

36% MAC

140
Q
  • High Gross Weight -

Forward CG limit for 53,000 lbs. thru 64,500 lbs.

A

13.8% thru 17.4% MAC

Slopes from 13.8% MAC at 53,000 lbs. to 17.4% MAC at 65,200 lbs.

141
Q
  • Temperature above Ground Idle -

Maximum Oil Temperature

A

107°C

142
Q
  • Temperature above Ground Idle -

Max. Continuous Oil Temperature

A

107°C

143
Q
  • Engine Rating Limitations -

Maximum Take-Off Power (MTOP) (5071 SHP) ____% TRQ

A

106% TRQ
This is the maximum power on the operating engine certified and is time limited to 5 minutes.
(SHP - Shaft Horsepower)

144
Q
  • Engine Rating Limitations -

Normal Take-Off (NTOP) (4580 SHP) ____% TRQ

A

90.3% TRQ
This is the take-off power developed under normal take-off conditions.
(NTOP torque indication will be 90% or 91%.)

145
Q
  • Engine Rating Limitations -

Maximum Continuous Power (MCP) ____% TRQ

A

100% TRQ
The maximum continuous power rating is the maximum power certified for continuous use. This rating should only be used when required to ensure safe flight (i.e. engine failure).

146
Q
  • Powerplant Limits -

Maximum allowable continuous NP overspeed is ____ rpm

A

1071 rpm

147
Q

All flaps ___° landings will be done with a maximum flaps setting of ___° during the approach to the final segment.

A

35 °

15 °

148
Q 
Minimum Flap Speeds (SOP 50.120.3)
Flaps 0°       \_\_\_\_ KIAS
Flaps 5°       \_\_\_\_ KIAS
Flaps 10°     \_\_\_\_ KIAS
Flaps 15°    *\_\_\_\_ KIAS
* May be lower when in final landing config.
A 
Minimum Flap Speeds (SOP 50.120.3)
Flaps 0°       175 KIAS
Flaps 5°       160 KIAS
Flaps 10°     150 KIAS
Flaps 15°    *145 KIAS
* May be lower when in final landing config.
149
Q

The combined total load in aft cargo compartment R1 and R2 shall not exceed ______ lbs for the High Gross Weight model or ______ lbs for the Enhanced Gross Weight model.

A

3,765 lbs.

2,545 lbs.

150
Q

Aft Cargo Compartment (R2) will not exceed ______ lbs.

A

1,000 lbs.

151
Q

Forward Cargo Compartment (F1) will not exceed ______ lbs.

A

910 lbs.

152
Q

Minimum pavement width for 180 degree turn (without backing up) is ___ft ___in.

A

84 ft 5 in

153
Q

Main Landing Gear strut extension is ___” to ___”

A

1.5” to 4.5”

154
Q

Nose Gear Strut extension is ___” to ___”

A

1” to 3”

155
Q

Components on #1 Hyd System

A

Flaps * * Priority Valve closes for press drop
Anti-skid and Normal Brake @
Inboard Spoilers @ @ Isolation Valve closes for qty drop
Rudder (Lower PCU)
Elevator (Outboard PCU)
Power Transfer Unit (PTU) *
(Another good acronym other than FAIREP is BARFPIE. Good because it separates Brakes and Anti-skid.)

156
Q

Components on #2 Hyd System

A 
Landing Gear @            @ Isolation Valve closes for qty drop
Outboard Spoilers @
Nose wheel Steering @
Elevator (Center PCU)
Rudder (Upper PCU)
Emergency Brake @
157
Q

Aircraft Dimensions (SOP 20.20)

Wing Span ____ft ____in
Length ____ft ____in
Height ____ft ____in
Propeller Diameter ____ft ____in

A

Aircraft Dimensions (SOP 20.20)

Wing Span 93 ft 3 in
Length 107 ft 9 in
Height 27 ft 4 in
Propeller Diameter 13 ft 6 in

Q400 (2 decks)

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