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A321 Systems > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

what is the maximum pressure altitude?

A

39,800 ft

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2
Q

what is the maximum pressure altitude for take-off and landing?

A

-2000 ft to +9,200ft

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3
Q

what is the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits?

A

clean configuration: -1 g to +2.5 gother configurations: 0 g to +2 g

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4
Q

what is the maximum runway slope?

A

±2 %

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5
Q

what is the nominal runway width?

A

45 m

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6
Q

what is the maximum certified crosswind for takeoff?

A

35 kt (gust included)

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7
Q

what is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?

A

38 kt (gust included)

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8
Q

what is the maximum tailwind for takeoff?

A

15 kt

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9
Q

what is the maximum tailwind for landing?

A

15 ktFLAPS FULL is recommended for a landing with a tailwind greater than 10 kt

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10
Q

what is the maximum wind for passenger door operation?

A

65 kt

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11
Q

what is the maximum wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation?

A

40 kt (or 50 kt, if the aircraft nose is into the wind, or if the FWD and AFT cargo doors are on the leeward side)the FWD and AFT cargo doors must be closed before the wind speed exceeds 65 kt

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12
Q

what is the maximum recommended crosswind for takeoff on wet and contaminated runways?

A

GOOD (RWYCC 5): 35 ktGOOD TO MEDIUM (RWYCC 4): 29 ktMEDIUM (RWYCC 3): 25 ktMEDIUM TO POOR (RWYCC 2): 20 ktPOOR (RWYCC 1): 15 kt

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13
Q

what is the maximum recommended crosswind for landing on wet and contaminated runways?

A

GOOD (RWYCC 5): 38 ktGOOD TO MEDIUM (RWYCC 4): 29 ktMEDIUM (RWYCC 3): 25 ktMEDIUM TO POOR (RWYCC 2): 20 ktPOOR (RWYCC 1): 15 kt

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14
Q

what is the maximum speed for the cockpit window open?

A

200 kt

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15
Q

what is the maximum operating speed?

A

VMO: 350 ktMMO: M .082

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16
Q

what is the maximum speed for FLAP 0? (CRUISE)

A

VMO / MMO

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17
Q

what is the maximum speed for FLAP 1? (HOLDING)

A

243 kt

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18
Q

what is the maximum speed for FLAP 1+F? (TAKEOFF)

A

225 kt

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19
Q

what is the maximum speed for FLAP 2? (TAKEOFF/APPROACH)

A

215 kt

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20
Q

what is the maximum speed for FLAP 3? (TAKEOFF/APPROACH/LANDING)

A

195 kt

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21
Q

what is the maximum speed for FLAP FULL? (LANDING)

A

186 kt

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22
Q

what is the maximum speed with the landing gear extended? (VLE)

A

280 kt / M .067

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23
Q

what is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended? (VLO extension)

A

250 kt / M .060

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24
Q

what is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted? (VLO retraction)

A

220 kt / M .054

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25
Q

what is the maximum ground speed?

A

195 kt

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26
Q

what is the minimum control speed for landing? (VMCL)

A

116 kt

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27
Q

what is the minimum control speed in the air (VMCA) and on the ground? (VMCG)

A

see table

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28
Q

what is the wipers maximum operating speed?

A

230 kt

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29
Q

what is the maximum taxi weight? (MTW)

A

89 400 kg (197 093 lb)

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30
Q

what is the maximum takeoff weight? (brake release, MTOW)

A

89 000 kg (196 211 lb)

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31
Q

what is the maximum landing weight? (MLW)

A

79 200 kg (174 606 lb)an immediate landing at weight above MLW is permitted, provided the overweight landing procedure is followed.

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32
Q

what is the maximum zero fuel weight? (ZFW)

A

75 600 kg (166 669 lb)

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33
Q

what is the minimum weight?

A

46 600 kg (102 736 lb)

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34
Q

can you use bleed air from the APU and the HP START UNIT at the same time?

A

the flight crew must not use bleed air from the APU BLEED and from the HP AIR START UNIT at the same time, to prevent any adverse effect on the bleed air system.

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35
Q

what is the time recommended not to exceed without air conditioning supply with passengers on board?

A

20 minutes, the lack of fresh air supply will significantly reduce the cabins air quality.

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36
Q

what is the time and temperature limitations for the avionics ventilation when the aircrafts electric power supply is used during ground operations?

A

see table

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37
Q

what is the maximum positive differential cabin pressure?

A

9.0 PSI

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38
Q

what is the maximum negative differential cabin pressure?

A

-1.0 PSI

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39
Q

what is the safety relief valve setting for cabin pressure?

A

8.6 PSI

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40
Q

when does the cabin altitude warning trigger?

A

9 550 ft (±350 ft)

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41
Q

what is the maximum normal cabin altitude?

A

8 000 ft

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42
Q

can you use conditioned air from the PACKS and the LP AIR CONDITIONING UNIT at the same time?

A

the flight crew must not use conditioned air from the PACKS and from the LP AIR CONDITIONING UNIT at the same time, to prevent any adverse effect on the air conditioning system.

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43
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height at takeoff?

A

100 ft AGL and at least 5 seconds after lift off

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44
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height after a manual go-around?

A

100 ft AGL

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45
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an approach with F-G/S mode?

A

200 ft AGL

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46
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an approach with FINAL APP, V/S or FPA mode?

A

250 ft AGL

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47
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on a circling approach?

A

500 ft AGL (CAT C)600 ft AGL (CAT D)

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48
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an ILS/MLS approach with CAT1 displayed on the FMA?

A

160 ft AGL

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49
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an ILS/MLS approach with CAT2 or CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL displayed on the FMA?

A

0 ft AGL if autoland

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50
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an GLS approach with CAT1 displayed on the FMA?

A

160 ft AGL

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51
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an GLS approach with AUTO LAND displayed on the FMA?

A

0 ft AGL if autoland

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52
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an LPV (with SLS) approach with APPR1 displayed on the FMA?

A

160 ft AGL

53
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height on an PAR approach?

A

250 ft AGL

54
Q

what is the minimum autopilot engagement height in all other phases?

A

900 ft AGLthe AP or FD in OP DES or DES mode can be used in approach, however its use is only permitted if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 900 ft AGL.

55
Q

what is the FMGS lateral and vertical navigation certified for?

A

-after takeoff, en route and terminal area operations-navigation within RNAV/RNP airspace-instruent approach procedures (except ILS, LOC, LOC B/C, LDA, SDF, GLS, MLS and FLS final approaches)-missed approach procedures

56
Q

what is RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY?

A

see table

57
Q

is the aircraft capable of conducting RNP AR operations?

A

the aircraft is capable of conducting RNP AR operations, the achieved RNP AR level could be below 0.3 NM and depends on the type of RNP AR application.RNP AR capability has been demonstrated with AP ON for the following modes:-departure in NAV mode-initial and intermediate approach in NAV or APP NAV modes-final approach in FINAL APP mode-missed approach in NAV mode

58
Q

if GPS PRIMARY LOST is displayed on the ND and MCDU, is the navigation accuracy sufficient for RNP operations?

A

the navigation accuracy remains sufficient for RNP operations provided that, the RNP value is checked or entered on the MCDU and HIGH ACCURACY is displayed.

59
Q

when can NAV mode be used after takeoff?

A

provided that:-GPS PRIMARY is available, or-the flight crew checked the FMGS takeoff updating

60
Q

when can NAV mode be used in the terminal area?

A

provided that:-GPS PRIMARY is available, or-the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU, and HIGH accuracy is displayed, or-FMS navigation is crosschecked with navaid raw data

61
Q

when can NAV mode be used on an approach based on radio navaids?

A

a navaids approach may be performed in NAV, APP NAV or FINAL APP, with AP or FD engaged provided that:-if GPS PRIMARY is available, the reference navaid may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, provided that an operational approval is obtained-if GPS PRIMARY is not available, the reference navaid and the corresponding airborne radio equipment must be serviceable, tuned and monitored during the approach.

62
Q

when can NAV mode be used on an RNAV approach?

A

an RNAV (RNP) approach may be performed, with GPS PRIMARY not available, only if the radio navaid coverage supports the RNP value and HIGH accuracy is displayed on the MCDU with the specified RNP, and an operational approval obtained.

63
Q

when can an approach based on radio navaids e.g VOR/DME be flown with the FLS?

A

provided that:-F-APP capability is displayed on the FMA, in this case, the reference navaids may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, provided an operational approval is obtained.-F-APP + RAW capability is displayed on FMA, in this case, the reference navaids and the corresponding airborne radio equipment must be serviceable, tuned and monitored during the approach.

64
Q

when can an ILS (G/S out), ILS-B/C (G/S out), LOC, LOC-B/C approach be flown with the lateral LOC (LOC B/C) mode and with the F-G/S mode of FLS function?

A

provided that:-F-APP capability is displayed on the FMA, in this case, the reference navaids used f.or the vertical path validation must be tuned and checked at final descent point.-F-APP + RAW capability is displayed on FMA, in this case, the reference navaids used for the vertical path validation must be tuned and checked at final descent point and monitored during the approach

65
Q

when can an RNAV (GNSS) approach with LNAV & LNAV/VNAV minimum be flown with the FLS?

A

-an RNAV (GNSS) approach with LNAV minimum MAY be flown with the FLS provided that the F-APP capability is displayed on the FMA.-an RNAV (GNSS) approach with LNAV/VNAV minimum MUST be flown with the FLS provided that the F-APP capability is displayed on the FMA.

66
Q

to fly RNAV (GNSS) approaches and approaches based on VOR/NDB in a lateral managed mode or lateral and vertical managed mode, what must the approach stored in the navigation database be?

A

either:-produced by an approved supplier compliant with ED76/DO200A or DAT type 2 requirements, or -validated and approved by the operator

67
Q

to fly an RNAV (RNP) procedure (departure, approach, missed approach). what must the procedure stored in the navigation database be?

A

either:-produced by an approved supplier compliant with ED76/DO200A or DAT type 2 requirements, or -validated and approved by the operator

68
Q

what is the MDH for a SA CAT I approach?

A

150 ft-at least one A/P must be engaged down to DH in APPR mode, and CAT 2 or CAT 3 single or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA-must use the HUD to monitor the approach-should perform a manual landing

69
Q

what is the MDH for a LTS CAT I approach?

A

200 ft-must use the HUD to fly the approach-should perform a manual landing

70
Q

what is the MDH for an ILS CAT II approach?

A

100 ft -atleast one A/P must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 2 or CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA-for manual landing, AP should be disconnected no later than 80 ft AGL

71
Q

what is the MDH for a SA CAT II approach?

A

100ft-at least one A/P must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 2 or CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA-with HUD installed, the flight crew must use the HUD to monitor the approach and perform and automatic landing or a manual landing. If the flight crew performs an automatic approach without automatic landing, the A/P must be disengaged no later than at 80 ft AGL-without HUD, the flight crew must perform an automatic landing

72
Q

what is the MDH for an OTS CAT II approach?

A

100 ft -at least one A/P must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 2 or CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA-with HUD installed, the flight crew must use the HUD to monitor the approach and perform and automatic landing or a manual landing. If the flight crew performs an automatic approach without automatic landing, the A/P must be disengaged no later than at 80 ft AGL-without HUD, the flight crew must perform an automatic landing

73
Q

what is the MDH for an ILS CAT III ILS FAIL PASSIVE (SINGLE) approach?

A

50 ft-A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed-at least one A/P must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA

74
Q

what is the alert height for an ILS CAT III FAIL OPERATIONAL (DUAL) approach?

A

100 ft-A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed-both A/Ps must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMACAT III without DH:minimum RVR: 75 m

75
Q

what is the engine-out requirements for CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland approval?

A

only approved in CONFIG 3 and FULL, and if engine-out procedures are completed before reaching 1 000ft in approach.

76
Q

what is the MDH for an GLS CAT I approach?

A

200 ftwithout automatic landing:-at least one A/P must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 1 or AUTO LAND must be displayed on the FMAwith automatic landing:-at least one A/P must be engaged in APPR mode, and AUTO LAND must be displayed on the FMA

77
Q

what is the maximum wind conditions for ILS/MLS CAT II or CAT III and for GLS CAT I?

A

HWC: 15 ktTWC: 10 ktCWC: 10 ktbased on surface wind reported by ATC, if the wind displayed on the ND exceeds the above-noted autoland limitations but the tower reports surface wind within the limitations, then the A/P can remain engaged, if the tower reports a surface wind that exceeds the limitations, only CAT I automatic approach without autoland can be performed.

78
Q

what is the requirements for an automatic landing?

A

-ILS/MLS CAT II and CAT III autoland and GLS CAT I autoland are approved in CONF 3 and CONF FULL-with a glide slope angle between -2.5 ° and -3.25 °-with an airport elevation at or below 9 200 ft-with aircraft weight at or above 52 500 kg (115 743 lb)-with aircraft weight below the MLW-automatic landing is not allowed below -2 000 ft pressure altitude-automatic roll out performance is approved on dry/wet runways, but performance on contaminated runways was not demonstrated. during automatic roll out with one engine inoperative or one thrust reverser inoperative, the flight crew can use the remaining thrust reverser provided that:-no more than idle thrust is used-the wind does not exceed the maximum wind conditions for automatic rollout

79
Q

can an automatic landing in CAT I or better weather conditions be performed on CAT I or on CAT II/III ground installations when ILS/MLS sensitive areas are not protected?

A

yes, if the following precautions are taken:-The airline checked that the ILS/MLS beam quality, and the effect of the terrain profile before the runway have noadverse effect on AP/FD guidance. Particularly, the effect of terrain profile within 300 m before the runway thresholdmust be evaluated‐ The flight crew is aware that LOC or G/S beam fluctuations, independent of the aircraft system, may occur. The PF isprepared to immediately disconnect the autopilot, and to take the appropriate action, should not satisfactory guidanceoccur‐ At least CAT2 capability is displayed on the FMA and the flight crew uses CAT II/III procedures‐ Visual references are obtained at an altitude appropriate for the CAT I approach. If not, a go-around must beperformed.

80
Q

what is the time requirement after three consecutive APU start attempts to attempt start?

A

60 minutes

81
Q

what is the maximum APU N (rotor) speed?

A

107 %

82
Q

what is the maximum EGT for APU start?

A

below 35 000 ft: 1090 °Cabove 35 000ft: 1120 °C

83
Q

what is the maximum EGT for APU running?

A

675 °C

84
Q

what are the procedures of APU START/SHUTDOWN during REFUELING/DEFUELING?

A

-if the APU failed to start or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU-if a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown

85
Q

what is the maximum altitude for APU start?

A

normal restart limit: 41 000 ftbattery restart limit (ELEC EMER CONFIG): 25 000 ft

86
Q

until what height can the APU supply bleed air and electrical power?

A

BLEED AIR & ELEC POWER: 22 500 ftELEC POWER ONLY: 41 000 ft

87
Q

what is the APU ground operation altitude limit?

A

between -2 000 ft and 14 750 ft

88
Q

what is the maximum altitude for APU BLEED to assist engine start?

A

20 000 ft

89
Q

what is the maximum altitude for air conditioning and pressurization?

A

single pack operation: 22 500ftdual pack operation: 15 000ft

90
Q

can APU bleed air be used for wing anti-ice?

A

use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted

91
Q

what is the restriction for the power supply for PEDs carried by the passengers?

A

must be turned off during takeoff and landing

92
Q

what is the restriction of the usage of mobile phones?

A

prohibited in the toilets and the cockpit

93
Q

what is the restriction of the usage of the GSM onboard system?

A

prohibited to use the GMS onboard system:-below 3 000 m AGL (approx 10 000 ft AGL)-in some geographical areasthe GSM onboard system is able to identify the above-mentioned flight conditions, if the system identifies any of these conditions, it automatically turns off.

94
Q

what is the thrust setting and EGT limits?

A

takeoff - all engines operative: 5 minutes / 1060 °C (includes TOGA, FLEX, and DERATE thrust modes)go-around - one engine inoperative: 10 minutes / 1060 °Cmaximum continuous thrust (MCT): no time limit / 1025 °Cstarting on ground: 750 °Cstarting in-flight: 875 °C

95
Q

what is the maximum shaft speeds (N1 & N2)?

A

maximum N1: 101% (depends on the ambient conditions and configuration of engine air bleed, these parameters may limit N1 to a value that is less than mentioned above)maximum N2: 116.5%

96
Q

what is the minimum/maximum oil temperatures?

A

maximum continuous temperature: 140 °Cmaximum transient temperature (15 min): 155 °Cminimum starting temperature: -40 °Cminimum temperature before takeoff: 19 °C

97
Q

what is the minimum oil quantity?

A

the minimum oil quantity is the highest value of:-10.6 qt, or-8.9 qt + estimated consumptionmaximum estimation consumption = 0.45 qt/h

98
Q

what is the minimum/maximum oil pressure?

A

minimum: 17.4 PSImaximum (when oil temperature is above 50 °C): 130.5 PSImaximum (when oil temperature is below 50 °C): 145 PSI

99
Q

what are the starter restrictions of the engine?

A

-a standard automatic start that includes up to three start attempts is considered one cycle-for ground starts (automatic or manual), a 60 second pause is required between successive cycles-a 15 minute cooling period is required, subsequent to three failed cycles-the starter must not be run when N2 is above 63 %

100
Q

what is the restrictions of reverse thrust of the engine?

A

-selection of reverse thrust is prohibited in flight-backing the aircraft with reverse thrust is not permitted-maximum reverse should not be used below 70 kt, idle reverse is permitted down to aircraft stop

101
Q

when is FLEX TAKEOFF permitted?

A

-permitted only if the aircraft meets all performance requirements at the takeoff weight, with the operating engines at the thrust available for the flexible temperature (TFLEX)-permitted with any inoperative item affecting the performance only if the associated performance shortfall has been applied to meet the above requirementsFLEX takeoff is not permitted on contaminated runwaysTFLEX cannot be:-higher than TMAXFLEX, equal to +52 °C-lower than the flat temperature (TREF)-lower than the actual OAT

102
Q

what are the restrictions of a derated takeoff?

A

selection of TOGA thrust is not permitted when a derated takeoff is performed, except when request in any abnormal or emergency proceduresthe use of FLEX takeoff is not permitted in association with a derated takeoffthe use of derated takeoff is permitted regardless of the RWY condition (dry, wet or contaminated)

103
Q

what is the maximum crosswind to start the engine on the ground?

A

up to 45 kt CWC

104
Q

what is the maximum crosswind for the engine at takeoff?

A

35 kt (gust included)

105
Q

is the use of GA SOFT mode permitted with one engine inoperative?

A

the use of GA SOFT mode is prohibited with one engine inoperative

106
Q

what is the maximum altitude with the slats and/or flaps extended?

A

20 000 ft

107
Q

what is the certified fuel type?

A

JET A, JET A1, JP5, JP8, N°3 JET, RT and TS-1

108
Q

what is the minimum fuel temperature?

A

JET A1/JP8/N°3 JET: -43 °CJET A: -36 °C (if TAT reaches -34 °C, monitor the fuel temperature on the FUEL SD page to ensure that it remains above -36 °CJP5: -42 °CRT: -45 °CTS-1: -45 °Cthe various types of fuel can be mixed in all proportions, however in the case of fuel mixture, the minimum fuel specified values provided above are no longer applicable

109
Q

what is the maximum allowed fuel imbalance at takeoff?

A

heavier tank: full - maximum asymmetry: 400 kg (882 lb)heavier tank: 3000 kg (6614 lb) - maximum asymmetry: 400 kg (882 lb)heavier tank: 700 kg (1543 lb) - maximum asymmetry: 700 kg (1543 lb)the variation is linear between these values

110
Q

what is the maximum fuel imbalance in flight and at landing?

A

heavier tank: full -maximum asymmetry: 1320 kg (2910 lb)heavier tank: 4000 kg (8818 lb) - maximum asymmetry: 1450 kg (3196 lb)heavier tank: 2350 kg (5180 lb) - maximum asymmetry: 2350 kg (5180 lb)the variation is linear between these values, and there is no limitation below 2350 kg (5180 lb)in exceptional conditions (i.e fuel system failure), the above mentioned values may be exceeded without significant effect to the aircraft handling qualities, the aircraft remains fully controllable in all flight phases.

111
Q

what is the minimum fuel for takeoff?

A

1 500 kg (3 307 lb)the ECAM alerts that are related to fuel low level in the wing tanks (FUEL WING TK LO LVL, etc) must not appear for takeoff

112
Q

what is the restriction of the usage of the rain repellent?

A

only use the rain repellent in the case of moderate to heavy rain

113
Q

what is the definition of icing conditions?

A

‐ Icing conditions exist when the OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below 10 °C and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 sm (1 600 m) or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals).‐ Icing conditions also exist when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff is at or below 10 °C and operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

114
Q

what is the definition of severe ice accretion?

A

Ice accretion is considered severe when the ice accumulation on the airframe reaches approximately 5 mm (0.2 in) thick or more.

115
Q

what is the definition of thin hoarfrost?

A

Thin hoarfrost is typically a white crystalline deposit which usually develops uniformly on exposed surfaces on cold and cloudless nights.It is so thin that surface features (lines or markings) can be distinguished beneath it.

116
Q

what is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff?

A

300 °C (brake fans OFF)

117
Q

what is the maximum nose wheel steering angle?

A

±85 °towbarless operation on the nose landing gear (towing and pushback) is approved when using the accepted towbarless towing vehicles listed in the airbase WISE ISI 09.11.000001

118
Q

what is the maximum tire speed to vacate the runway/taxi with deflated or damaged tires?

A

maximum one tire per gear is deflated (consider three gears) - maximum taxi speed in turn: 7 ktif two tires are deflated on the same main gear (maximum one gear) - maximum taxi speed: 3 ktmaximum nose wheel steering angle with deflated or damaged tires: 30 °if tire damage is suspected, the flight crew must ask for an aircraft inspection prior to vacating the runway or taxi, if the ground crew suspects that a tire burst may damage the landing gear, maintenance action is due.

119
Q

what is the maximum NWS angle for vacating the runway/taxi with deflated or damaged tires?

A

maximum nose wheel steering angle with deflated or damaged tires: 30 °

120
Q

within what latitudes is the ground alignment of the IRS possible?

A

between 82 ° North and 82 ° South

121
Q

what is the magnetic reference restriction of the IRS system for NAV mode?

A

If all ADIRUs have the same magnetic variation table:in NAV mode, the IR will not provide valid magnetic HDG and magnetic TRK angle:-north of 73 ° North, between 90 ° West and 120 ° West (magnetic polar region), and-North of 82 ° North, and -South of 60 ° Southflying at latitudes beyond these limits is prohibitedIf one ADIRU has a different magnetic variation table:in NAV mode, the IR will not provide valid magnetic HDG and magnetic TRK angle:-north of 60 ° North, between 30 ° West and 160 ° West (magnetic polar region), and-North of 75 ° North, and -South of 55 ° Southflying at latitudes beyond these limits is prohibited

122
Q

what is the minimum flight crew oxygen pressure?

A

worst case required is a minimum of 800 PSI (includes FO + 4th occupant)

123
Q

what is the minimum flight crew oxygen bottle pressure enough to cover?

A

-preflight checks-the use of oxygen, when only one flight crew member is in the cockpit-unusable quantity (to ensure regulator operation with minimum pressure)-normal system leakage-the most demanding case among the following:protection after loss of cabin pressure, with mask regular on NORMAL (diluted oxygen)-during emergency descent for all flight crew members and observers for 15 min-during cruise at FL 100 for two flight crew members for 105 minprotection against smoke with 100% oxygen for all flight crew members and observers during 15 min at 8 000 ft cabin altitudethe above times that are based on the use of a sealed mask may be shorter for bearded crew.

124
Q

can the terrain display be used for navigation?

A

the terrain display is intended to serve as a situation awareness tool and may not provide the accuracy on which to solely base terrain avoidance maneuvering.aircraft navigation must not be based on the use of the terrain display.

125
Q

when does predictive GPWS functions be inhibited?

A

when the aircraft is less than 15 nm from the airfield:-for operations from/to runways not incorporated in the predictive GPWS database-for specific approach or departure procedures, which have previously been identified by the operator as potentially causing expected or spurious terrain alerts.

126
Q

can the HUD be used for an automatic approach, landing and rollout guidance?

A

the flight crew may use the HUD to monitor an an automatic approach, landing and for rollout guidance.

127
Q

what are the restrictions of the HUD during a manual approach?

A

the flight crew may use the HUD for visual or instrument CAT I approaches, provided that the slope is between -2 ° and -4 ° (-5.5 ° with steep approach capability)

128
Q

what are the restrictions of a synthetic runway on the HUD?

A

-the synthetic runway symbology displayed on the HUD may not overlay the real runway-for approaches using LOC guidance, the LOC axis displayed on the HUD may not overlay the real LOC axisthe synthetic runway is displayed on approach if the aircraft HDG is in the range of ±80 ° of runway QFU to help the flight crew to localize/identify the RWY

129
Q

what is the lateral accuracy of the FPV?

A

up to 2 ° the computation of the lateral position of the FPV is purely based on IRS data, the IRS drift affects the accuracy of the FPV.

A321 Systems (2 decks)

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