Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

What is the G limit with slats and or flaps extended?

A

0g to + 2g

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1
Q

What is the maximum G in clean configuration?

A

-1g to + 2.5g

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2
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight of the A320?

A

75,900 kg

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3
Q

What is the maximum take off weight of the A320?

A

75,500 kg

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4
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the A320?

A

64,500 kg

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5
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the A320?

A

61,000 kg

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6
Q

When is an immediate landing above MLW acceptable?

A

In exceptional circumstances (inflight turn back or diversion).

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7
Q

What is the mean runway slope limit?

A

Plus or minus 2%

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8
Q

What is the maximum runway altitude?

A

9,200 feet

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9
Q

What is the nominal runway width?

A

45 meters

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10
Q

What is the maximum cross wind for take off or landing?

A

38 kt

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11
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

30m

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12
Q

When is use of a 30m runway not allowed?

A

Dispatch from / to narrow runways is not allowed in the case of

  • NWS INOP
  • 1 brake or more INOP
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13
Q

Is auto land permitted on a 30m runway?

A

No.

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14
Q

What is the maximum tail wind for takeoff?

A

15kt

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15
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for landing?

A

15kt

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16
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for automatic landing and rollout?

A

10kt

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17
Q

What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?

A

65kt

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18
Q

What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation?

A

40kt

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19
Q

What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation with the nose into wind or cargo door on the leeward side?

A

50kt

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20
Q

What is the maximum wind speed before the cargo door must be closed?

A

65kt

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21
Q

Under what contaminated runway conditions is takeoff NOT recommended?

A
  • wet ice
  • water on top of compacted snow
  • dry snow or wet snow over ice
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22
Q

What is VMO?

A

350kt

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23
Q

What is MMO?

A

M 0.82

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24
Q

What is the maximum speed in config 1?

A

230 kt

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25
Q

What is the maximum speed in config 1 + F?

A

215 kt

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26
Q

What is the maximum speed in config 2?

A

200kt

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27
Q

What is the maximum speed in config 3?

A

185kt

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28
Q

What is the maximum speed in config FULL?

A

177kt

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29
Q

What is the maximum speed with landing gear extended?

A

VLE = 280kt / M0.67

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30
Q

What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear maybe extended?

A

VLO extension = 250kt

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31
Q

What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted?

A

VLO retraction = 220kt

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32
Q

What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?

A

25,000ft

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33
Q

What is the maximum tyre speed?

A

Ground speed = 195kt

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34
Q

What is the maximum speed for using wind shield wipers?

A

230kt

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35
Q

What is the maximum speed with the cockpit window open?

A

200kt

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36
Q

What is the maximum cornering speed when the taxi weight is higher than 76,000kg?

A

20kt

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37
Q

What is the maximum differential for opening the RAM air inlet?

A

1psi

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38
Q

When using LP ground air what must not be used?

A

The packs (to avoid chattering of the non return valves)

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39
Q

When using HP ground air what must NOT be used?

A

APU bleed to avoid bleed system damage.

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40
Q

What is the maximum positive differential pressure?

A

9psi

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41
Q

What is the maximum negative differential pressure?

A

-1psi

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42
Q

What is the safety relief valve setting pressure?

A

8.6psi

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43
Q

What is the maximum and safety valve setting tolerance?

A

+/- 7hPa or 0.1psi

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44
Q

In AVEC normal config, what is the no limitation OAT?

A

49*

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45
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot on takeoff with SRS mode?

A

100 ft AGL

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46
Q

What is the minimum time after liftoff before FMGS logic will allow autopilot engagement?

A

5 seconds

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47
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for straight-in NPA?

A

Applicable MDA (MDH)

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48
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for in straight-in LNAV/VNAV approach normal?

A

Applicable DA

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49
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for circling approach?

A

MDA/MDH -100ft

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50
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot for ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is not displayed on the FMA?

A

160 ft AGL

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51
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot or flight director engagement during a go-around?

A

100ft AGL

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52
Q

What is the minimum height for use of autopilot in all other cases?

A

500 ft AGL

53
Q

The FCU altitude must be set above what for use of AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode during approach?

A

MDA (MDH) or 500ft, whichever is higher.

54
Q

What must be checked before NAV mode may be used after takeoff?

A

FMGS runway updating

55
Q

For what approach types may NAV or NAV and FINAL APP mode be used?

A
  • VOR
  • VOR/DME
  • NDB
  • NDB/DME; or
  • RNAV
56
Q

FINAL APP mode guidance capability with GPS PRIMARY has been demonstrated down to a barometric MDH/DH of ____ ft?

A

250 ft

57
Q

For GPS approach, what must be available?

A

GPS PRIMARY

58
Q

NAV mode may be used in the Terminal area provided:

A
  • GPS PRIMARY is available; or
  • HIGH accuracy is displayed and the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU; or
  • NAVAID raw data is monitored
59
Q

What is the minimum ILS CAT II decision height?

A

100ft AGL

60
Q

If conducting an automatic approach WITHOUT autoland, what is the minimum height for disconnecting the AP?

A

80ft AGL

61
Q

What is the minimum decision height for ILS CAT3 fail passive?

A

50ft, and A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed

62
Q

What is the ILS CAT3 DUAL alert height?

A

100ft

63
Q

What is the minimum CAT 3 A DH?

A

25ft

64
Q

What is the minimum CAT3B RVR?

A

75m

65
Q

In what configuration/s is OEI CAT II or CAT III fail passive autoland available?

A

FULL, but only if engine out procedures are completed by 1000ft in approach

66
Q

What are the maximum wind limits for autoland?

A
  • HW: 30kts
  • XW: 20kts
  • TW: 10kts
67
Q

What is the authoritative source for wind information when doing an autoland?

A

ATC reported wind is the authoritative source and ND indicated wind may be disregarded.

68
Q

What must be done if ATC report a surface wind that exceeds the autoland limit?

A

The autoland must be discontinued and CAT I minima used for a manual landing or go-around

69
Q

What is the minimum and maximum ILS beam slope that can be used for autoland?

A

-2.5* to -3.15*

70
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated autoland weight?

A

MLW

71
Q

What is the maximum airport elevation for autoland?

A

6,500ft in the FCOM but 2,500ft in Part A!!!

72
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated wind correction for autoland?

A

15kts

73
Q

For what runway surface conditions has autoland been demonstrated?

A

Dry and Wet

  • Performance on snow covered or icy runways has not been demonstrated
74
Q

What is the max continuous load per generator?

A

100% (90kVA)

75
Q

What is the max continuous load per TR?

A

200A

76
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with slats or flaps extended?

A

20,000ft

77
Q

With full tip tanks, what is the maximum allowed imbalance with the other inner tank full?

A

1500kg (under normal conditions)

78
Q

What is the maximum outer tank imbalance?

A

690kg

79
Q

What are the Jet A1 temperature limits?

A

-43* to +54*

80
Q

At what fuel quantity will the WING TK LO LVL warning be triggered?

A

750kg in each tank (total 1,500kg)

- Takeoff is not permitted with the WING TK LO LVL warning displayed

81
Q

What is the normal operating pressure of the Hydraulic system?

A

3000psi +/- 200psi

82
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff with fans OFF?

A

300*C

83
Q

What should be done if the brake temperature indicates >150*C before takeoff with the fans ON?

A

Delay Takeoff for cooling below 150*C

84
Q

By what methods may the A/BRK be disengaged?

A

By pressing the push button of the armed mode; or

By applying sufficient pressure to the brake pedals

85
Q

With one tyre deflated on one or more gears, what is the taxi speed limit for turning?

A

7 kt, but only after an external inspection

86
Q

How many tires may be deflated for taxi?

A

One on each gear with a 7kt speed limit for turning

87
Q

If two tires are deflated on the same main gear (with the others not being deflated) what is the the taxi speed limit?

A

3 kt

88
Q

What is the NWS limit with two tires deflated on one main gear?

A

30* (with a speed limit of 3 kt)

89
Q

What is the NWS hand wheel steering limit?

A

75 degrees

90
Q

When must the ISIS bug function not be used?

A

If both PFD’s are lost

91
Q

Below what indicated Oxygen pressure must the dispatch requirements be checked?

A

1,500psi (Part A 8.8.1.1 P233)

92
Q

Oxygen pressure above the minimum for dispatch guarantees NORMAL diluted oxygen pressure during an emergency descent for all cockpit members for how many minutes?

A

13 minutes (based on a sealed mask, may be shorter with a beard)

93
Q

Oxygen pressure at or above the minimum for dispatch guarantees how many minutes of cruise at FL100 in the NORMAL diluted setting?

A

107 minutes (based on a sealed mask, may be shorter with a beard)

94
Q

The minimum flight crew oxygen pressure guarantees all cockpit members 15 minutes of oxygen at what cabin altitude?

A

8000ft (based on a sealed mask, may be shorter with a beard)

95
Q

How many hours may the APU be started and operated with the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed?

A

10 hours

96
Q

How many consecutive APU starter duty cycles be attempted?

A

3

97
Q

After 3 APU starter duty cycles, how long must you wait before attempting another three cycles?

A

60 minutes

98
Q

What is the APU operation and restart limit?

A

41,000ft

99
Q

What is the APU battery start limit? (EMER ELEC CONFIG)

A

25,000ft

100
Q

What is the maximum APU generator load?

A

100% / 90kVA

101
Q

What is the maximum altitude for 100% APU ELEC power extraction at ISA +35*C?

A

25,000ft (same as the BATT start limit)

102
Q

When is APU bleed available for WAI?

A

It is not permitted

103
Q

Below 150kts, APU bleed is available for engine start up to what altitude?

A

15,000ft

104
Q

What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used to start an engine above 150kt?

A

20,000ft

105
Q

What is the maximum altitude that APU bleed may be used to supply one pack?

A

20,000ft

106
Q

What is the maximum altitude that APU beed may be used to supply both packs?

A

15,000ft

107
Q

What limitations are imposed on the use of TOGA for takeoff or go-around?

A
  • 5 mins @ 635*C

- 10 mins @635*C if OEI

108
Q

What limitations apply to the use of MCT?

A
  • Time = unlimited

- EGT = 610*C

109
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature prior to exceeding idle?

A

-10*C

110
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature prior to takeoff?

A

50*C

111
Q

What is the max continuous oil temperature?

A

155*C

112
Q

What is the max transient oil temperature?

A

165*C (For 15 minutes)

113
Q

What is the minimum starting temperature?

A

-40*C

114
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity for flight?

A

11 quarts + 0.3qt/hr of estimated flight time

  • FCOM PRO-NOR-SOP-06 P16/20
115
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure?

A

60psi

116
Q

What is the max engine N1?

A

100% dependent on ambient conditions and engine air bleed configuration which may induce a lower limit.

117
Q

What is the maximum N2?

A

100%

118
Q

What are the starter duty limit cycles?

A
  • 2 x two minutes + 1 x one minute with 15 sec pauses; or

- 1 x four minute continuous crank

119
Q

After reaching the engine starter duty limit how long must the system be allowed to cool?

A

30 minutes

120
Q

What are the engine starter running engagement limits?

A
  • 10% N2 on the ground; or

- 18% N2 in flight

121
Q

What limitations apply to the use of MAX reverse thrust under normal conditions?

A
  • Must not be used in flight
  • Must not be used to back the aircraft up
  • Should not be used below 70kt (or when IAS starts to fluctuate)
  • Idle reverse may be used down to a stop
122
Q

What is the maximum FLEX takeoff thrust reduction?

A

25%

123
Q

What is the maximum T-FLEX temperature?

A

ISA +55*C (T MAX FLEX)

124
Q

The assumed temperature must not be lower than:

A
  • The flat rating temperature; or

- The current OAT

125
Q

What runway conditions apply to the use of reduced thrust for takeoff?

A

Not permitted on contaminated runways

126
Q

Is a reduced thrust takeoff permitted with inoperative items affecting the performance?

A

Yes; if the associated performance shortfall has been applied to meet all performance requirements at the takeoff weight with the engines operating at the thrust available for the flex temperature.

127
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for starting engines on the ground?

A

35kt

128
Q

What is the NWS tiller angular limit?

A

±75°

129
Q

What is the towing and pushback NWS angular limit?

A

±95°

LIM-32 P1/2