Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

This aircraft meets the airworthiness requirements of what Title 14 CFR Parts?

A

Part 25 - Transport Category Performance

Part 36 - Noise Specifications

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1
Q

What is the required flight crew?

A

Pilot, Co-pilot (Captain, First Officer)

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2
Q

What types of aircraft operations are approved?

A

Day and Night
VFR and IFR
Icing conditions
RVSM

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3
Q

What is the Maximum cabin differential pressure?

A

8.1 psi

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4
Q

What is the Auto Mode normal cabin differential pressure?

A

7.8 psi

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5
Q

What is the Maximum negative cabin differential pressure?

A

-0.3 psi

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6
Q

What is the Maximum altitude after an in-flight depressurization?

A

10,000 ft MSL unless MEA or other constraints require higher altitude.

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7
Q

What is the Maximum altitude when dispatched for unpressurized flight?

A

10,000 ft

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8
Q

When both IAS and Mach values are given, which is limiting?

A

The lower of the two.

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9
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at sea level?

A

250/.50

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10
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 10,000 ft?

A

320/.78

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11
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 26,000 ft?

A

320/.78

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12
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 30,000 ft?

A

296/.78

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13
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 35,000 ft?

A

261/.78

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14
Q

What is the Maximum allowable airspeed/Mach at 37,000 ft?

A

250/.78

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15
Q

What is the Vmo/Mmo?

A

320/.78

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16
Q

What is the Vmo between 8,000 and 10,000 ft?

A

Red line

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17
Q

What is the Vmo up to 8,000 ft?

A

250

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18
Q

What is the Vb/Mb turbulence penetration speed?

A

250/.63 whichever is lower or,

200 at or below 10,000 ft

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19
Q

What is the Va maneuvering speed?

A

200

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20
Q

What is the Vloe gear extension speed?

A

250

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21
Q

What is the Vle gear extended speed?

A

250

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22
Q

What is the Vlor gear retraction speed?

A

200

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23
Q

What are the Vfe flap speeds?

A

9 - 250
18 - 200
22 - 200
45 - 145

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24
What is the Maximum wiper operating speed?
160
25
What must be confined to speeds below Va?
Full application of rudder and ailerons, and high AOA maneuvers.
26
What can dramatically increase the risk of structural failure of the vertical stabilizer or rudder?
Full or nearly full rudder deflection in one direction followed by the other direction, even at speeds below maneuvering speed.
27
With flaps at 45, what speed excursions are allowed due to gusts or turbulence?
Momentary excursions up to 155 knots with no crew or maintenance action required.
28
With flaps at 45, when must speed excursions be entered into the AML?
Steady state operations above 145 knots.
29
What speed is always higher than Vmcg?
V1
30
What speed is always higher than Vmca?
Vr
31
What speed is always higher than Vmcl?
Vref
32
When does Vmo/Mmo increase linearly from 250 knots to 320 knots?
From 8,000 ft to 10,000 ft
33
What is the Maximum operating altitude?
37,000 ft
34
What is the Minimum takeoff and landing altitude?
-1,000 ft
35
What is the Maximum takeoff and landing altitude?
8,000 ft
36
What is the Minimum takeoff and landing temperature?
-40 C
37
What is the Maximum takeoff and landing temperature at -1,000 ft?
52 C
38
What is the Maximum takeoff and landing temperature at 8,000 ft?
34 C
39
In the event of a landing below -40 C, what is required before the next takeoff?
A maintenance inspection.
40
What is the Minimum TAT in cruise flight above 25,000 ft?
-45 C
41
Momentary deviations up to what Minimum TAT in cruise flight above 25,000 ft do not require maintenance action?
-50 C
42
What is the Minimum SAT in flight from -1,000 ft to 25,000 ft?
-54 C
43
What is the Minimum SAT in flight at 37,000 ft?
-65 C
44
What is the Maximum SAT in flight at 37,000 ft?
-21.5 C
45
What is visible moisture?
Visibility 1 mile or less, clouds, rain, ice crystals, snow, or sleet (V1CRISS).
46
When do icing conditions exist for takeoff?
OAT 10 C or below and visible moisture present.
47
When do icing conditions exist on the ground?
OAT 10 C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where water, ice, snow, or slush (WISS) may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or sensor probes.
48
Delaying the use of the Anti-icing system on the ground until ice build-up is visible from the cockpit, my result in what?
Ice ingestion and possible engine damage or flameout.
49
When on the ground, do we rely on visible icing evidence or ice detection actuation to turn on the Anti-Ice system?
No. We use the icing conditions criteria.
50
When do icing conditions exist in flight?
TAT 10 C or below and visible moisture present.
51
Not withstanding ice detector monitoring, the crew is responsible for monitoring what?
Potential icing conditions and manual activation of the Anti-Ice system if icing conditions are present and the Ice Detection system is not activating the Anti-Ice system.
52
What are the Minimum and Maximum temperatures for manual Anti-Ice operation?
-40 C to 10 C
53
What is the temperature limitation for Automatic Anti-Ice system operation?
There is none.
54
With regards to airframe contaminants, when is takeoff prohibited?
When frost, ice, snow, or slush (FISS) is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, stabilizers, pitot static ports, or AOA vanes.
55
Where is frost permitted and not permitted?
1/8th inch on the underside of the wing is permitted, but not on the lower or upper surface of the horizontal stabilizer or the upper surface of the wing.
56
When must the Automated Performance Analyst be used?
When the Captain determines that the runway is contaminated.
57
When is a runway considered contaminated?
When more than 25% or the required field length, within the width being used, is covered by: More than 1/8th inch of water, slush, or wet snow, More than 3/4 inch of dry snow, Compacted snow, Ice
58
When should a pre-takeoff tactile check of the wing leading edge and upper surface be performed?
``` OAT 5 C or below and: Visible moisture, Water present on wing, Dew point/temperature spread 3 C or below, Frost conducive conditions ```
59
When must a pre-takeoff tactile check of the wing leading edge and upper surface be performed?
If a visual inspection is not sufficient to indicate wing contamination and/or when the holdover time has been exceeded.
60
What is the Autopilot Minimum engagement height?
500 ft
61
What is the Autopilot Minimum disengagement altitude during an Instrument approach?
MDA/DA/DH
62
What is the Autopilot Minimum disengagement altitude during a Visual approach (HDG mode)?
Traffic pattern altitude (1,500 ft AFL)
63
What type of go-around with the autopilot engaged is prohibited?
Single engine
64
When is Approach mode selection during localizer capture allowed?
When the aircraft is inbound.
65
CAT I ILS coupled go-around height loss may be what?
95 ft
66
When is Yaw Damper operation prohibited?
Takeoff to 500 ft AFL | Landing
67
What is the Minimum Decision Height during a CAT II ILS approach?
100 ft
68
What is the Minimum Altitude during a CAT II ILS approach?
80 ft
69
What is the Maximum tailwind during a coupled CAT II ILS approach?
10 knots
70
What is the Maximum crosswind during a CAT II ILS approach?
15 knots
71
What is the flap configuration during a CAT II ILS approach?
22
72
CAT II ILS approach coupled go-around height loss may be what?
50 ft
73
Down to what altitude must the Autopilot be coupled during a CAT II ILS approach?
DH
74
What is the Maximum APU operation altitude?
37,000 ft
75
What is the Maximum APU starting altitude?
30,000 ft
76
What is the Maximum APU start EGT?
884 C
77
What is the Maximum APU continuous EGT?
680 C
78
APU continuous EGT may be exceeded up to what?
717 C for five minutes
79
What is the Maximum APU rotor speed?
104%
80
What is the Minimum APU start temperature?
-54 C
81
What is the Minimum battery temperature for a battery assisted APU start?
-20 C
82
What is the cooling period between 3 consecutive APU start attempts?
1 minute OFF
83
What is the cooling period between 2 series of 3 consecutive APU start attempts?
30 minutes OFF
84
Until when must the aircraft not be moved during AHRS initialization?
Until all attitude and heading information is displayed on the PFD.
85
What are the North and South polar cut-out regions?
70 N and 60 S
86
What does the AHRS need to complete the alignment process?
Aircraft present position.
87
When must the Terrain Override button be pressed?
``` FMS in DR mode Before takeoff or within 15nm of approach and landing at an airport where the longest runway is <3500 ft and/or has no IAP Airport is not in the database GPS 1 and 2 fail QFE operations. ```
88
What is the Maximum load on a main generator?
400A
89
What is the Maximum load on the APU generator?
Up to 30,000 ft - 400A | Above 30,000 ft - 300A
90
What is the Maximum battery temperature?
70 C
91
What is the Engine Cool Down procedure after landing or a high-powered run?
Run the engines for at least 1 minute at idle or taxi thrust prior to shut down.
92
What is the Minimum Engine oil quantity for dispatch?
8 quarts before engine start or 7 quarts after engine start.
93
What Engines are on the Embraer 145?
Rolls Royce AE3007A1
94
What Engines are on the Embraer 140?
Rolls Royce AE3007A1/3
95
The Engines must be allowed to do what before takeoff thrust is selected?
Run at low thrust to stabilize engine temperatures.
96
The Engines must be run at idle or taxi thrust for how long for warm up?
4 minutes for a cold engine. | 2 minutes for a warm engine.
97
When is an engine considered cold?
If is has been shut down for more than 90 minutes.
98
Prior to increasing N1 above 83%, oil temperature must be a minimum of what?
40 C
99
In lieu of the Minimum oil temperature limit, what else is acceptable?
Run the engine for at least 8 minutes and ensure the oil temperature is in the green prior to advancing the thrust levers to takeoff.
100
The EGPWS does not account for what?
Man-made obstructions.
101
The Terrain Display is intended for what?
To be used as a situational tool only.
102
What takeoff modes must ATTCS be armed in for the EMB145?
ALT T/O-1
103
What takeoff modes must ATTCS be armed in for the EMB140?
T/O and ALT T/O-1
104
What is the Maximum ITT?
948 C
105
What is the Maximum ITT for T/O-1 and T/O for the A1/3 engines?
929 C
106
What is the Maximum ITT for ALT T/O-1?
917 C
107
What is the Maximum ITT for MCT?
901 C
108
What is the Maximum ITT for engine start?
800 C
109
What is the Maximum N1?
100%
110
What is the N2 range?
57.0 - 102.4%
111
What is the Oil pressure green range?
50 - 110 psi
112
What is the Oil temperature green range?
21 - 126 C
113
What is the Maximum N1 and N2 vibration?
Green range.
114
When may the Oil pressure be exceeded during starts?
When Oil temperature is less than 21 C. The engine must remain at idle until Oil pressure is in the green range.
115
What is the minimum Oil pressure below 88% N2?
34 psi
116
What is the minimum Oil pressure above 88% N2?
50 psi
117
Is operation between 34 and 50 psi Oil pressure permitted during takeoff and go-around?
Yes.
118
Give the parameters for engine operations in the amber Oil pressure range.
Up to 115 for 5 minutes Above 115 up to 155 for 2 minutes Total time in amber range is 5 minutes
119
Are operations in the red Oil pressure range permitted?
No. Any red exceedance must be monitored and logged in the AML.
120
What is the Minimum Oil temperature for engine start?
-40 C
121
What is the Minimum Oil temperature for takeoff?
40 C
122
Is takeoff permitted if Oil temperature is below 40 C?
Yes. It is acceptable to run the engines for 8 minutes and ensure that the Oil temperatures are in the green range for takeoff.
123
May the N1 and N2 vibration limits be exceeded?
Yes. To the top of the amber range for 5 minutes for takeoff or go-around or 10 seconds during other phases.
124
When do we use MCT?
During one engine inoperative or emergency operations.
125
What are the Engine starter limits on the ground for starting or dry-motoring?
Up to 5 minutes ON, 5 minutes OFF or; 1st to 4th cycles - 1 minute ON, 1 minute OFF Following cycles - 1 minute ON, 5 minutes OFF
126
What are the Engine starter limits in flight?
Maximum continuous operation time - 5 minutes ON
127
What is the starter cool down time should an in-flight restart be reattempted?
No cool down time required.
128
What is the Maximum altitude for flaps extension?
20,000 ft MSL
129
What is the Maximum airspeed after takeoff/during climb without retrimming?
160 kts
130
What is the Maximum duration of ISIS on battery power only?
40 minutes
131
How can we extend the battery power to the ISIS to 45 minutes?
Deselect the Pitot 3 Sensor heating button when not in icing conditions.
132
What are the acceptable fuels?
QAV1 Jet A Jet A-1 JP8
133
What is the Minimum fuel temperature leaving the FCOC?
Above 4 C
134
When shall XFEED be OFF?
During takeoff and landing in normal operations.
135
What is the Maximum fuel imbalance?
800 lbs
136
What is the Total usable fuel quantity?
11,100 lbs
137
What is the total unusable fuel?
78 lbs
138
What fuel is usable?
All indicated fuel.
139
With an inoperable electric fuel pump, the unusable fuel in that wing increases by how much?
365 lbs
140
When can any fuel remaining in the tanks not be used safely in flight?
When the EICAS indication reads 0.
141
The usable fuel capacity in each wing may be reduced by how much during pressure refueling?
13.2 US gallons maximum.
142
What is the pressure for refueling?
35 - 50 psi
143
What is the Minimum fuel tank temperature?
-40 C
144
What is the Maximum fuel tank temperature?
52 C
145
What is the holding configuration?
Gear - UP Flaps - UP Minimum airspeed in icing condition only - 200 kts
146
What type of hydraulic fluid is used?
SAE AS 1241A Type IV
147
What is the purpose of the CDL?
To operate the aircraft with certain secondary airframe and engine parts missing.
148
When can the DV windows be used?
An emergency.
149
Revenue flights above what altitude must comply with ozone concentration requirements?
FL 270
150
Where are the Ozone concentration requirements found?
AOM Volume 1 SYSTEMS section.
151
When is radar use prohibited?
During refueling, near fuel spills or people.
152
Thrust reverser use is intended for what?
A rejected takeoff or landing only.
153
After initiating reverse thrust, what must be made?
A full stop landing.
154
When must MAX reverse be used?
Whenever landing distance is critical and its use will prevent a runway excursion. When landing with "fair" or "poor" braking action reported.
155
When may IDLE reverse be used?
Dry runways 7,000 ft or shorter, Wet runways, When braking action is reported as "good."
156
When is reverse thrust prohibited?
Power-back operations, Taxi operations, Intermediate positions between IDLE and MAX reverse.
157
How many crewmembers are required in the cockpit during all phases of flight?
2
158
What must be obtained prior to opening the cockpit door?
Positive ID of the person wishing to enter.
159
When must the cockpit door be kept closed and locked?
At all times during flight except to permit access and egress.
160
When are circling approaches not authorized?
When the weather is less than 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
161
What is the Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?
30 kts
162
What are the acceleration load limits?
Flaps up - +2.5g to -1.0g | Flaps down - +2.0g to 0g
163
What is the approved runway surface type?
Paved.
164
What are the runway slope limits?
+2% to -2%
165
What is the Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?
10 kts
166
What is the Maximum weight in C4?
2,646 lbs
167
At what cargo weight must the C4 net be installed?
2,182 lbs
168
What is the MTOW for the EMB 145?
49,823 lbs
169
What is the MTOW for the EMB 140?
46,517 lbs
170
What is the MLW for the EMB 145?
43,651 lbs
171
What is the MLW for the EMB 140?
41,226 lbs
172
What are the weight limits for the C1 closet?
Coat rod - 40 lbs | Floor - 100 lbs