Limitations

Question 1

Maximum design takeoff weight

Answer 1

Maximum design takeoff weight

17,110 Pounds

Question 2

Maximum design takeoff weight

Answer 2

Maximum design takeoff weight

17,110 Pounds

Question 3

Maximum design takeoff weight

Answer 3

Maximum design takeoff weight

17,110 Pounds

Question 4

Maximum design landing weight

Answer 4

Maximum design landing weight

15,660 Pounds

Question 5

Maximum design zero fuel weight

Answer 5

Maximum design zero fuel weight

12,500 Pounds

Question 6

Maximum baggage weight in nose compartment

Answer 6

Maximum baggage weight in nose compartment

400 Pounds

Question 7

Maximum baggage weight in tailcone compartment

Answer 7

Maximum baggage weight in tailcone compartment

600 Pounds

Question 8

Maximum load distribution
(nose baggage compartment)

Answer 8

Maximum load distribution
(nose baggage compartment)

35 Pounds per Square Foot

Question 9

Maximum load distribution
(tailcone baggage compartment)

Answer 9

Maximum load distribution
(tailcone baggage compartment)

150 Pounds per Square Foot

Question 10

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Dispatch is not allowed with any _____ annunciator or ____ message
displayed. Refer to applicable Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for
dispatch with amber annunciator or amber message.

Answer 10

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Dispatch is not allowed with any red annunciator or red message
displayed. Refer to applicable Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for
dispatch with amber annunciator or amber message.

Question 11

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is __________ with an amber ENGINE CTRL SYS FAULT L and/or
R message displayed.

Answer 11

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is prohibited with an amber ENGINE CTRL SYS FAULT L and/or
R message displayed.

Question 12

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The autopilot and yaw damper must be _________\_ for takeoff and
landing.

Answer 12

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The autopilot and yaw damper must be disengaged for takeoff and
landing.

Question 13

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Dispatch with the yaw damper inoperative is _________.

Answer 13

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Dispatch with the yaw damper inoperative is prohibited.

Question 14

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is _________ if the antiskid system is inoperative.

Answer 14

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is prohibited if the antiskid system is inoperative.

Question 15

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is prohibited until the battery charging amps is ___ amps or less.

Answer 15

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is prohibited until the battery charging amps is 20 amps or less.

Question 16

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Cabin must be depressurized prior to ______.

Answer 16

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Cabin must be depressurized prior to landing.

Question 17

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoffs and landings are limited to ______ runway surfaces.

Answer 17

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoffs and landings are limited to paved runway surfaces.

Question 18

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Except where required by AFM procedures, speed brakes must be
retracted prior to ____ feet AGL for landing.

Answer 18

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Except where required by AFM procedures, speed brakes must be
retracted prior to 500 feet AGL for landing.

Question 19

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude

Answer 19

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude

FL450

Question 20

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude with WING XFLOW on

Answer 20

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude with WING XFLOW on

FL410

Question 21

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum altitude for extension of flaps and/or landing gear

Answer 21

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum altitude for extension of flaps and/or landing gear

FL180

Question 22

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude with inoperative yaw damper

Answer 22

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude with inoperative yaw damper

FL240

Question 23

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude with amber
DC GENERATOR OFF L-R displayed

Answer 23

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum operating altitude with amber
DC GENERATOR OFF L-R displayed

FL350

Question 24

FUEL LIMITS

Maximum demonstrated fuel imbalance for emergency return following a
fuel system malfunction is ____ lbs.

Answer 24

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum demonstrated fuel imbalance for emergency return following a
fuel system malfunction is 600 lbs.

Question 25

FUEL LIMITS

Maximum approved fuel imbalance for normal operation

Answer 25

FUEL LIMITS

Maximum approved fuel imbalance for normal operation

200 lbs

Question 26

FUEL LIMITS

Single point refueling operations must be conducted per the procedures
contained on the placard installed on the single point refueling access
door. Refueling pressure range is ____ psi; maximum defuel pressure is
____ psi.

Answer 26

FUEL LIMITS

Single point refueling operations must be conducted per the procedures
contained on the placard installed on the single point refueling access
door. Refueling pressure range is 10-55 psi; maximum defuel pressure is
-10 psi.

Question 27

FADEC (FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL
ENGINE CONTROLLER)

Engine start and/or dispatch with an amber ENGINE CTRL SYS FAULT
L-R message displayed is ________.

Answer 27

FADEC (FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL
ENGINE CONTROLLER)

Engine start and/or dispatch with an amber ENGINE CTRL SYS FAULT
L-R message displayed is prohibited.

Question 28

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Takeoff thrust settings, which are normally limited to ___ minutes duration
for all engine operating conditions, may be used for up to ___ minutes for
one engine inoperative operations. Timing begins when throttle lever is
advanced to the TO detent.

Answer 28

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Takeoff thrust settings, which are normally limited to 5 minutes duration
for all engine operating conditions, may be used for up to 10 minutes for
one engine inoperative operations. Timing begins when throttle lever is
advanced to the TO detent.

Question 29

APPROVED OILS

____________ is the preferred oil.

Answer 29

APPROVED OILS

Mobil Jet II is the preferred oil.

Question 30

APPROVED OILS

Mixing of approved oils is _________.

Answer 30

APPROVED OILS

Mixing of approved oils is permissible.

Question 31

APPROVED OILS

Approved oils include _________ & ________.

Answer 31

APPROVED OILS

Approved oils include Mobil Jet II & Mobil 254.

Question 32

APPROVED OILS

Maximum oil consumption is _____ gallons per 1 hour period (__ qt or
__ L per 8 hours). Refer to the aircraft maintenance manual when oil
consumption exceeds this value.

Answer 32

APPROVED OILS

Maximum oil consumption is 0.032 gallons per 1 hour period (1 qt or
1 L per 8 hours). Refer to the aircraft maintenance manual when oil
consumption exceeds this value.

Question 33

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Amber ENGINE CTRL SYS FAULT message
displayed

Answer 33

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Amber ENGINE CTRL SYS FAULT message
displayed

Engine start prohibited

Question 34

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Generator switches

Answer 34

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Generator switches

ON for engine starts

Question 35

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Time to light-off is defined as the time from first indication of fuel flow
until an ____ increase is observed.

Answer 35

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Time to light-off is defined as the time from first indication of fuel flow
until an ITT increase is observed.

Question 36

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Maximum time to light-off

Answer 36

ENGINE START LIMITS (GENERAL)

Maximum time to light-off

10 seconds (ground starts only)

Question 37

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Maximum elevation for battery or cross generator starts

Answer 37

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Maximum elevation for battery or cross generator starts

14,000 Feet

Question 38

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Maximum tailwind component

Answer 38

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Maximum tailwind component

10 Knots

Question 39

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Maximum crosswind component

Answer 39

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Maximum crosswind component

10 Knots

Question 40

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Minimum battery voltage for battery start

Answer 40

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Minimum battery voltage for battery start

24 Volts

Question 41

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Engine oil must be preheated to at least _____ prior to conducting a start.

Answer 41

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Engine oil must be preheated to at least -40°C prior to conducting a start.

Question 42

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Lithium batteries must be preheated to at least ___°C prior to start
(SYSTEMS 1 format/overlay on MFD).

Answer 42

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Lithium batteries must be preheated to at least -10°C prior to start
(SYSTEMS 1 format/overlay on MFD).

Question 43

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries must be preheated to at least
___°C prior to start (SYSTEMS 1 format/overlay on MFD).

Answer 43

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries must be preheated to at least
-20°C prior to start (SYSTEMS 1 format/overlay on MFD).

Question 44

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

If the airplane has been cold soaked in ambient temperatures below -40°C,
the FADECs must be warmed with electrical power for at least ___ minutes
followed by a power cycle with the battery switch.

Answer 44

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

If the airplane has been cold soaked in ambient temperatures below -40°C,
the FADECs must be warmed with electrical power for at least 3 minutes
followed by a power cycle with the battery switch.

Question 45

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Minimum engine oil temperature (indicated on EIS)

Answer 45

ENGINE START LIMITS
(GROUND STARTS)

Minimum engine oil temperature (indicated on EIS)

-40°C

Question 46

START CYCLE LIMITS

This limit is independent of starter power source (i.e., battery, generator
assisted cross start, or external power unit) and applies to both starting and
dry motoring of the engine.

Engine starter limits:

Answer 46

START CYCLE LIMITS

This limit is independent of starter power source (i.e., battery, generator
assisted cross start, or external power unit) and applies to both starting and
dry motoring of the engine.

Engine starter limits:

Three engine starts per 30 minutes.
Three cycles of operation with a
60-second rest period between
cycles is permitted.

Question 47

SPEED LIMITS

MMO (above 27,884 feet)

Answer 47

SPEED LIMITS

MMO (above 27,884 feet)

Mach 0.77 (indicated)

Question 48

SPEED LIMITS

VMO (between 8000 and 27,884 feet)

Answer 48

SPEED LIMITS

VMO (between 8000 and 27,884 feet)

305 KIAS

Question 49

SPEED LIMITS

VMO (below 8000 feet)

Answer 49

SPEED LIMITS

VMO (below 8000 feet)

260 KIAS

Question 50

SPEED LIMITS

Full application of rudder and aileron controls as well as maneuvers that
involve angle-of-attack near the stall should be confined to speeds below
______ __________ _______ speed. Refer to LOAD FACTOR limits
for pitch maneuvering limits.

Answer 50

SPEED LIMITS

Full application of rudder and aileron controls as well as maneuvers that
involve angle-of-attack near the stall should be confined to speeds below
maximum operating maneuvering speed. Refer to LOAD FACTOR limits
for pitch maneuvering limits.

Question 51

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum flap extended speed - V_FE

Takeoff and approach position (15°)

Answer 51

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum flap extended speed - V_FE

Takeoff and approach position (15°)

200 KIAS

Question 52

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum flap extended speed - V_FE

Landing position (35°)

Answer 52

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum flap extended speed - V_FE

Landing position (35°)

160 KIAS

Question 53

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum landing gear extended speed - V_LE

Answer 53

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum landing gear extended speed - V_LE

200 KIAS

Question 54

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum landing gear operating speed - V_LO
(Extending or Retracting)

Answer 54

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum landing gear operating speed - V_LO
(Extending or Retracting)

200 KIAS

Question 55

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum speed brake operation speed V_SB

Answer 55

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum speed brake operation speed V_SB

No Limit

Question 56

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum autopilot operation speed

Answer 56

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum autopilot operation speed

305 KIAS or Mach 0.77

Question 57

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum autopilot operation speed

Answer 57

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum autopilot operation speed

305 KIAS or Mach 0.77

Question 58

SPEED LIMITS

Minimum speed for sustained flight In icing conditions (Flaps 0°)

Answer 58

SPEED LIMITS

Minimum speed for sustained flight In icing conditions (Flaps 0°)

160 KIAS

Question 59

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum tire ground speed

Answer 59

SPEED LIMITS

Maximum tire ground speed

165 KIAS

Question 60

MANEUVER LIMITS

Acrobatic maneuvers, including spins, are ___________.

Answer 60

MANEUVER LIMITS

Acrobatic maneuvers, including spins, are prohibited.

Question 61

MANEUVER LIMITS

Intentional stalls are prohibited above _______ feet.

Answer 61

MANEUVER LIMITS

Intentional stalls are prohibited above 18,000 feet.

Question 62

BATTERY LIMITS

Lead-acid and nickel-cadmium batteries are approved for use in the CJ4.
Lithium batteries may ____ be used for ground or flight operations unless
approved by later AFM revision.

Answer 62

BATTERY LIMITS

Lead-acid and nickel-cadmium batteries are approved for use in the CJ4.
Lithium batteries may not be used for ground or flight operations unless
approved by later AFM revision.

Question 63

BATTERY LIMITS

The battery temperature indicating system must be operational for all
_______ and _____ operations.

Answer 63

BATTERY LIMITS

The battery temperature indicating system must be operational for all
ground and flight operations.

Question 64

BATTERY LIMITS

If the red BATTERY OVERTEMP message displays during ground operations, do not take off until the proper maintenance procedures have
been accomplished. Even if the message subsequently clears, dispatch
is ________ until after the proper maintenance procedures have been
accomplished.

Answer 64

BATTERY LIMITS

If the red BATTERY OVERTEMP message displays during ground operations, do not take off until the proper maintenance procedures have
been accomplished. Even if the message subsequently clears, dispatch
is prohibited until after the proper maintenance procedures have been
accomplished.

Question 65

BATTERY LIMITS

Battery start limit

Answer 65

BATTERY LIMITS

Battery start limit

Three engine starts per hour

Question 66

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Steady state generator limits are:

Ground

Answer 66

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Steady state generator limits are:

Ground

240 Amps

Question 67

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Steady state generator limits are:

Air ≤ FL250

Answer 67

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Steady state generator limits are:

Air ≤ FL250

300 Amps

Question 68

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Steady state generator limits are:

> FL250 and ≤ FL450

Answer 68

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Steady state generator limits are:

> FL250 and ≤ FL450

Linear decrease from 300 Amps to 170 Amps

Question 69

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Structural cabin pressurization
limits

Answer 69

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Structural cabin pressurization
limits

(-0.5 to 9.0 PSI) ± 0.1 PSI Differential

Question 70

SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN SYSTEM

The use of medical oxygen is _________.

Answer 70

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

The use of medical oxygen is prohibited.

Question 71

SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN SYSTEM

Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use above ______
feet cabin altitude. Prolonged use of passenger masks above 25,000 feet
cabin altitude is not recommended.

Answer 71

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use above 40,000
feet cabin altitude. Prolonged use of passenger masks above 25,000 feet
cabin altitude is not recommended.

Question 72

SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN SYSTEM

Prior to flight, the crew oxygen mask must be checked and stowed properly
in its receptacle to qualify as a ______ ________ oxygen mask.

Answer 72

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Prior to flight, the crew oxygen mask must be checked and stowed properly
in its receptacle to qualify as a quick donning oxygen mask.

Question 73

SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN SYSTEM

For single pilot operations, a crew oxygen mask _____ be available for
a passenger occupying the right crew seat. The mask must be checked
during preflight and passenger briefed on its use.

Answer 73

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

For single pilot operations, a crew oxygen mask must be available for
a passenger occupying the right crew seat. The mask must be checked
during preflight and passenger briefed on its use.

Question 74

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

For taxi, takeoff, and landing, all adjustable seats must be fully ______
and ________; all occupied seats must have the head rest extended, seat
controls inboard, seat tracked away from the table and then outboard, and
passenger seat belts and shoulder harnesses must be fastened.

Answer 74

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

For taxi, takeoff, and landing, all adjustable seats must be fully upright
and outboard; all occupied seats must have the head rest extended, seat
controls inboard, seat tracked away from the table and then outboard, and
passenger seat belts and shoulder harnesses must be fastened.

Question 75

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The maximum number of occupants in the passenger compartment is _____
(_____ with the optional two-place side-facing couch installed).

Answer 75

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The maximum number of occupants in the passenger compartment is eight
(nine with the optional two-place side-facing couch installed).

Question 76

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The lavatory door must be latched _____ for taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Answer 76

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The lavatory door must be latched open for taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 77

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The lavatory is limited to one occupant.

Answer 77

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The lavatory is limited to one occupant.

Question 78

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Limit ground operation of pitot/static heat to ____ minutes to prevent
damage to the pitot tubes and angle of attack vane.

Answer 78

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Limit ground operation of pitot/static heat to two minutes to prevent
damage to the pitot tubes and angle of attack vane.

Question 79

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Ground operation at greater than 75% N2 engine RPM with wing anti-ice on
is limited to ____ minutes. Do not operate with wing anti-ice on more than
____ minute after the cyan or amber WING ANTI-ICE COLD message(s) have
extinguished during preflight checks.

Answer 79

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Ground operation at greater than 75% N2 engine RPM with wing anti-ice on
is limited to two minutes. Do not operate with wing anti-ice on more than
one minute after the cyan or amber WING ANTI-ICE COLD message(s) have
extinguished during preflight checks.

Question 80

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Ambient surface temperature must be obtained from the ____ _____ on
the cockpit displays, with either or both engines operating, or from an
appropriate ground station.

Answer 80

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Ambient surface temperature must be obtained from the SAT field on
the cockpit displays, with either or both engines operating, or from an
appropriate ground station.

Question 81

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The control lock must not be set if the airplane will be exposed to
temperatures below ____°C.

Answer 81

GROUND OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The control lock must not be set if the airplane will be exposed to
temperatures below -10°C.

Question 82

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Category II approaches are ____ approved.

Answer 82

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Category II approaches are not approved.

Question 83

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Operating in the _________ mode is limited to training and display
failure conditions.

Answer 83

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Operating in the composite mode is limited to training and display
failure conditions.

Question 84

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

________ the airplane is prohibited until all AHRS ground alignment is
completed.

Answer 84

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Taxiing the airplane is prohibited until all AHRS ground alignment is
completed.

Question 85

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Autopilot:
a. Use of the autopilot or yaw damper is prohibited during takeoff or landing.
b. One pilot must remain seated with seat belt fastened during all autopilot operations.
c. The autopilot minimum engage height, during climb following takeoff or go-around,
is ____ feet AGL.
d. The autopilot minimum use height is:
(1) ILS approach (CAT I) & LPV/WAAS - ____ feet AGL (flaps 0°-35°)
(2) Other non-precision approach - ____ feet AGL
(3) Cruise - _____ feet AGL
e. Do not override the autopilot in pitch during normal operation.
f. Use of the autopilot is prohibited if primary elevator trim is inoperative.

Answer 85

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

Autopilot:
a. Use of the autopilot or yaw damper is prohibited during takeoff or landing.
b. One pilot must remain seated with seat belt fastened during all autopilot operations.
c. The autopilot minimum engage height, during climb following takeoff or go-around,
is 300 feet AGL.
d. The autopilot minimum use height is:
(1) ILS approach (CAT I) & LPV/WAAS - 200 feet AGL (flaps 0°-35°)
(2) Other non-precision approach - 200 feet AGL
(3) Cruise - 1000 feet AGL
e. Do not override the autopilot in pitch during normal operation.
f. Use of the autopilot is prohibited if primary elevator trim is inoperative.

Question 86

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

VOR approaches must not be conducted in the ____ mode of the flight director.
Use the ____ mode, or manually track the approach course using the HDG mode.
This limit applies to both flight director only and autopilot coupled operation.
Autopilot coupled operation is prohibited during any portion of a VOR approach
in which the VOR is located behind the airplane by more than ___ miles, unless
the HDG mode of the flight director is being used to manually track the approach
course.
VOR approaches conducted without DME must be intercepted greater than ___
nautical miles from the VOR.

Answer 86

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

VOR approaches must not be conducted in the NAV mode of the flight director.
Use the APPR mode, or manually track the approach course using the HDG mode.
This limit applies to both flight director only and autopilot coupled operation.
Autopilot coupled operation is prohibited during any portion of a VOR approach
in which the VOR is located behind the airplane by more than 15 miles, unless
the HDG mode of the flight director is being used to manually track the approach
course.
VOR approaches conducted without DME must be intercepted greater than 6
nautical miles from the VOR.

Question 87

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

It is prohibited to display the non-coupled side Flight Director unless the
coupled side Flight Director is being displayed. Failure to adhere to this limit
will result in _________ Flight Director guidance. Use of the coupled side Flight
Director by itself will operate correctly.
When conducting an approach that utilizes a localizer (ILS, LOC, LOC-BC,
LDA, SDF), the approach mode (_____) must not be selected until the course
deviation indicator (CDI) has clearly moved away from a full scale deflection
and the aircraft is within the published service volume for the approach. Failure
to observe this limit may result in capture of a false localizer lobe, resulting in
incorrect lateral guidance.

Answer 87

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

It is prohibited to display the non-coupled side Flight Director unless the
coupled side Flight Director is being displayed. Failure to adhere to this limit
will result in incorrect Flight Director guidance. Use of the coupled side Flight
Director by itself will operate correctly.
When conducting an approach that utilizes a localizer (ILS, LOC, LOC-BC,
LDA, SDF), the approach mode (APPR) must not be selected until the course
deviation indicator (CDI) has clearly moved away from a full scale deflection
and the aircraft is within the published service volume for the approach. Failure
to observe this limit may result in capture of a false localizer lobe, resulting in
incorrect lateral guidance.

Question 88

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000
INTEGRATED FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

The angle-of-attack system may be used as a _________, but does not
replace the airspeed display in the PFD as a primary instrument.
The angle-of-attack system can be used as a reference for approach
speed (VREF) at all airplane weights, CG locations, and flap positions.
VREF is indicated by approximately ___ on the AOA gauge, green circle
on AOA indexer (if installed), and by the green circle on the pilot and
copilot’s airspeed indicators.

Answer 88

ANGLE-OF-ATTACK AND
STICK SHAKER SYSTEM

The angle-of-attack system may be used as a reference, but does not
replace the airspeed display in the PFD as a primary instrument.
The angle-of-attack system can be used as a reference for approach
speed (VREF) at all airplane weights, CG locations, and flap positions.
VREF is indicated by approximately 0.6 on the AOA gauge, green circle
on AOA indexer (if installed), and by the green circle on the pilot and
copilot’s airspeed indicators.

Question 89

COCKPIT SPEAKER MUTE

The pilot(s) must use a headset(s) when the overhead cockpit speaker
audio is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 89

COCKPIT SPEAKER MUTE

The pilot(s) must use a headset(s) when the overhead cockpit speaker
audio is **_muted_**.

Question 90

PULSELITE SYSTEM

The pulse light system must be OFF and remain OFF during the
following night ground and night flight operations: taxi, takeoff, and
landing approach at ____ feet AGL and below.

Answer 90

PULSELITE SYSTEM

The pulse light system must be OFF and remain OFF during the
following night ground and night flight operations: taxi, takeoff, and
landing approach at 300 feet AGL and below.

Question 91

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Icing conditions in flight exist when SAT is ____°C or colder and visible
moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile
or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals).
Icing conditions on the ground exist with an OAT or SAT below ___°C or colder
and where surface snow, slush, ice or standing water may be ingested by the
engines or freeze on engine nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
The wing icing inspection light must be operative ____ to flight into known or
forecast icing conditions at night.
All anti-ice and de-ice systems must be ___ in flight when operating in icing
conditions, except tail deice must be off when SAT is below -30°C.

Answer 91

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Icing conditions in flight exist when SAT is +10°C or colder and visible
moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile
or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals).
Icing conditions on the ground exist with an OAT or SAT below +5°C or colder
and where surface snow, slush, ice or standing water may be ingested by the
engines or freeze on engine nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
The wing icing inspection light must be operative prior to flight into known or
forecast icing conditions at night.
All anti-ice and de-ice systems must be ON in flight when operating in icing
conditions, except tail deice must be off when SAT is below -30°C.

Question 92

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Engine anti-ice must be ON during ground operations in icing
conditions, except selection of anti-ice on is prohibited for __ _______
after ground engine start (to ensure accurate RAT for takeoff). If engine
anti-ice was inadvertently turned ON prior to 1 minute of engine
operation, the anti-ice must be turned off for __ ________ before turning
it back on. If minor engine vibrations are felt or heard during ground
operations, the crew must momentarily increase engine speed (typically
20-30% N1) to assist with shedding the accumulated ice from the
spinner, fan, and stators.

Answer 92

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Engine anti-ice must be ON during ground operations in icing
conditions, except selection of anti-ice on is prohibited for 1 minute
after ground engine start (to ensure accurate RAT for takeoff). If engine
anti-ice was inadvertently turned ON prior to 1 minute of engine
operation, the anti-ice must be turned off for 2 minutes before turning
it back on. If minor engine vibrations are felt or heard during ground
operations, the crew must momentarily increase engine speed (typically
20-30% N1) to assist with shedding the accumulated ice from the
spinner, fan, and stators.

Question 93

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

When SAT is below __°C, the wing and engine anti-ice systems may be
operated in the ENG ONLY position if it can be visually verified that no
ice is accumulating.

Answer 93

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

When SAT is below -40°C, the wing and engine anti-ice systems may be
operated in the ENG ONLY position if it can be visually verified that no
ice is accumulating.

Question 94

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Failure to operate engine anti-ice may result in amber ENG CTRL SYS
FAULT messages due to ice accumulation on the engine ________
probe.

Answer 94

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Failure to operate engine anti-ice may result in amber ENG CTRL SYS
FAULT messages due to ice accumulation on the engine PT2/TT2
probe.

Question 95

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Minimum temperature for operation of tail deicing boots (SAT)

Answer 95

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Minimum temperature for operation of tail deicing boots (SAT)

-30°C

Question 96

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing conditions (except takeoff,
approach, and landing) is ____ KIAS. If wing anti-ice protection has failed
and/or ice has accumulated on the wing leading edge, maintain ____ KIAS
minimum until approaching to land and disengage the autopilot prior to
extending flaps or reducing airspeed below ____ KIAS.

Answer 96

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing conditions (except takeoff,
approach, and landing) is 160 KIAS. If wing anti-ice protection has failed
and/or ice has accumulated on the wing leading edge, maintain 160 KIAS
minimum until approaching to land and disengage the autopilot prior to
extending flaps or reducing airspeed below 160 KIAS.

Question 97

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

In icing conditions, operating the airplane at other than flaps 0° and
landing gear up for an extended period of time (except approach and
landing) is _______.

Answer 97

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

In icing conditions, operating the airplane at other than flaps 0° and
landing gear up for an extended period of time (except approach and
landing) is prohibited.

Question 98

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Minimum engine N2 speed for effective wing anti-icing

Answer 98

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Minimum engine N2 speed for effective wing anti-icing

75% N2

Question 99

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Operation in severe icing is _________. The airplane has not been
designed or certified to provide protection against severe icing
conditions, including freezing drizzle, freezing rain, or severe conditions
of mixed or clear ice.

Answer 99

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Operation in severe icing is prohibited. The airplane has not been
designed or certified to provide protection against severe icing
conditions, including freezing drizzle, freezing rain, or severe conditions
of mixed or clear ice.

Question 100

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Severe icing conditions that exceed those for which the airplane is
certificated shall be determined by the following visual cues:
1. Unusually extensive ice accumulation on the airframe and _________
in areas not normally observed to collect ice (such as the outboard
1/3 of forward ________).
2. Unusual accumulation of ice on the upper surface of the _____
(significant accumulations on the heated surfaces, ridge formations
running inboard to outboard on the upper surface, runback ice
extending more than 18 inches aft of the heated leading edge).

Answer 100

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Severe icing conditions that exceed those for which the airplane is
certificated shall be determined by the following visual cues:
1. Unusually extensive ice accumulation on the airframe and windshield
in areas not normally observed to collect ice (such as the outboard
1/3 of forward windshield).
2. Unusual accumulation of ice on the upper surface of the wing
(significant accumulations on the heated surfaces, ridge formations
running inboard to outboard on the upper surface, runback ice
extending more than 18 inches aft of the heated leading edge).

Question 101

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

If one or more of these visual cues exist:
1. Use of the autopilot is __________.
2. Immediately request priority handling from Air Traffic Control to
facilitate a route or altitude change to exit the icing conditions.
3. Leave flaps in ______ position, do not extend or retract.
4. Avoid abrupt and excessive maneuvering that may aggravate control
problems.
5. If unusual or uncommanded roll control movement is observed,
reduce __________.

Answer 101

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

If one or more of these visual cues exist:
1. Use of the autopilot is prohibited.
2. Immediately request priority handling from Air Traffic Control to
facilitate a route or altitude change to exit the icing conditions.
3. Leave flaps in current position, do not extend or retract.
4. Avoid abrupt and excessive maneuvering that may aggravate control
problems.
5. If unusual or uncommanded roll control movement is observed,
reduce angle-of-attack.

Question 102

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Since the autopilot, when installed and operating, may mask tactile cues
that indicate adverse changes in handling characteristics, use of the
autopilot is prohibited when:
1. Unusual ________ trim is required while the airplane is in icing
conditions.
2. ________ ______ warnings are encountered while the airplane is in icing
conditions.

Answer 102

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Since the autopilot, when installed and operating, may mask tactile cues
that indicate adverse changes in handling characteristics, use of the
autopilot is prohibited when:
1. Unusual lateral trim is required while the airplane is in icing
conditions.
2. Autopilot trim warnings are encountered while the airplane is in icing
conditions.

Question 103

ADS-B OUT OPERATION

When ADS-B Out is required by operating rule, the following limitations
apply:
1. ______ must be selected as the operating transponder, unless an
applicable emergency/abnormal procedure requires the selection of
ATC1.
2. One FMS CDU must display the primary TUNE (1/2) page and the
pilot must periodically check it for an amber _____ ____ message,
indicating an ADS-B Out failure condition.

Answer 103

ADS-B OUT OPERATION

When ADS-B Out is required by operating rule, the following limitations
apply:
1. ATC2 must be selected as the operating transponder, unless an
applicable emergency/abnormal procedure requires the selection of
ATC1.
2. One FMS CDU must display the primary TUNE (1/2) page and the
pilot must periodically check it for an amber XPDR FAIL message,
indicating an ADS-B Out failure condition.

Question 104

EMERGENCY BUS

Items on the emergency bus are:

Answer 104

EMERGENCY BUS

Items on the emergency bus are:

Question 105

CONVERTED BUS

Items not on the converted bus are:

Answer 105

CONVERTED BUS

Items not on the converted bus are: