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CRJ 700 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

What is the MAX cabin differential psi?

A

8.7 psi

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1
Q

What is the MAX takeoff/landing tailwind component?

A

10 kts

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2
Q

What is the MAX cabin negative differential psi?

A

-0.5 psi

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3
Q

What is the Vmo/Mmo?

A

335/.85

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4
Q

What is the Vmo/Mmo for FL250 to FL410?

A

Red Line

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5
Q

What is the Vmo for 8000 MSL to FL250?

A

Red Line (335)

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6
Q

What is the Vmo up to 8000 MSL?

A

Red Line (330)

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7
Q

What is the Vb/Mb?

A

280/.75 (whichever is lower)

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8
Q

What is the Va for sea level @ 75,000 lbs?

A

253 kts

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9
Q

What is the Vloe?

A

220 kts

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10
Q

What is the Vle?

A

220 kts

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11
Q

What is the Vlor?

A

200 kts

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12
Q

What is the Vfe for flaps 1, 8 ,or 20?

A

230 kts

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13
Q

What is the Vfe for flaps 30?

A

185 kts

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14
Q

What is the Vfe for flaps 45?

A

170 kts

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15
Q

What is the MAX wiper operating speed?

A

250 kts

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16
Q

What is the ADG operating Vmo/Mmo?

A

335/.85

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17
Q

What is the MAX tire speed limit?

A

182 kts Ground Speed

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18
Q

What is the Caution about Vmo/Mmo in any regime of flight?

A

Do not deliberately exceed, unless authorized for flight test or training operations.

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19
Q

What is the Caution as Vmo/Mmo increases from FL250 to FL410?

A

Do not deliberately exceed Red Line (.80 to .85)

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20
Q

What must be confined to speeds below Va?

A

Full application of rudder and ailerons, and maneuvers involving AOA near stall

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21
Q

What is the Caution for a wiper in a non-parked position?

A

Do not exceed 250 kts

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22
Q

What is the MAX operating altitude?

A

FL410

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23
Q

What is the MIN takeoff and landing OAT?

A

-40 C (-40 F)

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24
Q

What is the MAX APU starting altitude limit?

A

FL370

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25
Q

What is the MAX APU starting airspeed limit?

A

Vmo/Mmo

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26
Q

What are the APU start/start attempt limits?

A

3 start/start attempts per 60 minutes, with a 2 minute delay between cranking attempts for cooling of the starter, starter contactor, and APU drainage

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27
Q

What is the MIN autopilot use height after takeoff?

A

600 AGL

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28
Q

What is the MIN autopilot use height for a non-precision approach?

A

400 AGL

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29
Q

What is the MIN autopilot use height for a precision approach?

A

80 AGL with GPA up to 3.5

120 AGL with GPA 3.5 - 4.0

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30
Q

When is autopilot use prohibited for a precision approach?

A

GPA 3.5 - 4.0 and airport elevation >4,000 ft

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31
Q

What is the MAX time for ground operations with DC power only?

A

5 minutes due to lack of CRT display cooling

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32
Q

What is the MAX ITT for engine START?

A

Red Line

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33
Q

What is the N2 range for engine START?

A

0 - 45%

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34
Q

What is the MIN oil temperature for engine START?

A

-40 C

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35
Q

What is the oil psi limit for engine START?

A

Amber value for up to 10 minutes MAX

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36
Q

What is the N1 range at IDLE?

A

20 - 25%

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37
Q

What is the N2 range at IDLE?

A

55 - 65%

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38
Q

What is the MAX ITT before attempting an engine start on the ground?

A

120 C

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39
Q

What is the MAX ITT before attempting an engine start in the air?

A

90 C

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40
Q

What is the the MAX oil psi when oil temp transient is <60 C?

A

156 psi

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41
Q

What should oil psi show during start?

A

A positive value and may peak beyond 182 psi (amber dashes)

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42
Q

Low oil psi (25 - 45 psi) when above IDLE requires what?

A

Oil temperature monitoring

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43
Q

When is pilot initiated APR thrust prohibited except for safety of flight?

A

Above 7,500 MSL, or

Within 30 minutes of an engine start below 7,500 MSL

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44
Q

If APR thrust was used, what must the Captain remember to do?

A

Log the event in the AML

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45
Q

If any ITT EXCEED B (B1) (C) status message is displayed, what must the Captain remember to do?

A

Log it in the AML

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46
Q

When and how must the crew verify N1 thrust management data?

A

With both engines running and bleeds configured for takeoff, verify N1 target values are within 1% of the Flip Card data. When thrust set for takeoff the target and actual values should match.

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47
Q

What wind conditions allow us to use takeoff method A, B, or C?

A

When wind direction is within 30 degrees of the nose, or when wind is >30 degrees off the nose but <5 kts

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48
Q

What wind conditions require us to use takeoff method B, or C only?

A

When wind is >30 degrees off the nose and between 5-30 kts

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49
Q

What wind conditions require us to use takeoff method C only?

A

When wind is >30 degrees off the nose and >30 kts

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50
Q

What is the method B takeoff?

A

Do not exceed 75% N1 before brake release

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51
Q

What must we do before the 1st flight of an 8 hour cold-soaked (-30C) aircraft?

A

Motor engines for 60 seconds and verify N1 rotation, and actuate thrust reversers until cycles are 2 seconds or less

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52
Q

When must continuous ignition be used?

A

Contaminated runways
Moderate or heavier intensity rain or turbulence
Vicinity of thunderstorms

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53
Q

During engine warm-up, when must engines remain at IDLE?

A

Until oil psi reaches normal range

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54
Q

During engine starts, how long do we not exceed 75% N1?

A

2 minutes, or all operating indications are normal (whichever occurs later)

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55
Q

The starter must not be used if N2 exceeds what?

A

45%

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56
Q

What are the engine starter limits for GROUND starts?

A

1-2 cycles - 90 secs ON, 10 secs OFF

3-5 cycles - 90 secs ON, 5 mins OFF

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57
Q

What are the engine starter limits for FLIGHT starts or motoring?

A

1 cycle - 120 secs ON, 10 secs OFF

2-5 cycles - 60 secs ON, 5 mins OFF

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58
Q

What are the engine starter limits for GROUND motoring?

A

1 cycle - 90 secs ON, 5 mins OFF

2-5 cycles - 30 secs ON, 5 mins OFF

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59
Q

When are slats/flaps use prohibited?

A

Enroute
Holding
Above 15,000 MSL

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60
Q

When is Flight Spoiler use prohibited?

A

Below 300 AGL

Below Vapp + 10kts

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61
Q

When is the use of ISI localizer/glide slope information prohibited?

A

During localizer back-course approaches

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62
Q

FMS enroute and terminal navigation is prohibited unless what?

A

Database is current and waypoints are verified by published charts

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63
Q

What FMS information is advisory only?

A

Fuel management and altitude/speed capability

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64
Q

What 3 things are required to use the FMS for an approach?

A

Current database
Approach retrieved from database
Waypoint accuracy verified

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65
Q

Operations with an FMS VNAV glide path angle exceeding what, is prohibited?

A

4.0 degrees

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66
Q

Takeoff with engine fuel temperatures below what, is prohibited?

A

5 C

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67
Q

What is the MIN bulk fuel temperature limit for JET A, for takeoff?

A

-30 C

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68
Q

What is the MIN bulk fuel temperature limit for JET A, for flight?

A

-40 C

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69
Q

How much fuel must be in each wing tank for takeoff if the center tank has more than 500 lbs?

A

4,400 lbs

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70
Q

What is the MIN go-around fuel, assuming what MAX pitch attitude?

A

600 lbs per wing, assuming MAX 10 degrees pitch up

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71
Q

What is the MAX fuel imbalance for takeoff?

A

300 lbs

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72
Q

What is the MAX fuel imbalance for flight?

A

800 lbs

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73
Q

When must the crew verify the predictive RAIM at the destination around the ETA?

A

When a GPS stand-alone approach is intended and the only suitable approach to be used

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74
Q

What is the definition of ground contamination?

A

Ramps, taxiways, or runways with water, ice, snow, or slush (WISS)

75
Q

What is the definition of visible moisture?

A

Visibility 1 mile or less, clouds, rain, ice crystals, snow, or sleet (V1CRISS)

76
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions?

A

OAT 10 C or less with ground contamination or visible moisture

77
Q

What are the ice protection procedures for TAXI?

A

GC or VM
OAT 10 C or less
COWL

78
Q

What are the ice protection procedures for TAKEOFF?

A

GC or VM
OAT 10 C or less - COWL
OAT 5 C or less - COWL and WING

79
Q

What are the ice protection procedures for FLIGHT?

A

VM
SAT -40 and TAT 10 C
230 kts - COWL

80
Q

What are the ice protection procedures for EICAS ICE caution?

A

COWL and WING

81
Q

What is the limitation on WING anti-ice with type II, III, or IV fluids applied?

A

WING ON, if required, just prior to thrust increase for takeoff

82
Q

What is prohibited in areas of Severe Icing conditions?

A

Continued operations

83
Q

How are Severe Icing conditions identified?

A

Ice accretion on the cockpit side windows

84
Q

What is required if Severe Icing conditions are encountered?

A

COWL and WING

Leave icing conditions

85
Q

When is takeoff prohibited during cold weather operations?

A

With frost, ice, snow, or slush (FISS) adhering to any critical surface

86
Q

What is considered a critical surface for ice adhesion?

A

Wings, upper fuselage, stabilizers, flight controls, inlets

87
Q

Takeoff is permitted with frost adhering to where?

A

Under-side of the wings, due to cold-soaked fuel

88
Q

When must the taxi light be switched off?

A

When the aircraft is stationary in excess of 10 minutes

89
Q

How must Cat II approaches be conducted?

A

With the autopilot on and coupled to the FO side

90
Q

Cat II approaches require what equipment to be operational?

A

Airborne equipment listed on the Cat II Required Equipment List and their ground installations

91
Q

When must a go-around on a CAT II approach be commenced?

A

Whenever any required equipment fails and visual landing reference has not been established

92
Q

What is the required flight crew?

A

Pilot, Co-pilot (Captain, FO)

93
Q

This aircraft meets the airworthiness requirements of what Parts of the FARs?

A

25 Transport Category Certification

36 Noise Certification

94
Q

What types of operations are approved?

A

Day, Night
VFR, IFR
Icing
RVSM

95
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM operations?

A

Autopilot
Altitude Alerter
Transponder
2 ADCs

96
Q

Why is this aircraft not certified for ditching?

A

The required safety equipment is not installed

97
Q

What side must the Transponder be coupled to for RVSM?

A

The same side as the coupled ADC

98
Q

What are the Runway Slope limits?

A

-2% to +2%

99
Q

What are the Acceleration load limits for flaps up?

A

+2.5g to -1.0g

100
Q

What are the Acceleration load limits for flaps down?

A

+2.0g to -0g

101
Q

What is the warning about side-slip maneuvers?

A

Avoid unnecessary and large side-slip maneuvers during low speed high altitude cruise.

102
Q

During taxi, takeoff and landing, differential psi must not exceed what?

A

0.1 psi

103
Q

Prior to opening any door the aircraft must be completely…

A

Depressurized

104
Q

What is the max altitude for single pack operation?

A

FL310

105
Q

With APU as the bleed source in manual mode, what selection is Prohibited?

A

WING and/or COWL anti-ice

106
Q

Use of the EMER DEPRESS switch above what altitude is prohibited, and why?

A

15,000 ft, to preclude possible ear damage of the crew and passengers

107
Q

Intentional speed reduction below stick shaker is what?

A

Prohibited, unless authorized for flight test or training operations

108
Q

What is the max RVSM cruise Mach number?

A

.83

109
Q

What may cause structural failure at any speed?

A

Rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw.

110
Q

What is the minimum takeoff and landing pressure altitude?

A

-1,000 ft

111
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude?

A

9,600 ft

112
Q

What is the maximum ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

ISA +35C

113
Q

What is the minimum ambient air temperature for takeoff?

A

-40C (-40F)

114
Q

What is the minimum ambient temperature to start the APU on ground and in flight?

A
  • 40C on ground

- 65C in flight

115
Q

What is the APU starting EGT limit?

A

Red Line

116
Q

What is the APU never exceed EGT?

A

1038C

117
Q

What is the APU RPM limit?

A

106% (Red Line)

118
Q

What is the Max APU generator loading altitude?

A

FL410

119
Q

What is the Max APU bleed air extraction altitude?

A

FL250

120
Q

What is the Max APU air engine starting altitude?

A

FL210

121
Q

What is the APU starting altitude limit on the ground?

A

15,000 ft

122
Q

The cockpit door must be kept closed at all times except to permit what?

A

Access and egress in accordance with FAA approved procedures

123
Q

In flight, what do we do to verify the cockpit door is closed and locked?

A

By using a challenge and response closing and locking verification procedure.

124
Q

Any time one of the required flight crew members leaves the cockpit, what needs to happen?

A

Another crew member must be present to ensure the required crew member is not locked out of the cockpit.

125
Q

When the CA and FO are the only persons onboard and one needs to leave the cockpit, what needs to happen to the cockpit door?

A

It needs to be latched open against the galley and slide the security bolt to the locked position

126
Q

What is the Max electrical load on the APU and engine generators up to FL410?

A

40kVA

127
Q

What is the Max continuous load on the TRUs?

A

120 amps

128
Q

When may a circuit breaker be cycled or reset?

A

When directed by a procedure or CA discretion for the safe completion of flight.

129
Q

Oil psi may be greater than 95psi for a maximum of how long?

A

10 minutes

130
Q

Activation of the Thrust Reversers in flight is?

A

Prohibited

131
Q

After deployment of the Thrust Reversers, what must not be attempted?

A

A go-around

132
Q

Takeoff with any Thrust Reversers icons or EICAS Warning or Caution messages is what?

A

Prohibited

133
Q

Backing up with the Thrust Reversers is?

A

Prohibited

134
Q

What is the Windmilling relight envelope from FL210 to 10,000 ft?

A

Speed 290 KIAS to Vmo and 7.2% N2 minimum

135
Q

What is the Windmilling relight envelope from 10,000 ft to Sea Level?

A

Speed 250 KIAS to Vmo and 7.2% N2 minimum

136
Q

What is the Starter-Assisted relight envelope from FL210 to Sea Level?

A

Speed Vref to Vmo and 0-45% N2

137
Q

What is the AEO Rapid Relight envelope from 10,000 ft to Sea Level?

A

FADEC rapid relight capability has been demonstrated at 200 KIAS for up to 15 second fuel interruptions

138
Q

When must the GLD switch be selected to AUTO?

A

During takeoff and touch-and-go landings

139
Q

When must the Stab trim position indications be checked?

A

Before every flight

140
Q

For AHRS alignment, the airplane must not be moved until what?

A

All attitude and heading information on the PFD is valid

141
Q

The FMS must be operated in accordance with what?

A

The AOM Volume 1

142
Q

The FMS VNAV is not what?

A

Temperature compensated

143
Q

The FMS generated altitudes and V-paths are not corrected for what?

A

Non-ISA conditions

144
Q

What approaches are prohibited to be flown with the FMS?

A

ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF and MLS

145
Q

The FMS meets the performance/accuracy criteria of what?

A

AC 20-130A

146
Q

The approach must not be continued past the FAF if what?

A

If NO APPR is displayed on the PFD

147
Q

What fuels are acceptable?

A

Jet A, Jet A1, JP-8, JP-5

148
Q

What fuels are prohibited?

A

Jet B, JP-4

149
Q

What is the Max total fuel quantity for PSI refueling?

A

19,594 lbs

150
Q

What is the Max wing tank fuel quantity for PSI refueling?

A

7,492 lbs

151
Q

What is the Max center tank fuel quantity?

A

4,610 lbs

152
Q

What is the Max total fuel quantity for gravity refueling?

A

14,580 lbs

153
Q

What is the Max wing fuel quantity for gravity refueling?

A

7,290 lbs

154
Q

What is important to know when a fuel quantity indicator reads 0?

A

Any fuel remaining in that tank cannot be used safely in flight

155
Q

What is the crossflow limitation for takeoff?

A

Power and Gravity Crossflow must be OFF

156
Q

What else must we have installed and operating on the airplane other than GPS?

A

Other approved navigation equipment appropriate to the route of flight

157
Q

Can we hold in icing conditions with the flaps/slats extended?

A

No

158
Q

Minimum brake cooling time and Maximum allowable brake temperature must be observed to ensure what?

A

Sufficient brake energy capability in the event of a rejected takeoff

159
Q

What is the minimum brake cooling time?

A

15 minutes

160
Q

What is required before the next takeoff if a brake overheat warning is displayed on the EICAS?

A

Inspect the wheel fuse plugs

161
Q

Before takeoff, the BTMS must be what?

A

Green

162
Q

At or above 35,000 ft, aircraft operations where Ozone concentrations exceed what is required in the SYSTEMS section are what?

A

Prohibited

163
Q

How close to a suitable airport must we remain if cargo is loaded?

A

Within 60 minutes

164
Q

Towbarless towing is what?

A

Prohibited

165
Q

The aircraft must be operated in accordance with the limitations in the AFM and CDL when?

A

With certain secondary airframe and/or and nacelle parts missing

166
Q

How can we reduce MFD flicker?

A

Reduce range, deselect TCAS, radar/terrain overlays, and/or FMS symbology

167
Q

What areas must the EGPWS be operated in accordance with?

A

MANEUVERS and SYSTEMS sections

168
Q

Are pilots allowed to deviate from ATC to comply with EGPWS alerts?

A

Yes

169
Q

What does the EGPWS database not account for?

A

Man-made obstructions, except those known in Canada, US, and Mexico

170
Q

Can navigation be predicated on the terrain display?

A

No

171
Q

When do we inhibit EGPWS alerts?

A

Within 15NM of takeoff, approach, and landing at an airport not in the database

172
Q

Why can we not solely use the terrain display for terrain avoidance?

A

It lacks the accuracy and fidelity

173
Q

What must happen when there is an EGPWS alert Warning or Caution?

A

Initiate a standard GPWS escape maneuver

174
Q

What maneuvers are recommended in an EGPWS escape?

A

Vertical, unless VMC and/or pilot determines that turning in addition to vertical maneuver is safest

175
Q

With both GPS sensors inoperative, when should the GRND PROX, TERRAIN switch be OFF?

A

If FMS position has not been updated within 5 minutes from takeoff and during QFE operations

176
Q

When must the SPS switches remain on?

A

During all phases of flight

177
Q

What is the Max Ramp Weight?

A

75,250 lbs

178
Q

What is the Max Takeoff Weight?

A

75,000 lbs

179
Q

What is the Max Landing Weight?

A

67,000 lbs

180
Q

What is the Max Zero Fuel Weight?

A

62,300 lbs

181
Q

What is the Min Flight Weight?

A

42,000 lbs

182
Q

What is the Min Operating Empty Weight?

A

39,835 lbs

183
Q

What is the APU operating EGT range on the ground?

A

682 C - 789 C

184
Q

What is the APU operating EGT range in flight?

A

773 C - 806 C

CRJ 700 (3 decks)

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