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Embraer 175 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum ramp weight

A

E170 82,364 lbs

E175 85,870

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2
Q

Maximum Cargo Compartment Loads

A

Aircraft
ERJ 170. Fwd 3020lbs Aft. 2271lbs

ERJ 175. Fwd 3307lbs Aft. 2535lbs

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3
Q

Max. takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

10 knots

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4
Q

Max. runway slope

A

+/- 2.0%

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5
Q

Type of operations

A

1) Visual flight (VFR)
2) Instrument flight (IFR)
3) Icing conditions
4) CAT II
5) RVSM
6) EOW (175 when properly equipped)

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6
Q

Runway Surface Type

A

Paved

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7
Q

Flap maneuvering load acceleration limits. Flaps..

A

Up. -1.0 G to +2.5 G

Down (1,2,3,4,5,and Full). 0.0 G to +2.0 G

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8
Q

Max. operating altitude

A

41,000 feet

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9
Q

Max. takeoff and landing altitude

A

8,000 feet (ERJ 170/175 only)

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10
Q

Max. ambient air temperature for T/O and landing

A

52°C

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11
Q

Max. flap extension altitude

A

20,000 ft

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12
Q

Max. flight operating latitude

A

78oN to 78oS

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13
Q

Min. ambient temperature approved for takeoff

A

-40°C

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14
Q

Min. ambient temperature for operation

A

-54°C

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15
Q

The maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing is:

A

38 knots

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16
Q

The maximum crosswinds for takeoff and landing will be—

WET/DRY

A

28 knots

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17
Q

The maximum crosswinds for takeoff and landing will be

NOT WET OR DRY limits

A

Compact Snow. . 20
Standing H2O/Slush. . 18
Wet Ice (no melting) . .12

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18
Q

TURBULENT AIR PENETRATION

A

Below10,000MSL- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -250KIAS
At or above 10,000 MSL - - - - - - 270 KIAS/0.76M (E170/175/190). Use whichever speed is lower

During climb or descent with variations in indicated airspeed, the use of FLCH mode may result in airplane pitch changes. The use of FPA mode is recommended to maintain airplane attitude.

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19
Q

LANDING GEAR SPEEDS (VLO AND VLE)

A

Maximum gear extension speed (VLO) 250 KIAS
Maximum gear retraction speed (VLO) 250 KIAS
Maximum gear extended speed (VLE) 250 KIAS
VLOisthemaximumspeedatwhichthelandinggearcanbesafely extended and retracted.
VLEisthemaximumspeedatwhichtheaircraftcanbesafelyflown with the landing gear extended and locked.

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20
Q

MAXIMUM TIRE GROUND SPEED

A

Maximum Tire Ground Speed 195 Knots

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21
Q

MAXIMUM FLAP OPERATING SPEEDS - VFE

A 
Flap 1   230
Flap 2   215
Flap 3   200
Flap 4   180
Flap 5   180
Flap full 165
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22
Q

MAXIMUM SPEED TO OPEN THE DIRECT VISION WINDOW

A

160 KIAS

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23
Q

MANEUVERING SPEED ENVELOPE

A

Full application of rudder and aileron controls, as well as maneuvers that involve angles of attack near the stall, must be confined to speeds below 240 KIAS (R).

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24
Q

Is there a temperature limit for anti-icing automatic operation?

A

There is no temperature limitation for anti-icing system automatic operation.

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25
Q

DEFINITION OF ICING CONDITIONS

A

A. Icing conditions may exist whenever the Static Air Temperature (SAT) on the ground or for takeoff, or Total Air Temperature (TAT) inflight, is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals).
B. Icing conditions may also exist when the SAT on the ground and for takeoff is 10°C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

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26
Q

ENGINE AND WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM OPERATIONS

On the ground (R)

A

During taxi out and takeoff, the MCDU DATASET MENU must be set to ALL when SAT is 10oC or below and icing conditions exist or are anticipated.
On the ground, do not rely on visual icing evidence or ice detector actuation to turn on the engine anti-icing system. Use the temperature and visual moisture criteria specified in this section. Delaying the use of the Anti-Icing system until ice build-up is visible from the flight deck may result in ice ingestion and possible engine damage or flameout.

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27
Q

ENGINE AND WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM OPERATIONS

In flight

A

The engine and wing anti-ice systems operate automatically in case of ice encounter when the ICE PROTECTION Mode Selector is in AUTO. If either one or both ice detectors are failed, the crew must set the mode selector to ON when icing conditions exist or are anticipated at or below 10oC TAT with visible moisture.
Delaying the use of the anti-icing system until ice build-up is visible from the flight deck may result in ice ingestion and possible engine damage and/or flameout.

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28
Q

WINDSHIELD WIPER OPERATION

A

Maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation is 250 KIAS (R)

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29
Q

Maximum usuable fuel by tank? Unusable? Total usuable + unusable

A

10393 lbs.
(1535.5 US Gal)

Usable + unusable = 10393 + 75 =
20,936 lbs
(3094 US Gal)

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30
Q

Unusable quantity per tank

A

75 lbs

11 US Gal

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31
Q

APPROVED FUELS

A 
Primary fuel 
1)  Jet A (ATSM D1655) 
2)  Jet A-1 (ATSM D1655)
Alternate fuel
1)  JP-8 (MIL-T-83133A)
Brazilian Specification
1)  QAV1
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32
Q

FUEL TANK TEMPERATURE- Minimum

A

-40°C

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33
Q

FUEL IMBALANCE

- Maximum fuel imbalance between tanks.

A

790 lbs

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34
Q

CROSSFEED OPERATIONS

A

The XFEED Selector must be set to OFF during takeoff and landing.

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35
Q

Pressurization Chart
Maximum Differential Pressure
Up to 37,000 feet?
Above 37,000 feet?

A

Up to 37,000 feet 7.8

Above 37,000 feet 8.3

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36
Q

Maximum Differential Overpressure

A

8.7 psi

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37
Q

Maximum Differential Negative Pressure

A

-0.5 psi

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38
Q

Maximum Differential Pressure for Takeoff and Landing

A

0.2 psi

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39
Q

AIR CONDITIONING

The maximum altitude for single pack operation?

A

31,000 ft

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40
Q

Dispatch or departure with the message ‘RECIRC SMK DET FAIL’ displayed is _____________ unless troubleshooting action confirms the message has not been triggered due to a failure of an AMS controller card.

A

Prohibited

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41
Q

BRAKES

Cooling Limitation - do not takeoff with _________ brake temperature indicators. (R)

A

Amber

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42
Q

Towing
Towbarless towing is ___________, unless the towbarless towing
operations are performed in compliance with the appropriate
operational requirements using towbarless towing vehicles that are designed and operated to preclude damage to the airplane nose
wheel steering system, or which provide a reliable and unmistakable warning when damage to the steering system may have occurred.

A

Prohibited

Towbarless towing vehicles that are specifically accepted for this type of airplane are listed in the documentation provided by the
airplane manufacturer.

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43
Q

LANDING GEAR RETRACTION
Activation of the landing gear downlock release button is __________for all takeoffs unless obstacle clearance is required. (R)

A

Prohibited

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44
Q

Maximum Altitude with Flaps Extended?

A

Maximum altitude …………….20,000 feet.

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45
Q

Enroute use of flaps is _____________. (R)

A

prohibited

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46
Q

Do not hold in icing conditions with ____________. (R)

A

Flaps extended

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47
Q

When can you use Flaps 4?

A

Use Flaps 4 for takeoff only. Prohibited for use during approach and landing configuration.

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48
Q

THRUST REVERSERS are approved for ___________.

A

Ground use only

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49
Q

Thrust reversers are Intended for use during __________.

A

Full stop landings

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50
Q

Do not attempt a ____________ after deployment of the thrust reversers.

A

Go-around maneuver

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51
Q

Power back operations using thrust reversers are _________.

A

Prohibited

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52
Q

Landing rollout below 60 KIAS:

1) Application of maximum reverse thrust is _________ .
2) Reduce reverse thrust to _______.

A
  1. ) not permitted

2. ) IDLE

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53
Q

TAS, TAT and SAT are only valid above ____KIAS.

A

60 KIAS

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54
Q

Standby magnetic compass indication is not valid while transmitting on _______.

A

VHF #1

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55
Q

Barometric altimeter minimums must be used for all ________ .

A

CAT I approaches

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56
Q

LOC Backcourse approaches using IESS is _____.

A

not authorized

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57
Q

EPGWS Limitations:

Aircraft navigation must not be predicated upon the use of the________.

A

Terrain Awareness Display

58
Q

The use of predictive EGPWS functions should be manually inhibited when landing at an airport that is ___________ to avoid unwanted alerts.

A

not in the airport database

59
Q

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ________ to the extent necessary to comply with an EGPWS Warning.

A

ATC clearance

60
Q

EPGWS Limitations:
The _______ is intended to be used as a situational tool only and may not provide the accuracy and/or fidelity on which to solely base terrain avoidance maneuvering.

A

Terrain Display

61
Q

The use of predictive EGPWS functions should be manually

inhibited during QFE operations if _________.

A

GPS data is unavailable or inoperative

62
Q

TCAS

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a _________.

A

Resolution Advisory (RA).

63
Q

TCAS

Maneuvers must not be based solely on information presented in the ________.

A

traffic display

64
Q

During RVSM operation it is necessary that the following equipment and instruments be in proper operating condition—
____________

A
  • 2 RVSM Compliant Air Data Systems;
  • 1 Autopilot with Altitude Hold Mode operative;
  • 1 Altitude Alerter;
  • 1 Transponder.
65
Q

RVSM MINIMUM EQUIPMENT REQUIRED

The ADS1, ADS2 and
ADS3 are compliant with _________.

A

RVSM operation

66
Q

RVSM MINIMUM EQUIPMENT REQUIRED

The IESS must not be used for ________.

A

RVSM operation

67
Q

Should any of the required equipment fail prior to the aircraft entering RVSM airspace, the pilot should request a ________ to avoid entering this airspace.

A

new clearance

68
Q 
The altitude as indicated on the two PFDs must not exceed the differences depicted in the following table:
Aircraft Altitude.   
2000 up to 10000
10000 up to 20000
20000 up to 41000
A

Aircraft Altitude. Max Diff between PFDs
2000 up to 10000. 50 ft
10000 up to 20000. 120 ft
20000 up to 41000. 180 ft

69
Q

INERTIAL REFERENCE SYSTEM
The aircraft may be operated within the North and South magnetic polar cut-out regions specified in the table below, but IRS magnetic heading and track angle magnetic data will not be available

A 
MAGNETIC CUT-OUT REGIONS  
North
LATITUDE Between 73.125°N and 82°N 
LONGITUDE  Between 80°W and 130°W 
LATITUDE. North of 82°N 
LONGITUDE. Between 0° and 180°W/E 
South
LATITUDE Between 60°S and 82°S
LONGITUDE Between 120°E and 160°E
LATITUDE South of 82°S 
LONGITUDE Between 0° and 180°W/E
70
Q

Whenever operating within North or
South magnetic polar cutout regions, current aircraft heading must be referenced to true heading, if not already selected. Otherwise, the
___________ will be displayed.

A

Failure Indication flag

71
Q

Maximum Latitude for Stationary Alignment:-

A

78.25° Northern and Southern

72
Q

IRS stationary alignment will complete only after a valid aircraft present position (latitude and longitude) is received either from the ______ or ________.

A

FMS (pilot entry) or automatically from GPS.

73
Q

Time to stationary alignment completion:

A

See chart pg 3-23

3.10.6.2

74
Q

The Honeywell FMS Pilot’s Guide must be immediately available to the Flight Crew in the cockpit whenever navigation is predicated on the use of the FMS. The software version must be displayed on the _______________ page.

A

Multi Control Display Unit (MCDU) NAV IDENT page

75
Q

RNP-1 operations,

including P-RNAV, require the use of the ___________.

A

Flight Director or Autopilot.

This applies to operations where RNP-1 is mandatory, including P-RNAV.

76
Q 
The Captain must ensure 
displayed guidance data 
from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is not used for navigation 
purposes by the Flight 
Crew.
A

non-usable stations

Reference Honeywell FMS Pilot’s
Guide Chapter 6 NOTICES TO AIR-MAN for the removal process of
Non-usable Navaids.

77
Q

Using the NOTAM function of the FMS, non-usable stations can be
entered as permanent (up to 3) or temporary (up to 3). The flight crew MUST only enter the station on the ______ column. This allows theFMS to reset navaids after every flight. If entered on the permanent
column, it will stay deselected in the FMS database forever.

A

temporary

78
Q

The NOTAM function in the FMS does not always inhibit tuning of a
NOTAM selected station by the FMS when in ____ tune mode. Note
that the FMS will not use NOTAM selected station data for FMS position determination.

A

AUTO

79
Q

The use of GPS is limited to areas where GPS is approved.

______ of GPS should be performed in non-approved areas.

A

Deselection

80
Q

Prior to flight using the FMS for IFR navigation, a minimum of one
______must be verified to be installed and operational. Also, any appropriate _________that are utilized by the procedures to be flown must be verified as operational using an approved method (NOTAM, etc.).

A

VOR, DME, and IRS

ground facilities (VOR, DME)

81
Q

If GPS RAIM is annunciated as not available during terminal,
enroute, or remote/oceanic operation, the pilot must monitor ______________.

A

FMS guidance data and crosscheck against raw data from an alternatesource (e.g. VOR, DME, or IRS)

82
Q

Due to priority use of GPS by the FMS, IFR Navigation using the FMS is limited to use with procedures that are referenced to the
____________, unless other appropriate authorized procedures are used.

A

WGS-84 or NAD-83 datum

83
Q

IFR Navigation using the FMS is prohibited unless the pilot verifies the currency of the selected navigation database cycle on the ______page.

A

NAV IDENT

84
Q

IFR Navigation using the FMS is limited to geographic regions contained within the navigation database that is ________.

A

installed in the airplane

85
Q

Operation above 72° 30.0’ north latitude and below 59° 30.0’ south latitude is prohibited due to unreliable magnetic heading, unless ________.

A

at least one Inertial Reference System (IRS) is verified operational as a sensor to the FMS

86
Q

FMS performance management calculations have not been certified by the FAA. FMS performance management information is advisory information only, and may not be used as a basis for _________.

A

fuel load planning or airplane range predictions

87
Q

Selection of FMS Position Update is ______ during RNP operations, including RNP-10 operations.

A

prohibited

88
Q

FMS

The use of the Step Climb function is _____ .

A

prohibited

89
Q

FMS General Limitations

The selection of course interception to a conditional waypoint is ______.

A

prohibited

90
Q

For takeoff and go around, LNAV must not be armed below ____ and VNAV below ______.

A

400 ftAGL

Acceleration Altitude.

91
Q

For takeoff and go around in one engine condition, LNAV and VNAV must not be armed below the ________.

A

Acceleration Altitude

92
Q

The use of VNAV guidance is prohibited when the FD vertical mode is ______.

A

standby

93
Q

The use of FMS Speed guidance is prohibited when the FD verticalmode is ____.

A

standby

94
Q

The use of VNAV guidance is ______ when the FD vertical mode is other than VNAV, unless pilots adjust the ALT SEL to each altitude constraint in the Flight Plan.

A

prohibited

95
Q

ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, GLS, MLS, Visual, and Radar

approaches, using the FMS as the navigation source for guidance, are ______.

A

prohibited

96
Q

FMS instrument approaches must be accomplished in accordance with approved instrument approach procedures that are retrievable from the FMS navigation database (as displayed on the APPROACH page on the MCDU). The pilot must review the complete procedure, comparing the waypoints, speeds, and altitudes displayed on the FMS with those on the published procedure charts. If any doubt exists about the integrity of the coded procedure, the procedure _______.

A

should not be used.

97
Q

Prior to commencing and during the final approach (ILS only), the APPR annunciator must be visible on the PFD. If the APPR
annunciator is not visible, and the appropriate runway visibility
indications are not observed, the pilot should request a _____.

A

missed approach

98
Q

When using FMS guidance to conduct an instrument approach procedure that does not include GPS in the title of the published
procedure, the flight crew must verify that the procedure specified navaids(s) and associated avionics are ________ (e.g. VOR, DME, ADF). If GPS RAIM is annunciated as not available during the approach, the pilot must monitor FMS guidance data and
crosscheck against raw data from the alternate source(s).

A

operational

99
Q

When a GPS Only Approach is planned (GPS only in title or GPS required by operational rules), prior to dispatch, the crew is required to verify that the predictive RAIM at the destination ETA is within the approach criteria. This information (RAIM AVAILABLE), is displayed on the _____ page on the MCDU.

A

PREDICTIVE RAIM

100
Q

For aircraft operating with EPIC Load 23, the following limitations apply:

1) Flight operations crossing the 180 degree meridian are ______.
2) If the runway in the flight plan is the active waypoint, selection of a new runway (LSK 1L on the ARRIVAL Page 1/1) is _______unless an approach associated with the new runway is also selected prior to activating the modified flight plan.

A
  1. ) not authorized

2. ) not authorized

101
Q

The autopilot installed in the Embraer 170/190 when operated in
accordance with these limitations, meets the minimum altitude
requirements specified in the FARs.
Minimum Engagement Height ……………………………….___?___
Minimum Use Height- Coupled ILS Approach……………___?____

A

Minimum Engagement Height ……………………………….400 ft AGL
Minimum Use Height- Coupled ILS Approach……………50 ft AGL

102
Q

Before initiating an approach with the AUTOPILOT engaged, make sure the correct ________has been inserted on
the FMS PROGRESS PAGE 1/3, Lines 5L and 5R.

A

ILS identifier

NOTE: Failure to ensure the correct iden-tifier is inserted may result in the airplane’s autopilot applying large-amplitude control inputs while following instrument landing system (ILS) guidance to runways that are not included on the FMS flight plan.

103
Q

During any IFR instrument approach procedure:

- ALT selector shall never be set lower than the _______.

A

published approach minimums.

104
Q

During any visual approach procedures:

- ALT selector shall never be set lower than ___________.

A

1500’ AGL or pattern altitude for the runway of use.

105
Q

At no time shall -____- be placed in the ALT Selector.

A

0

106
Q

The performance of Category II approaches has been demonstrated to meet the airworthiness requirements of FAA AC 120-29A-
Appendix 3 and CS AWO Subpart 2 requirement, when the following equipment is installed and operative:

A
  • 2 Inertial Reference Systems;
  • 2 Flight Director Systems;
  • 2 Primary Flight Displays (PFD);
  • Windshield Wipers;
  • 2 VOR/ILS NAV Systems;
  • 1 VHF/COMM System;
  • 1 Radio Altimeter;
  • 1 Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS);
  • 2 Air Data Systems (ADS).
  • Rudder in Normal Mode;
  • SPOILER FAULT message not presented.
  • 1 Autopilot System Channel; Manual FD approaches are prohibited.
107
Q

For CAT II operation with one engine inoperative, the following also applies:

A
  • 1 Autopilot System Channel;
  • Manual FD approaches are prohibited.

NOTE: Republic Airlines is not approved forsingle engine CAT II approaches. This does not prohibit the captain from exercising their emergency authority to conduct a CAT II single engine approach if this is the safest course of action.

108
Q

CAT II LIMITATIONS
The maximum demonstrated altitude loss due to autopilot malfunction is ____.

Minimum Use Height _______.

A

20 ft.

MUH)……………..50 ft.

NOTE: Coupled go-around height loss may be 50 ft.

109
Q

CAT II approach and landing must be performed with flaps ____.

A

5

110
Q

CAT II
MAXIMUM WIND COMPONENTS
Crosswind………………………………….___?___knots

A

12 knots (ERJ-170/175 Only)

111
Q

CAT II LIMITATIONS
Republic Airlines is not approved for _____ controlled CAT II
approaches.

A

Manually

112
Q

CAT II LIMITATIONS

Category II approaches are ______ in interchange aircraft.

A

not authorized

113
Q

POWER PLANT

TYPE: ____?____

A

Two General Electric CF34-8E5 (ERJ 170/175 Only)

114
Q

POWER PLANT
Engine Speed
N1: Min ? Max ?

A

N1: min –, max 99.5%

N2: min 58.5%, max 99.4%

115
Q

ENGINE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
ITT
Ground Start: min ? max ?
Inflight Start: min ? max ?

A

Ground Start: min – max 815ºC

Inflight Start: min – max 815ºC

116
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
ITT
Normal Takeoff &Go Around: min_?_ max_?_
Maximum Takeoff And Go Around: min_?_ max_?_
Maximum Continuous: min_?_ max_?_

A

Normal Takeoff &Go Around: min:– max: 965ºC first 2mins 949ºC last 3 mins (5 mins total)
Maximum Takeoff And Go Around:
max 1006C first two mins 990C last 3 mins. (5 mins total)
Maximum Continuous: max 960C

117
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

E170 82,011 lbs.

E175 85,517

118
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

E170 72,310 lbs.

E175 74,957 lbs

119
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

E170 65,256 lbs or 66,446*
E175 69,886 lbs

  • refer to flight release to confirm MZFW
120
Q

What are the starter limits on APU?

A
  1. 60 sec on 60 sec off
  2. 60 sec on 60 sec off
  3. 60 sec on 5 mins off
121
Q

What are min and max temperature for APU start? Max altitude for start?

A

-54c to ISA + 35c

30,000 ft

122
Q

What is APU min and max operating temp?

A

Min -62c. (-54c to start) max ISA +35c

123
Q 
What are APU altitude limits for the following:
Max operating altitude electrical?
Max operating altitude bleed?
Max operating altitude engine restart?
Max operating altitude to start APU?
A

33000ft
15000ft
21000ft
30000ft

124
Q

Max APU rotor speed?

A

108%

125
Q

Max start APU ITT?

A

1032 C

126
Q

Max APU continuous ITT?

A

717 C

127
Q

For takeoff what function must the ATTCS be in; T/O-1, T/O-2, T/O-3?

A

ATTCS ON

128
Q

What kind of APU do we have? Make and model.

A

Sundstrand APS 2300

129
Q

What engines do we have on170/175?

A

General Electric CF-34-8E5

130
Q

What are the N1 and N2 limits of the CF-34-8E5 engines?

A

N1 min N/a. Max 99.5%

N2 min 58.5% max 99.4%

131
Q

What is the max ITT for ground start and inflight start?

A

815C

132
Q

What is max continuous ITT for the engine?

A

960C

133
Q

What is min and max oil psi for the engine?

A

25 psi - 95 psi

134
Q

What is max continuous oil temperature for engine? What is transient?

A

155C

163C (time limited to 15 mins above 155)

135
Q

Thrust reverser limits

A 
Ground use only
Intended for full stop
Do not attempt go around
Power back are prohibited
Must be stowed below 60 kias
After deployment dont move T/L to forward thrust range, unless REV icon on EICAS is amber or green.
136
Q

Max flex decrease

A

25%

137
Q

Single engine taxi

A

Braking less than good
RVR less than 1200
Power out is required (no pushback)
Two minute warm up cannot be accomplished

138
Q

What is min and max oil pressure for engine?

Temperature?

A

25-95 psi
Continuous temp 155C
Transient temp 163C. Limited to 15 mins

139
Q

The E170 is ___________ from taking off with the ATTCS off.

A

prohibitted

140
Q

Engine starter duty cycles? Review with Jon

A

1st and 2nd
90 on 10 sec off
90 on 10 sec off
3rd, 4th, 5th

141
Q

CAT II REQUIRED EQUIPMENT

A

2PFD, 2ADS, 2 IRS, 2 NAV SYSTEMS (ILS/VOR), 2FD, (2PAINF)
1 Radio alt, 1 Autopilot channel, 1 Vhf comm, 1 Egpws, . (1RAVE)
Wipers
Spoiler faults not presented
Rudder in normal mode

Embraer 175 (16 decks)

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