Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMB 145 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

This aircraft meets the airworthiness requirements of what Title 14 CFR Parts?

A

Part 25 - Transport Category Performance

Part 36 - Noise Specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the required flight crew?

A

Pilot, Co-pilot (Captain, First Officer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What types of aircraft operations are approved?

A

Day and Night
VFR and IFR
Icing conditions
RVSM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Maximum cabin differential pressure?

A

8.1 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Auto Mode normal cabin differential pressure?

A

7.8 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Maximum negative cabin differential pressure?

A

-0.3 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Maximum altitude after an in-flight depressurization?

A

10,000 ft MSL unless MEA or other constraints require higher altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Maximum altitude when dispatched for unpressurized flight?

A

10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When both IAS and Mach values are given, which is limiting?

A

The lower of the two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at sea level?

A

250/.50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 10,000 ft?

A

320/.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 26,000 ft?

A

320/.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 30,000 ft?

A

296/.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 35,000 ft?

A

261/.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 37,000 ft?

A

250/.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Vmo/Mmo?

A

320/.78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Vmo between 8,000 and 10,000 ft?

A

Red line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Vmo up to 8,000 ft?

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Vb/Mb turbulence penetration speed?

A

250/.63 whichever is lower or,

200 at or below 10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Va maneuvering speed?

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the Vloe gear extension speed?

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Vle gear extended speed?

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Vlor gear retraction speed?

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the Vfe flap speeds?

A

9 - 250
18 - 200
22 - 200
45 - 145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Maximum wiper operating speed?

A

160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What must be confined to speeds below Va?

A

Full application of rudder and ailerons, and high AOA maneuvers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can dramatically increase the risk of structural failure of the vertical stabilizer or rudder?

A

Full or nearly full rudder deflection in one direction followed by the other direction, even at speeds below maneuvering speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

With flaps at 45, what speed excursions are allowed due to gusts or turbulence?

A

Momentary excursions up to 155 knots with no crew or maintenance action required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

With flaps at 45, when must speed excursions be entered into the AML?

A

Steady state operations above 145 knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What speed is always higher than Vmcg?

A

V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What speed is always higher than Vmca?

A

Vr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What speed is always higher than Vmcl?

A

Vref

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When does Vmo/Mmo increase linearly from 250 knots to 320 knots?

A

From 8,000 ft to 10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Maximum operating altitude?

A

37,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Minimum takeoff and landing altitude?

A

-1,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the Maximum takeoff and landing altitude?

A

8,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the Minimum takeoff and landing temperature?

A

-40 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Maximum takeoff and landing temperature at -1,000 ft?

A

52 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Maximum takeoff and landing temperature at 8,000 ft?

A

34 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In the event of a landing below -40 C, what is required before the next takeoff?

A

A maintenance inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the Minimum TAT in cruise flight above 25,000 ft?

A

-45 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Momentary deviations up to what Minimum TAT in cruise flight above 25,000 ft do not require maintenance action?

A

-50 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the Minimum SAT in flight from -1,000 ft to 25,000 ft?

A

-54 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the Minimum SAT in flight at 37,000 ft?

A

-65 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the Maximum SAT in flight at 37,000 ft?

A

-21.5 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is visible moisture?

A

Visibility 1 mile or less, clouds, rain, ice crystals, snow, or sleet (V1CRISS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When do icing conditions exist for takeoff?

A

OAT 10 C or below and visible moisture present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When do icing conditions exist on the ground?

A

OAT 10 C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where water, ice, snow, or slush (WISS) may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or sensor probes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Delaying the use of the Anti-icing system on the ground until ice build-up is visible from the cockpit, my result in what?

A

Ice ingestion and possible engine damage or flameout.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When on the ground, do we rely on visible icing evidence or ice detection actuation to turn on the Anti-Ice system?

A

No. We use the icing conditions criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When do icing conditions exist in flight?

A

TAT 10 C or below and visible moisture present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Not withstanding ice detector monitoring, the crew is responsible for monitoring what?

A

Potential icing conditions and manual activation of the Anti-Ice system if icing conditions are present and the Ice Detection system is not activating the Anti-Ice system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the Minimum and Maximum temperatures for manual Anti-Ice operation?

A

-40 C to 10 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the temperature limitation for Automatic Anti-Ice system operation?

A

There is none.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

With regards to airframe contaminants, when is takeoff prohibited?

A

When frost, ice, snow, or slush (FISS) is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, stabilizers, pitot static ports, or AOA vanes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where is frost permitted and not permitted?

A

1/8th inch on the underside of the wing is permitted, but not on the lower or upper surface of the horizontal stabilizer or the upper surface of the wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When must the Automated Performance Analyst be used?

A

When the Captain determines that the runway is contaminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is a runway considered contaminated?

A

When more than 25% or the required field length, within the width being used, is covered by:
More than 1/8th inch of water, slush, or wet snow,
More than 3/4 inch of dry snow,
Compacted snow,
Ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When should a pre-takeoff tactile check of the wing leading edge and upper surface be performed?

A 
OAT 5 C or below and:
Visible moisture,
Water present on wing,
Dew point/temperature spread 3 C or below,
Frost conducive conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When must a pre-takeoff tactile check of the wing leading edge and upper surface be performed?

A

If a visual inspection is not sufficient to indicate wing contamination and/or when the holdover time has been exceeded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the Autopilot Minimum engagement height?

A

500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the Autopilot Minimum disengagement altitude during an Instrument approach?

A

MDA/DA/DH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the Autopilot Minimum disengagement altitude during a Visual approach (HDG mode)?

A

Traffic pattern altitude (1,500 ft AFL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of go-around with the autopilot engaged is prohibited?

A

Single engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When is Approach mode selection during localizer capture allowed?

A

When the aircraft is inbound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CAT I ILS coupled go-around height loss may be what?

A

95 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When is Yaw Damper operation prohibited?

A

Takeoff to 500 ft AFL

Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the Minimum Decision Height during a CAT II ILS approach?

A

100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the Minimum Altitude during a CAT II ILS approach?

A

80 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the Maximum tailwind during a coupled CAT II ILS approach?

A

10 knots

70
Q

What is the Maximum crosswind during a CAT II ILS approach?

A

15 knots

71
Q

What is the flap configuration during a CAT II ILS approach?

A

22

72
Q

CAT II ILS approach coupled go-around height loss may be what?

A

50 ft

73
Q

Down to what altitude must the Autopilot be coupled during a CAT II ILS approach?

A

DH

74
Q

What is the Maximum APU operation altitude?

A

37,000 ft

75
Q

What is the Maximum APU starting altitude?

A

30,000 ft

76
Q

What is the Maximum APU start EGT?

A

884 C

77
Q

What is the Maximum APU continuous EGT?

A

680 C

78
Q

APU continuous EGT may be exceeded up to what?

A

717 C for five minutes

79
Q

What is the Maximum APU rotor speed?

A

104%

80
Q

What is the Minimum APU start temperature?

A

-54 C

81
Q

What is the Minimum battery temperature for a battery assisted APU start?

A

-20 C

82
Q

What is the cooling period between 3 consecutive APU start attempts?

A

1 minute OFF

83
Q

What is the cooling period between 2 series of 3 consecutive APU start attempts?

A

30 minutes OFF

84
Q

Until when must the aircraft not be moved during AHRS initialization?

A

Until all attitude and heading information is displayed on the PFD.

85
Q

What are the North and South polar cut-out regions?

A

70 N and 60 S

86
Q

What does the AHRS need to complete the alignment process?

A

Aircraft present position.

87
Q

When must the Terrain Override button be pressed?

A 
FMS in DR mode
Before takeoff or within 15nm of approach and landing at an airport where the longest runway is <3500 ft and/or has no IAP
Airport is not in the database
GPS 1 and 2 fail
QFE operations.
88
Q

What is the Maximum load on a main generator?

A

400A

89
Q

What is the Maximum load on the APU generator?

A

Up to 30,000 ft - 400A

Above 30,000 ft - 300A

90
Q

What is the Maximum battery temperature?

A

70 C

91
Q

What is the Engine Cool Down procedure after landing or a high-powered run?

A

Run the engines for at least 1 minute at idle or taxi thrust prior to shut down.

92
Q

What is the Minimum Engine oil quantity for dispatch?

A

8 quarts before engine start or 7 quarts after engine start.

93
Q

What Engines are on the Embraer 145?

A

Rolls Royce AE3007A1

94
Q

What Engines are on the Embraer 140?

A

Rolls Royce AE3007A1/3

95
Q

The Engines must be allowed to do what before takeoff thrust is selected?

A

Run at low thrust to stabilize engine temperatures.

96
Q

The Engines must be run at idle or taxi thrust for how long for warm up?

A

4 minutes for a cold engine.

2 minutes for a warm engine.

97
Q

When is an engine considered cold?

A

If is has been shut down for more than 90 minutes.

98
Q

Prior to increasing N1 above 83%, oil temperature must be a minimum of what?

A

40 C

99
Q

In lieu of the Minimum oil temperature limit, what else is acceptable?

A

Run the engine for at least 8 minutes and ensure the oil temperature is in the green prior to advancing the thrust levers to takeoff.

100
Q

The EGPWS does not account for what?

A

Man-made obstructions.

101
Q

The Terrain Display is intended for what?

A

To be used as a situational tool only.

102
Q

What takeoff modes must ATTCS be armed in for the EMB145?

A

ALT T/O-1

103
Q

What takeoff modes must ATTCS be armed in for the EMB140?

A

T/O and ALT T/O-1

104
Q

What is the Maximum ITT?

A

948 C

105
Q

What is the Maximum ITT for T/O-1 and T/O for the A1/3 engines?

A

929 C

106
Q

What is the Maximum ITT for ALT T/O-1?

A

917 C

107
Q

What is the Maximum ITT for MCT?

A

901 C

108
Q

What is the Maximum ITT for engine start?

A

800 C

109
Q

What is the Maximum N1?

A

100%

110
Q

What is the N2 range?

A

57.0 - 102.4%

111
Q

What is the Oil pressure green range?

A

50 - 110 psi

112
Q

What is the Oil temperature green range?

A

21 - 126 C

113
Q

What is the Maximum N1 and N2 vibration?

A

Green range.

114
Q

When may the Oil pressure be exceeded during starts?

A

When Oil temperature is less than 21 C. The engine must remain at idle until Oil pressure is in the green range.

115
Q

What is the minimum Oil pressure below 88% N2?

A

34 psi

116
Q

What is the minimum Oil pressure above 88% N2?

A

50 psi

117
Q

Is operation between 34 and 50 psi Oil pressure permitted during takeoff and go-around?

A

Yes.

118
Q

Give the parameters for engine operations in the amber Oil pressure range.

A

Up to 115 for 5 minutes
Above 115 up to 155 for 2 minutes
Total time in amber range is 5 minutes

119
Q

Are operations in the red Oil pressure range permitted?

A

No. Any red exceedance must be monitored and logged in the AML.

120
Q

What is the Minimum Oil temperature for engine start?

A

-40 C

121
Q

What is the Minimum Oil temperature for takeoff?

A

40 C

122
Q

Is takeoff permitted if Oil temperature is below 40 C?

A

Yes. It is acceptable to run the engines for 8 minutes and ensure that the Oil temperatures are in the green range for takeoff.

123
Q

May the N1 and N2 vibration limits be exceeded?

A

Yes. To the top of the amber range for 5 minutes for takeoff or go-around or 10 seconds during other phases.

124
Q

When do we use MCT?

A

During one engine inoperative or emergency operations.

125
Q

What are the Engine starter limits on the ground for starting or dry-motoring?

A

Up to 5 minutes ON, 5 minutes OFF
or;
1st to 4th cycles - 1 minute ON, 1 minute OFF
Following cycles - 1 minute ON, 5 minutes OFF

126
Q

What are the Engine starter limits in flight?

A

Maximum continuous operation time - 5 minutes ON

127
Q

What is the starter cool down time should an in-flight restart be reattempted?

A

No cool down time required.

128
Q

What is the Maximum altitude for flaps extension?

A

20,000 ft MSL

129
Q

What is the Maximum airspeed after takeoff/during climb without retrimming?

A

160 kts

130
Q

What is the Maximum duration of ISIS on battery power only?

A

40 minutes

131
Q

How can we extend the battery power to the ISIS to 45 minutes?

A

Deselect the Pitot 3 Sensor heating button when not in icing conditions.

132
Q

What are the acceptable fuels?

A

QAV1
Jet A
Jet A-1
JP8

133
Q

What is the Minimum fuel temperature leaving the FCOC?

A

Above 4 C

134
Q

When shall XFEED be OFF?

A

During takeoff and landing in normal operations.

135
Q

What is the Maximum fuel imbalance?

A

800 lbs

136
Q

What is the Total usable fuel quantity?

A

11,100 lbs

137
Q

What is the total unusable fuel?

A

78 lbs

138
Q

What fuel is usable?

A

All indicated fuel.

139
Q

With an inoperable electric fuel pump, the unusable fuel in that wing increases by how much?

A

365 lbs

140
Q

When can any fuel remaining in the tanks not be used safely in flight?

A

When the EICAS indication reads 0.

141
Q

The usable fuel capacity in each wing may be reduced by how much during pressure refueling?

A

13.2 US gallons maximum.

142
Q

What is the pressure for refueling?

A

35 - 50 psi

143
Q

What is the Minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-40 C

144
Q

What is the Maximum fuel tank temperature?

A

52 C

145
Q

What is the holding configuration?

A

Gear - UP
Flaps - UP
Minimum airspeed in icing condition only - 200 kts

146
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used?

A

SAE AS 1241A Type IV

147
Q

What is the purpose of the CDL?

A

To operate the aircraft with certain secondary airframe and engine parts missing.

148
Q

When can the DV windows be used?

A

An emergency.

149
Q

Revenue flights above what altitude must comply with ozone concentration requirements?

A

FL 270

150
Q

Where are the Ozone concentration requirements found?

A

AOM Volume 1 SYSTEMS section.

151
Q

When is radar use prohibited?

A

During refueling, near fuel spills or people.

152
Q

Thrust reverser use is intended for what?

A

A rejected takeoff or landing only.

153
Q

After initiating reverse thrust, what must be made?

A

A full stop landing.

154
Q

When must MAX reverse be used?

A

Whenever landing distance is critical and its use will prevent a runway excursion.
When landing with “fair” or “poor” braking action reported.

155
Q

When may IDLE reverse be used?

A

Dry runways 7,000 ft or shorter,
Wet runways,
When braking action is reported as “good.”

156
Q

When is reverse thrust prohibited?

A

Power-back operations,
Taxi operations,
Intermediate positions between IDLE and MAX reverse.

157
Q

How many crewmembers are required in the cockpit during all phases of flight?

A

2

158
Q

What must be obtained prior to opening the cockpit door?

A

Positive ID of the person wishing to enter.

159
Q

When must the cockpit door be kept closed and locked?

A

At all times during flight except to permit access and egress.

160
Q

When are circling approaches not authorized?

A

When the weather is less than 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

161
Q

What is the Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A

30 kts

162
Q

What are the acceleration load limits?

A

Flaps up - +2.5g to -1.0g

Flaps down - +2.0g to 0g

163
Q

What is the approved runway surface type?

A

Paved.

164
Q

What are the runway slope limits?

A

+2% to -2%

165
Q

What is the Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

10 kts

166
Q

What is the Maximum weight in C4?

A

2,646 lbs

167
Q

At what cargo weight must the C4 net be installed?

A

2,182 lbs

168
Q

What is the MTOW for the EMB 145?

A

49,823 lbs

169
Q

What is the MTOW for the EMB 140?

A

46,517 lbs

170
Q

What is the MLW for the EMB 145?

A

43,651 lbs

171
Q

What is the MLW for the EMB 140?

A

41,226 lbs

172
Q

What are the weight limits for the C1 closet?

A

Coat rod - 40 lbs

Floor - 100 lbs

EMB 145 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions