Lifespan Questions - All Flashcards

1
Q

The notion that development is best described in terms of a series of abrupt shifts in behavior best fits with the ________ approach.

a. nurture
b. continuity
c. discontinuity
d. nature

A

c. discontinuity

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2
Q

Sara believes that memory processes develop the same way in all children. Sara is most likely to support a ________ position regarding human development.

a. universal
b. discontinuous
c. non-normative
d. nurture

A

a. universal

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3
Q

Because Dr. Jefferson is interested in researching how people of different ages are affected by events, it would be most accurate to say that Dr. Jefferson is most interested in studying ________ forces.

a. sociocultural
b. life-cycle
c. psychological
d. biological

A

b. life-cycle

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4
Q

Who is best associated with psychosocial theory?

a. Erikson
b. Watson
c. Freud
d. Bandura

A

a. Erikson

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5
Q

When would Erikson say is the stage in life where the biggest challenge involves committing to another in a loving relationship?

a. old adulthood
b. childhood
c. young adulthood
d. adolescence

A

c. young adulthood

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6
Q

In operant conditioning theory, reinforcement is to punishment as:

a. good is to bad.
b. unwanted is to wanted.
c. giving is to taking.
d. increasing is to decreasing.

A

d. increasing is to decreasing.

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7
Q

Even though Brenda was never reinforced directly for doing so, she increased the frequency of her swearing after she saw her friend Elizabeth get a lot of attention after she swore. This is most likely an example of:

a. observational learning.
b. self-efficacy.
c. punishment.
d. operant conditioning.

A

a. observational learning.

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8
Q

Whose theory of development is best exemplified by the idea that children construct their own knowledge and this constructed knowledge changes with age/experience?

a. Bronfenbrenner
b. Piaget
c. Skinner
d. Erikson

A

b. Piaget

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9
Q

What type of theorist would most likely describe human cognitive development using the analogy of “mental software?”

a. an Eriksonian
b. an operant conditioning theorist
c. a social learning theorist
d. an information processor

A

d. an information processor

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10
Q

According to ecological theory, developmentalists, the people closest to a developing child, represent their:

a. macrosystem.
b. endosystem.
c. exosystem.
d. microsystem.

A

d. microsystem.

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11
Q

Professor Linwood always makes a point of learning the names of all the students in her class. She used to always be able to do this in her head but has recently found that she needs note cards to help her remember. This change in behavior is best described as:

a. loss-based selection.
b. compensation.
c. the epigenetic principle.
d. elective selection.

A

b. compensation.

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12
Q

The notion of “balancing” work and home-life responsibilities is best associated with:

a. the synchronization of individual transitions with collective familial ones.
b. the impact of earlier life events on current conditions.
c. individual timing of life events in relation to external historical events.
d. history determining the outcome of life.

A

a. the synchronization of individual transitions with collective familial ones.

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13
Q

Carrie is most interested in studying adolescent behavior occurring at a high school prom. Which method is most likely to help her accomplish this goal?

a. structured observation
b. self-report
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

A

d. naturalistic observation

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14
Q

You read a research article that concludes that the higher a student’s self-esteem, the worse they perform in school. This sort of relationship would best be characterized as:

a. a negative correlation.
b. no relationship.
c. positive correlation.
d. cause and effect.

A

a. a negative correlation.

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15
Q

In the Fujita and Diener (2005) study, which variable was most likely to change over time?

a. body mass index
b. life satisfaction
c. weight
d. personality traits

A

b. life satisfaction

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16
Q

A sperm cell contains a total of 22:

a. genes.
b. chromosomes.
c. sex cells.
d. autosomes.

A

d. autosomes.

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17
Q

Genes provide the cell with a specific set of ________ instructions.

a. hormonal
b. biochemical
c. in vitro
d. bioelectric

A

b. biochemical

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18
Q

Which is an example of your genotype?

a. your behaviors
b. your personality
c. your physical appearance
d. your complete set of genes

A

d. your complete set of genes

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19
Q

If obesity is dominant and designated as “O” and thinness is recessive and designated as “t,” how many of the following individuals would likely be obese: Ginger who is “OO,” Mary Ann who is “Ot,” Thurston who is “tO,” Gilligan who is “tt”?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1

A

c. 3

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20
Q

“Tri-somy 21” (three 21st chromosomes) best describes:

a. Down syndrome.
b. sickle-cell trait.
c. PKU.
d. Huntington

s disease.

A

a. Down syndrome.

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21
Q

As dizygotic twins, Jewel and Bjork:

a. share about half of their genes.
b. share all phenotypes.
c. are genetically identical.
d. must have come from the same fertilized egg.

A

a. share about half of their genes.

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22
Q

The concept of range of reactions involves the fact that:

a. recessive genes are more commonly expressed than dominant genes.
b. each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes.
c. dizygotic twins are virtually genetically identical.
d. the environment has little impact on behavior.

A

b. each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes.

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23
Q

A physician has just informed pregnant Moesha that the human organism developing inside of her has just begun to show differentiation of its cells. As a knowledgeable student you would know that such an organism is technically called a(n):

a. zygote.
b. neonate.
c. embryo.
d. fetus.

A

a. zygote.

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24
Q

Muscle and bones develop during the embryonic period from cells contained in the ________ layer.

a. placenta
b. endoderm
c. ectoderm
d. mesoderm

A

d. mesoderm

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25
Q

Which event marks the start of the fetal period of development?

a. Cartilage begins to form into bone.
b. Implantation into the uterus.
c. Emergence from the Fallopian tube.
d. Initial formation of internal organs.

A

d. Initial formation of internal organs.

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26
Q

What effect is not associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?

a. misshapen face
b. slow growth
c. mental retardation
d. blindness

A

d. blindness

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27
Q

The key lesson learned by the fact that thalidomide showed no impact when tested on prenatal rabbits but led to birth defects in prenatal humans is that:

a. teratogen effects may not emerge until later in life.
b. teratogens impact different genotypes differently.
c. teratogens impact specific aspects of development.
d. teratogen effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is exposed.

A

b. teratogens impact different genotypes differently.

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28
Q

Regan is a medical student who is learning a procedure in which a long needle is inserted into the abdomen of a pregnant woman. What technique is he most likely learning?

a. chorionic villus sampling
b. amniocentesis
c. genetic counseling
d. ultrasound

A

b. amniocentesis

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29
Q

Which is expelled during afterbirth?

a. ova
b. fetus
c. placenta
d. cervix

A

c. placenta

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30
Q

Which is not a typical childbirth class technique for reducing the pain associated with delivery?

a. Teach deep breathing to reduce muscle tension.
b. Teach a

coach

to attend to mother and help her cope with pain.
c. Teach that medications have no place in the delivery room.
d. Teach visual imagery focusing on pleasant scenes or experiences.

A

c. Teach that medications have no place in the delivery room.

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31
Q

Jamal was born 34 weeks after he was conceived and weighed 6 pounds. Jamal is best described as:

a. preterm and low birth weight.
b. full-term and low birth weight.
c. preterm and normal birth weight.
d. full-term and normal birth weight.

A

c. preterm and normal birth weight.

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32
Q

Winchester notices that every time he touches his newborn son’s cheek, the infant turns his head and appears to try and suck. This behavior exemplifies a ________ reflex.

a. Babinski
b. rooting
c. withdrawal
d. Moro

A

b. rooting

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33
Q

Experts define a mad cry as a:

a. less intense version of a basic cry.
b. more intense version of a basic cry.
c. less intense version of a pain cry.
d. more intense version of a pain cry.

A

b. more intense version of a basic cry.

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34
Q

Why are African American babies twice as likely to die from SIDS?

a. They are more likely to have blood diseases that predispose them to SIDS.
b. Their parents were less intelligent than other parents.
c. They were more genetically predisposed to the disease.
d. They were more likely to be put to bed on their stomachs.

A

d. They were more likely to be put to bed on their stomachs.

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35
Q

Which person is most likely experiencing the most rapid physical growth?

a. Sean, who is 6 years old.
b. Rudolf, who is just reaching puberty.
c. Jose, who is 18 months old.
d. Elias, who is 19 years old.

A

c. Jose, who is 18 months old.

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36
Q

Malnutrition seems to be most damaging if it occurs during:

a. childhood.
b. adulthood.
c. adolescence.
d. infancy.

A

d. infancy.

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37
Q

Each neuron contains many ________ but only one ________.

a. terminal buttons; dendrite
b. dendrites; terminal button
c. cell bodies; dendrite
d. dendrites; cell body

A

d. dendrites; cell body

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38
Q

Which is least associated with the frontal cortex?

a. happiness
b. sadness
c. goal-directed behavior
d. vision

A

d. vision

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39
Q

Whose brain is most likely to have the most synapses?

a. Jerry, who is a newborn.
b. Kramer, who is seven years old.
c. George, who is 14 years old.
d. Elaine, who is one year old.

A

d. Elaine, who is one year old.

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40
Q

To locomote is to:

a. emote.
b. perceive.
c. think.
d. move.

A

d. move.

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41
Q

Caleb is 4 months old. If he is like others his age, when he grasps a rattle, he will grasp it with:

a. his thumb only.
b. his fingers and thumb.
c. his fingers only.
d. one finger from each hand.

A

c. his fingers only.

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42
Q

Nathan suddenly lets out a high-pitched cry, lowers his eyebrows, and purses his lips. You would be safest in assuming that Nathan is:

a. happy.
b. playing peek-a-boo.
c. experiencing pain.
d. cold.

A

c. experiencing pain.

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43
Q

Which innate preference is used to help researchers assess infants’ visual abilities?

a. A preference for colored objects over black/white objects.
b. A preference for striped objects over plain objects.
c. A preference for stationary objects over moving objects.
d. A preference for angled objects over round objects.

A

b. A preference for striped objects over plain objects.

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44
Q

What infant response did Gibson and Walk (1960) measure in their visual cliff research?

a. visual acuity
b. muscle tone
c. visual fixation
d. heart rate

A

d. heart rate

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45
Q

The image of a person is identical on the retinas of a child, whereas the image of a dog is much different on the left retina than it is on the right. This means that the child will perceive:

a. the dog to be closer than the person.
b. the person and the dog to be far away.
c. the person to be closer than the dog.
d. the person and the dog to be very close.

A

a. the dog to be closer than the person.

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46
Q

The fact that 6-month-olds will look for long periods of time at toys they previously had only been able to touch suggests that infants:

a. demonstrate the use of retinal disparity.
b. cannot integrate tactile sensations as readily as auditory sensations.
c. demonstrate visual acuity.
d. are able to integrate visual and tactile information.

A

d. are able to integrate visual and tactile information.

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47
Q

Salvador has a scheme for drawing with a crayon that had to be changed in order to learn how to paint a picture with a brush. This adaptation is an example of:

a. egocentrism.
b. assimilation.
c. accommodation.
d. animism.

A

c. accommodation.

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48
Q

Dr. Eco has a strong belief that global warming is a theoretical myth. In recent years, however, the increased rate of polar ice cap melt has forced him to alter his theory, and he is now a strong advocate against greenhouse pollutants. A Piagetian would most likely describe Dr. Eco’s theoretical conversion in terms of:

a. equilibration.
b. the one-to-one principle.
c. abstract thinking.
d. overextension.

A

a. equilibration.

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49
Q

Six-month-old Teddy is playing with his favorite toy, a stuffed bear. Suddenly a blanket falls off the shelf and covers his bear. According to Piaget, Teddy would most likely:

a. reach but not search for the bear.
b. search but not reach for the bear.
c. neither reach nor search for the bear.
d. both reach and search for the bear.

A

c. neither reach nor search for the bear.

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50
Q

When Andy bumps into a table, he says to it, “You bumped into me because you’re mean.” Andy is exhibiting:

a. animism.
b. the cardinality principle.
c. irreversibility.
d. egocentrism.

A

a. animism.

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51
Q

Seven-month-old LeBron appears to possess a sense of “naive physics.” Which of LeBron’s actions would indicate that he does possess this sense?

a. His surprise when he sees a basketball go through a hoop.
b. His surprise when he hears his dad cheering while watching a basketball game on television.
c. His surprise when a basketball appears to be hanging in mid air when it is not attached to a string or other supporting device.
d. His surprise when he drops a ball and it falls to the floor.

A

c. His surprise when a basketball appears to be hanging in mid air when it is not attached to a string or other supporting device.

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52
Q

Which statement best exemplifies the concept of essentialism?

a.

A monkey raised by people will become a human.


b.

The purpose of popcorn is to make kids happy when they are at the movies.


c.

Fish have a special

fishness

that allows them to breathe underwater.


d.

If your parent says

no

then you should not do it.


A

c. “Fish have a special ‘fishness’ that allows them to breathe underwater.”

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53
Q

Which is the best example of a question designed to assess autobiographical memory?

a. Where is the queen initially located on a chessboard?
b. Who taught you how to ride a bike?
c. When was Abraham Lincoln elected president?
d. What is the capital of Wisconsin?

A

b. Who taught you how to ride a bike?

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54
Q

What can be done to improve the credibility of the testimony of a child?

a. Convince the child that the people asking her questions are important people who are only trying to help her remember what happened.
b. Use questions that test a number of different explanations concerning the event.
c. There is no need to improve the credibility, since the memories of children are actually less fragile than the memories of adults.
d. Question the child many times to make sure the child is convinced of the events.

A

b. Use questions that test a number of different explanations concerning the event.

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55
Q

When asked to count the 4 beer bottles placed in from of him, 3-year-old Bud says, “1, 3, 4, there are 4!” When asked to count the bottles a second time, he says, “2, 5, 7, 4, there are 4!” Bud’s counting skills demonstrate that he is capable of demonstrating the ________ principle of counting.

a. organization
b. stable-order
c. one-to-one
d. cardinality

A

d. cardinality

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56
Q

Dr. Gunga is attempting to determine the zone of proximal development for Dinn when Dinn works on complex mazes. In order to do so, Dr. Gunga must measure Dinn’s personal performance on the maze and:

a. Dinn

s peers

performance on the same maze.
b. Dinn

s maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper.
c. Dinn

s performance on several other Piagetian tasks.
d. how well Dinn performed on the same maze earlier in his life.

A

b. Dinn’s maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper.

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57
Q

Which is the best example of a phoneme?

a. The consonant sound

d.


b. The overall sound of the word

dog.


c. The words

the dog ran.


d. The sentence,

The dog ran out of the rain.


A

a. The consonant sound “d.”

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58
Q

When six-month-old Gabby says “tahtahtah,” she is:

a. using telegraphic speech.
b. engaging in private speech.
c. cooing.
d. babbling.

A

d. babbling.

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59
Q

The processes in which children acquire new words to referents at such a speed that they cannot be considering all meanings for the new word is called:

a. fast mapping.
b. quick time.
c. telegraphic speech.
d. habituation.

A

a. fast mapping.

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60
Q

Two year-old Sam’s limited vocabulary consists of words like “book,” “dog,” and “hat.” Apparently, Sam:

a. has an expressive style.
b. is unable to use phonemes.
c. is nonsymbolic.
d. has a referential style.

A

d. has a referential style.

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61
Q

Which statement by a 17-month-old best represents telegraphic speech?

a.

Go


b.

Can we go to the store?


c.

Go store


d.

I go to the store


A

c. “Go store”

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62
Q

When discussing the acquisition of grammar, which type of theorist would be most likely to say, “Context and genetics are overrated, what really matters is imitation and reinforcement?”

a. a social-interaction theorist
b. a cognitive theorist
c. a linguistic approach theorist
d. a behaviorist

A

d. a behaviorist

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63
Q

Carmela is struggling in the “autonomy versus guilt and shame” stage of psychosocial development. What aspect of her psychosocial development will result from her successful resolution of this conflict?

a. wariness
b. purpose
c. hope
d. will

A

d. will

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64
Q

Although Jamie has an enormous amount of initiative, he does not possess “purpose.” According to Erikson, this is probably because Jamie:

a. has not learned to cooperate with others.
b. trusts too much.
c. has no

will.


d. was never wary of other people.

A

a. has not learned to cooperate with others.

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65
Q

Dr. Ginesberg’s lecture on attachment concludes that babies express behavior that makes it more likely they will form attachments to adults because, in the past, infants that expressed these behaviors were the infants that survived. Dr. Ginesberg is presenting a(n) ________ approach to attachment.

a. psychological
b. evolutionary
c. anthropological
d. sociocultural

A

b. evolutionary

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66
Q

Which normally maturing infant would be most likely to have just formed their first true attachment?

a. Calvin, who is one day old.
b. Coolidge, who is twelve months old.
c. Kline, who is four months old.
d. Hobbs, who is eight months old.

A

d. Hobbs, who is eight months old.

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67
Q

When Faith’s mother leaves her alone in a room, she does not move and appears a bit dazed. Faith is most likely exhibiting a(n) ________ attachment.

a. avoidant
b. disorganized
c. resistant
d. secure

A

b. disorganized

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68
Q

The fact that infant Ricardo has come to expect that his mother is not available when he needs her means that Ricardo has developed:

a. temperament.
b. an internal working model.
c. autonomy.
d. parallel play.

A

b. an internal working model.

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69
Q

Which statement is true regarding basic emotions?

a. They are experienced by people in all cultures.
b. Most of them begin to develop after 12-months-old.
c. They have a self-evaluative component.
d. They are not reflected in facial expressions.

A

a. They are experienced by people in all cultures.

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70
Q

Complex emotions differ from basic emotions in that complex emotions require some understanding of:

a. self.
b. waking states.
c. purpose.
d. biology.

A

a. self.

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71
Q

Stan is playing with his ball, and Olly is playing with his doll, but they are each watching what the other is doing. Stan and Olly are most likely involved in:

a. prosocial behavior.
b. cooperative play.
c. simple social play.
d. parallel play.

A

d. parallel play.

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72
Q

While the typical 1 1/2-year-old spends the majority of time engaged in ________ play, the typical 4-year-old spends most of their time in ________ play.

a. parallel; simple social
b. cooperative; simple social
c. parallel; cooperative
d. simple social; parallel

A

c. parallel; cooperative

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73
Q

Which term does not fit with the notion of “constricting” during play?

a. support
b. exaggeration
c. threats
d. contradiction

A

a. support

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74
Q

Basic acts of altruistic behavior first appear around ________ months of age.

a. 24
b. 30
c. 12
d. 18

A

d. 18

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75
Q

One of the most effective ways for Dottie to get her child to engage in altruistic behavior is for Dottie to:

a. do nothing and let the child

s natural altruistic instinct take over.
b. model the behavior herself.
c. not dwell on or praise any spontaneous acts of altruism she observes in her child.
d. avoid discipline.

A

b. model the behavior herself.

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76
Q

In general, boys are ________ than girls.

a. better able to express emotions
b. less aggressive
c. more readily influenced by others
d. better at spatial tasks

A

d. better at spatial tasks

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77
Q

As a typical American father, Hans would be most upset if his son Franz:

a. showed affection toward him.
b. was aggressive.
c. engaged in sex-role stereotype behaviors.
d. wanted to play

house.


A

d. wanted to play “house.”

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78
Q

When three-year-old Juan, who is male, says “I’m going to grow up to be a mommy,” he is failing to demonstrate:

a. gender stability.
b. gender identity.
c. gender labeling.
d. will.

A

a. gender stability.

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79
Q

Which reflects a basic ability available only to a formal operational thinker?

a.

Realistically speaking

…


b.

Speaking from experience, I

…


c.

Speaking on behalf of others, I

…


d.

Hypothetically speaking

…


A

d. “Hypothetically speaking …”

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80
Q

Angelica and her younger brother Houston are both given 3 fountain pens, each containing clear ink, and informed that some combination of ink will yield a color. Because Angelica is a formal operational thinker and Houston is a concrete operational thinker, how will their behavior likely differ?

a. Angelica will use a piece of paper to draw out the problem.
b. Houston will only use 2 of the pens.
c. Houston will watch how Angelica solves the problem and then repeat her steps.
d. Angelica will spend more time thinking about the task and be more systematic when attempting to solve it.

A

d. Angelica will spend more time thinking about the task and be more systematic when attempting to solve it.

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81
Q

Working memory is best described as being:

a. temporary and unlimited in capacity.
b. permanent and limited in capacity.
c. permanent and unlimited in capacity.
d. temporary and limited in capacity.

A

d. temporary and limited in capacity.

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82
Q

Bea has tremendous insight into “deep” questions like, “Why are we born to die?” According to Gardner, Bea would rate high on a scale of ________ intelligence.

a. interpersonal
b. logical-mathematical
c. existential
d. bodily-kinesthetic

A

c. existential

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83
Q

Tarzan is building a cage for his pet monkey when his hammer breaks. The fact that Tarzan is able to realize that he might be able to use a frozen banana as a substitute for a hammer indicates that he has a high level of ________ ability.

a. practical
b. familial
c. creative
d. analytical

A

c. creative

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84
Q

In recent years the definition of “gifted” has:

a. narrowed to include only those in the top 5% of their graduating class.
b. broadened to include all IQ tests.
c. broadened to include areas like dance and music.
d. narrowed to include only scores from the Stanford-Binet test.

A

c. broadened to include areas like dance and music.

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85
Q

Who would most likely do the best job of playing a game in which the goal was to list as many novel ways to use a banana as possible?

a. Kala, who is a concrete operational thinker.
b. Terk, who is a preoperational thinker.
c. Dole, who is a very good divergent thinker.
d. Kong, who is a very good convergent thinker.

A

c. Dole, who is a very good divergent thinker.

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86
Q

In the Brouno and colleagues (2007) study on reading disabilities, ________ served as the independent variable.

a. the amount of words presented
b. reading speed
c. reading accuracy
d. the size font of a word

A

a. the amount of words presented

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87
Q

If you lacked phonological awareness, you would have great difficulty in:

a. hearing the difference between the words

putt

and

butt.


b. believing that a rocking chair cannot move on its own.
c. understanding that words are symbolic representations of objects.
d. writing the word

cat

even if you knew how it was spelled.

A

a. hearing the difference between the words “putt” and “butt.”

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88
Q

Which behavior indicates that Mandy is using a knowledge-transforming strategy when writing her psychology term paper?

a. When she considers how fun it would be to skip the paper and head to the beach.
b. When she begins by writing down any ideas about psychology that pop into her mind.
c. When, before she writes anything, she decides that the point of the paper would be to make her psychology teacher mad.
d. When she sounds out the letters to words that she does not know how to spell.

A

c. When, before she writes anything, she decides that the point of the paper would be to make her psychology teacher mad.

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89
Q

Which task would an average elementary-age girl perform better than an average elementary-age boy?

a. Jumping over a bar.
b. Throwing a softball.
c. Writing her name in cursive.
d. Hanging from the monkey bars.

A

c. Writing her name in cursive.

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90
Q

When Ki-Jana asks his parents if he can buy a car, his parents say no but sit down and explain to him the reasoning behind their decision. His parents express affection toward him and tell him that they may consider the matter at some later time. Which parenting style best describes Ki-Jana’s parents?

a. authoritarian
b. permissive
c. uninvolved
d. authoritative

A

d. authoritative

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91
Q

Because they have a permissive parenting style, you would predict that Al and Sue’s son would:

a. have limited self-control.
b. have control over his behavior.
c. be self-reliant.
d. earn high grades in school.

A

a. have limited self-control.

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92
Q

Fugi watches her older sister getting yelled at after she throws an apple across the kitchen. Fugi is now less likely to throw an apple across the kitchen herself. This kind of learning through observation would be best described as:

a. time-out.
b. a negative reinforcement trap.
c. direct instruction.
d. counterimitation.

A

d. counterimitation.

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93
Q

If you’re going to use time-out, make sure that:

a. the time-out period is at least a half hour long.
b. you totally ignore the behavior the next time it occurs.
c. you use other forms of punishment at the same time.
d. you explain the reasons for the time-out to the child after the time-out period is over.

A

d. you explain the reasons for the time-out to the child after the time-out period is over.

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94
Q

Which advice should you give to parents who are trying to reduce their children’s sibling conflict?

a.

Next time try and not have your children so close together in age.


b.

Try to keep your marital problems to yourself.


c.

Admit that you have a

favorite.


d.

It would be helpful if you didn

t have all girls.


A

b. “Try to keep your marital problems to yourself.”

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95
Q

Which statement concerning divorce is true?

a. Predivorce family conflict has little impact on development, it is what happens after the divorce that matters.
b. In recent years the number of fathers being granted custody has decreased.
c. The reduction of income in the post-divorce single parent family can have a negative impact on development.
d. Children tend to fare best with opposite-sex custodial parents.

A

c. The reduction of income in the post-divorce single parent family can have a negative impact on development.

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96
Q

Which best exemplifies a “blended family?”

a. A family with 2 parents and 1 child where 1 parent is white and the other is African American.
b. A family in which parents have joint custody of at least 1 child.
c. A family with 2 adopted children where 1 child is white and the other is African American.
d. A family in which a divorced mom with a son marries a widowed dad with 2 daughters.

A

d. A family in which a divorced mom with a son marries a widowed dad with 2 daughters.

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97
Q

Five-year-old Badia’s parents are not taking care of his medical needs. Badia is suffering from:

a. psychological abuse.
b. hostile aggression.
c. neglect.
d. physical abuse.

A

c. neglect.

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98
Q

Who is most likely to be abusing his child?

a. Derek, who was never abused when he was a child.
b. Joe, who is socially isolated from friends and relatives.
c. Scott, who is wealthy.
d. Louis, who relies on the time-out technique to punish his children.

A

b. Joe, who is socially isolated from friends and relatives.

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99
Q

The statement, “we share our feelings” is most likely to be made by a:

a. 10-year-old.
b. 3-year-old.
c. 15-year-old.
d. 5-year-old.

A

c. 15-year-old.

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100
Q

Jane is identified by others at school as being part of “The Elite,” a fairly large group of students who are very popular, get good grades, and are involved in extra curricular activities. “The Elite” are best described as a:

a. gang.
b. crowd.
c. band.
d. clique.

A

b. crowd.

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101
Q

There is a group in town made up of girls who like golf. The leader of the group is most likely to be:

a. Annika, who is the best golfer in the group.
b. Se Ri, who is the wealthiest person in the group.
c. Grace, who is the best student in the group.
d. Michelle, who has the most outgoing personality.

A

a. Annika, who is the best golfer in the group.

102
Q

Mabel likes to hit other children for no other purpose than to see them get hurt and feel scared. What term best describes Mabel’s behavior?

a. hostile aggression
b. relational aggression
c. counterimitation
d. instrumental aggression

A

a. hostile aggression

103
Q

Hiroko watches shows that display and encourage being friendly and helpful to other people. After watching this, Hiroko is more likely to:

a. act friendly.
b. act the same way she always has.
c. be depressed.
d. act aggressively.

A

a. act friendly.

104
Q

Helen is upset because she thinks that her friend Troy views her other friend Mary as being more responsible than herself. According to Selman, Helen is most likely in the ________ stage of perspective taking.

a. societal
b. undifferentiated
c. self-reflective
d. third-person

A

d. third-person

105
Q

Who is experiencing an event that is best defined as a change in their primary sex characteristics?

a. Paul, who has begun to produce sperm.
b. Mary, whose breasts have begun to develop.
c. Peter, who has begun to grow facial hair.
d. Peter, Paul, and Mary are all experiencing primary sex characteristic changes.

A

a. Paul, who has begun to produce sperm.

106
Q

Menarche is to spermarche as:

a. egg production is to sperm production.
b. fertilization is to conception.
c. onset of menstruation is to ejaculation.
d. ovulation is to testes growth.

A

c. onset of menstruation is to ejaculation.

107
Q

Estrogen is directly released by the:

a. ovaries.
b. adrenal gland.
c. pituitary gland.
d. testes.

A

a. ovaries.

108
Q

The negative effects associated with being an early-maturing female have been found to be offset by:

a. having supportive parents.
b. possessing a strong personal fable.
c. hormone replacement therapy.
d. hanging around with older males.

A

a. having supportive parents.

109
Q

Which measure would be used to determine where a child is overweight?

a. BMI
b. MMPI
c. WAIS
d. WISC

A

a. BMI

110
Q

Which is a defining characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

a. Purging through vomiting.
b. Increased body mass index.
c. Binge eating.
d. An irrational fear of being overweight.

A

d. An irrational fear of being overweight.

111
Q

How many of the following are risk factors for teenagers developing either bulimia or anorexia: history of being a picky eater, negative self-image, history of dieting, frequently watching television shows with fat characters?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

112
Q

Based on statistics, which of the following 16-year-olds is most likely to die as the result of natural causes?

a. Mae, who is an African American female.
b. Kay, who is a European American female.
c. Ray, who is an African American male.
d. Jay, who is a European American male.

A

a. Mae, who is an African American female.

113
Q

The illusion of invulnerability is best defined by the phrase:

a.

dangerous but fun.


b.

once bitten, twice shy.


c.

nothing is worse the risk of dying.


d.

slow and steady wins the race.


A

a. “dangerous but fun.”

114
Q

During an ad hominem argument you must:

a. rely on factual data.
b. win the argument.
c. attack the person with whom you are arguing.
d. employ a social contract.

A

c. attack the person with whom you are arguing.

115
Q

What basic moral question underlies the Heinz dilemma?

a. Can stealing be justified?
b. Is there a God?
c. Is the correct term

catsup

or

ketchup?


d. Are humans naturally violent or passive?

A

a. Can stealing be justified?

116
Q

When considering the Heinz dilemma, Barney says that he would steal the drug because then his wife might bake him a cake to repay him for saving her. This thinking indicates that Barney is most likely in Kohlberg’s ________ stage of moral development.

a. fourth
b. fifth
c. second
d. third

A

c. second

117
Q

When Nicholas and Cage are debating whether or not to steal a cool car they just found, Nicholas says, “It’s wrong to steal the car because there are laws against stealing, and no one is above the law.” This type of thinking best fits with Kohlberg’s ________ level of moral thinking.

a. postconventional
b. conventional
c. unconventional
d. preconventional

A

b. conventional

118
Q

Which comment concerning shoplifting best reflects postconventional thinking?

a.

Shoplifting is bad because good kids don

t steal.


b.

Shoplifting is bad because it is against the law.


c.

Shoplifting is good only if you believe that we all have the right to have anything that we want.


d.

Shoplifting is good because you can get things for yourself.


A

c. “Shoplifting is good only if you believe that we all have the right to have anything that we want.”

119
Q

Groups of Hindu adults and children from India and non-Hindu adults and children from the United States are read a dilemma in which a person is forced to choose between breaking the law to help out a friend or not breaking the law but disappointing the friend. What results would you expect?

a. All groups chose to break the law.
b. The adults chose to break the law.
c. Those from India chose to break the law.
d. No group chose to break the law.

A

c. Those from India chose to break the law.

120
Q

Whose behavior would indicate that they are in Gilligan’s second stage of moral reasoning?

a. Jen, who is caring for her infant daughter.
b. Len, who is considering having a vasectomy.
c. Ken, who is protesting against child abuse.
d. Ben, who is not sharing his ice cream with his brother.

A

a. Jen, who is caring for her infant daughter.

121
Q

When asked, “What do you want to be when you grow up?” 10-year-old G. W. says, “My dad says I should be President, so I guess that’s what I’ll be.” According to Marcia, G. W. is best thought of as being in a state of identity:

a. diffusion.
b. moratorium.
c. achievement.
d. foreclosure.

A

d. foreclosure.

122
Q

Research has indicated that identity achievement status:

a. varies by concept (e.g., political affiliation, career choice).
b. follows an invariant sequence.
c. has little real-life application.
d. cannot be obtained until young adulthood.

A

a. varies by concept (e.g., political affiliation, career choice).

123
Q

The third phase of ethnic identity achievement involves:

a. deciding to not explore one

s ethnic roots.
b. creating a distinct ethnic self-concept.
c. rejecting one

s heritage.
d. wondering about one

s ethnic heritage.

A

b. creating a distinct ethnic self-concept.

124
Q

Which statement concerning ethnic identity development is true?

a. Ethnic identity may change as new generations acculturate to the mainstream culture.
b. A sense of ethnic identity is unrelated to real-life issues like school performance.
c. There is no such thing as a biracial identity.
d. Identification with a mainstream culture weakens one

s ethnic identity.

A

a. Ethnic identity may change as new generations acculturate to the mainstream culture.

125
Q

Which adolescent would likely have the highest level of self-esteem?

a. As ethnicity does not impact self-esteem, all of these adolescents would have similar levels of self-esteem.
b. Reba, who is European American.
c. Barbara Ann, who is Hispanic American.
d. Cheyenne, who is African American.

A

d. Cheyenne, who is African American.

126
Q

Which of these STDs is caused by bacteria?

a. HIV
b. hepatitis B
c. gonorrhea
d. genital herpes

A

c. gonorrhea

127
Q

When asked why she became pregnant, 15-year-old Tanya says, “I did it on purpose so that I could be a loving adult mom.” According to the model in the text, this rationale best fits with the ________ reason for not using contraceptives.

a. lack of motivation
b. ignorance
c. illusion of invulnerability
d. lack of access

A

a. lack of motivation

128
Q

Sid and Nancy are out on their fifth date. Which factor is least likely to increase the possibility of an acquaintance rape occurring?

a. Sid is drinking heavily.
b. Nancy strongly identifies with the stereotypical view of women.
c. Nancy struggles with Sid when he makes unwanted advances.
d. Nancy is drinking heavily.

A

c. Nancy struggles with Sid when he makes unwanted advances.

129
Q

Which statement best describes the basic premise of Super’s implementation phase of career development?

a.

I

ll take the job and see what happens.


b.

I might make a good mortician.


c.

I am going to visit the career service office.


d.

Who cares about work.


A

a. “I’ll take the job and see what happens.”

130
Q

Zeke enjoys expressing himself on unstructured tasks. This description indicates that Zeke most likely has a(n) ________ personality type.

a. realistic
b. conventional
c. artistic
d. investigative

A

c. artistic

131
Q

Sixteen-year-old B.K.’s parents are happy when she tells them she’s decided to take on a part-time job working 20-30 hours a week at a fast-food restaurant. Based on the research presented in your text, should these parents be happy?

a. No, when children

s income increases so does their sense of responsibility to others.
b. Yes, but only if the job requires simple, repetitive tasks.
c. No, as this behavior is associated with an increased risk for drug use.
d. Yes, part-time jobs seem to reduce the risk of mental health problems.

A

c. No, as this behavior is associated with an increased risk for drug use.

132
Q

Which of the following 15-year-olds is least likely to drink alcohol?

a. Jeannie, whose mother and father are uninvolved in her life.
b. Larry, whose friends all encourage him to drink.
c. Tony, who has been experiencing a lot of family problems.
d. Barbara, whose parents sometimes drink small amounts with meals.

A

d. Barbara, whose parents sometimes drink small amounts with meals.

133
Q

The most effective non-drug interventions for teenage depression focus on:

a. teaching social skills.
b. mapping the genetic history of the adolescent.
c. suppressing adolescents

feelings toward their parents.
d. instilling a sense of learned helplessness.

A

a. teaching social skills.

134
Q

Yacef suddenly finds himself newly married and out of school with a new job. Yacef is experiencing:

a. reflective judgment.
b. role transitions.
c. fluid intelligence.
d. possible selves.

A

b. role transitions.

135
Q

Who would Erikson say is most capable of true intimacy?

a. Harrison, who is 16 years old.
b. Aileen, who has a clear sense of identity.
c. Cindy, who is over-dependent on her boyfriend.
d. Burt, who will go out with different people, but finds it scary to go out with someone more than a couple of times.

A

b. Aileen, who has a clear sense of identity.

136
Q

Which of Brittney’s actions best exemplifies an attempt to move beyond “thresholder” status?

a. Her two marriages.
b. Her

wholesome

work as a young teen on the Disney channel.
c. Singing a duet with her younger sister.
d. Deciding that she was not old enough to handle the rigors of college.

A

a. Her two marriages.

137
Q

People who quit smoking after smoking for a long time:

a. will continue to deteriorate, but at a slower rate.
b. will remain at risk for heart attack, but not for cancer.
c. may not get worse, but their overall health will remain bad.
d. show significant improvements in their health.

A

d. show significant improvements in their health.

138
Q

Jari is a frequent binge drinker. Which is he less likely to experience than his non-binge drinking peers?

a. unprotected sex
b. a sexually transmitted disease
c. good grades
d. a hangover

A

c. good grades

139
Q

Who is at the greatest risk of a heart attack?

a. Gump, who has high levels of both LDLs and HDLs.
b. Sawyer, who has low levels of both LDLs and HDLs.
c. Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs.
d. Tucker, who has low level of LDLs and high levels of HDLs.

A

c. Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs.

140
Q

A doctor is attempting to determine how healthy you are. She uses a formula that contains information regarding your height and weight. What is she most likely measuring?

a. HDL
b. LDL
c. BMI
d. ADA

A

c. BMI

141
Q

Kali has a theory of intelligence that views intelligence as being a combination of several factors such as fine motor skills, cognitive ability, and emotional control. Kali’s theory is:

a. multidirectional.
b. a life-span construct.
c. conventional.
d. multidimensional.

A

d. multidimensional.

142
Q

After taking several college courses, Chuck’s short-term memory ability increased. This exemplifies the concept of:

a. multidimensionality.
b. plasticity.
c. postformal thought.
d. interindividual variability.

A

b. plasticity.

143
Q

Which is not a factor identified by Schaie (1994) as a variable that helps reduce the risk of cognitive decline in old age?

a. Being satisfied with life.
b. Living in good housing.
c. Being single.
d. Having a flexible personality style.

A

c. Being single.

144
Q

Someone who knows the answers to all the questions on Who Wants to Be a Millionaire would be exhibiting:

a. crystallized intelligence.
b. reflective judgment.
c. fluid intelligence.
d. postformal thought.

A

a. crystallized intelligence.

145
Q

Ralphie believes that following school rules is important because a teacher’s authority should not be questioned. Ralphie would probably be closest to the ________ stage of reflective judgment.

a. initial
b. later
c. last
d. halfway

A

a. initial

146
Q

Stereotypes:

a. represent thoughts about the meaning of life.
b. focus on individuals, not groups.
c. are not used by intelligent people.
d. help us process information in social situations.

A

d. help us process information in social situations.

147
Q

Which best reflects a “social clock?”

a. Donald wants to be a millionaire by age 30.
b. Ivana has been married four times.
c. Melania can accurately remember her adolescent

coming-out

party.
d. Trump is presently going through puberty.

A

a. Donald wants to be a millionaire by age 30.

148
Q

Merlin believes that he can get what he wants if he tries hard enough. This indicates that he has ________ sense of personal control.

a. a moderate
b. no
c. a low
d. a high

A

d. a high

149
Q

Sanford’s friendships tend to be based on self-disclosure and intimacy. This exemplifies the ________ component of friendship.

a. shared
b. contextual
c. sociability
d. affective

A

d. affective

150
Q

The phrase, “till death do you part,” that is often said during marriage services offers a good example of:

a. commitment.
b. passion.
c. consummate love.
d. romantic love.

A

a. commitment.

151
Q

When deciding on a potential mate, Fletcher says, “I just need to find someone a lot like me.” This statement fits very well with ________ theory.

a. sociocultural
b. blended family
c. crystallization
d. assortative mating

A

d. assortative mating

152
Q

Which statement best exemplifies the premise of Murstein’s “value stage” of couple formation?

a.

The fact that we both come from poor families is a blessing.


b.

I am glad we are both Democrats.


c.

Our gender roles are well suited for each other.


d.

I really like the way she looks.


A

b. “I am glad we are both Democrats.”

153
Q

Which of Deanna’s statements indicates that she is definitely experiencing “battered woman’s syndrome?”

a.

I often hit my husband.


b.

I cannot escape this abusive relationship.


c.

I am sometimes afraid of my husband.


d.

I just killed my husband.


A

b. “I cannot escape this abusive relationship.”

154
Q

For most people the decision to remain permanently single is:

a. made in the teenage years.
b. due to the untimely death of their

one true love.


c. the result of gradual circumstances, not a lifestyle choice.
d. driven by economic factors.

A

c. the result of gradual circumstances, not a lifestyle choice.

155
Q

Liz and Richard are 65 years old and single. They have decided that cohabitation makes sense because they would have to pay more taxes if they were legally married. Given this description, Liz and Richard’s cohabitation pattern is best characterized as:

a. a substitute marriage.
b. premarital cohabitation.
c. limited cohabitation.
d. part-time cohabitation.

A

a. a substitute marriage.

156
Q

Which statement concerning homosexual and heterosexual couples in the United States is true?

a. Both gay and heterosexual males tend to view love and sex as synonymous.
b. Gay couples tend to receive more family support than heterosexual couples.
c. Gay couples have the same legal rights as heterosexual couples.
d. Both lesbian and heterosexual females view money as a way to maintain a sense of independence from their partners.

A

d. Both lesbian and heterosexual females view money as a way to maintain a sense of independence from their partners.

157
Q

When discussing their marriage, Meg and Ryan agree that what appears to keep them together and happy is the fact that they share many of the same values. This exemplifies ________, which is a good predictor of marital success.

a. singlehood
b. homogamy
c. nesting
d. monogamy

A

b. homogamy

158
Q

Which older couple is most likely to be the most satisfied with their marriage?

a. Tim and Kathy, who still have children living at home with them.
b. Dudley and Karla, who often interact with friends.
c. Jim and Ann, who still have sex quite frequently.
d. Barb and Mark, who have many health problems.

A

b. Dudley and Karla, who often interact with friends.

159
Q

What is the most common type of family in the world?

a. interracial family
b. nuclear family
c. blended family
d. extended family

A

d. extended family

160
Q

It would be most reasonable to predict that a child raised by ________ parents would be most competitive.

a. Native American
b. European American
c. Latino American
d. Asian American

A

b. European American

161
Q

The greatest worry of most adoptive, foster, and stepparents is that the adoptive child in their life will:

a. fail to bond with them.
b. lack intelligence.
c. be carrying some undetected genetic disorder.
d. not physically resemble them.

A

a. fail to bond with them.

162
Q

The purpose of a “covenant marriage” is to make ________ to occur.

a. divorce more likely
b. divorce less likely
c. marriage less likely
d. marriage more likely

A

b. divorce less likely

163
Q

Which factor seems to be the best predictor of healthy postdivorce relationships?

a. An inability to forgive the ex-spouse.
b. High income levels.
c. Having children.
d. Low preoccupation with the ex-spouse.

A

d. Low preoccupation with the ex-spouse.

164
Q

According to Holland, people choose occupations that optimize:

a. socialization.
b. fit with their personality.
c. intellect.
d. income.

A

b. fit with their personality.

165
Q

The selection of a specific occupation marks the beginning of the ________ stage of occupational development.

a. maintenance
b. implementation
c. decline
d. stabilization

A

d. stabilization

166
Q

Which statement best summarizes research on Super’s theory of occupational development?

a. It is limited as it assumes that people stay in a single career, but his idea of viewing occupational development as a process has not been supported.
b. It is limited as it assumes that people stay in a single career, but his idea of viewing occupational development as a process has been supported.
c. It is limited as it assumes that people will all make many career changes, but his idea of viewing occupational development as a process has not been supported.
d. It is limited as it assumes that people will all make many career changes, but his idea of viewing occupational development as a process has been supported.

A

b. It is limited as it assumes that people stay in a single career, but his idea of viewing occupational development as a process has been supported.

167
Q

Bonnie and Clyde had a mentor-protégé relationship that lasted years. They now no longer view this as a mentor-protégé relationship but one of equal status colleagues. This suggests that their relationship is in the ________ phase.

a. separation
b. redefinition
c. initiation
d. cultivation

A

b. redefinition

168
Q

According to the Hom and Kinicky (2001) study of job satisfaction, ________, should have the lowest job satisfaction.

a. Marie, who is unhappy with her work team
b. Kirstie, who is unhappy with her working environment
c. Lonzo, who is relatively underpaid
d. Paul, whose job is interfering in his personal life

A

d. Paul, whose job is interfering in his personal life

169
Q

If Zack is like the alienated workers interviewed In Terkel’s (1974) classic study, he would most likely describe himself as a:

a.

cog in a faceless machine of industry.


b.

warrior ready to rage against the machine.


c.

ghost in the machine of industry.


d.

machine head.


A

a. “cog in a faceless machine of industry.”

170
Q

Devin was born in 1950. As such, he is best classified as part of the ________ generation.

a. baby-boomer
b. lost
c. Generation X
d. Millennial

A

a. baby-boomer

171
Q

According to results from Silverstein (2001) and Yamini-Benjamin (2007), women professionals are most likely to leave that career because they:

a. find themselves not being rewarded for the relational skills they value.
b. need more education to be successful.
c. become income driven.
d. are pressured to by their husbands or boyfriends.

A

a. find themselves not being rewarded for the relational skills they value.

172
Q

When Bundy applies for a job as a shoe salesperson, he is told, “Right now we are only hiring females.” This is an example of:

a. sexual harassment.
b. a glass ceiling.
c. comparable worth.
d. gender discrimination.

A

d. gender discrimination.

173
Q

Pay equity specifically involves equal pay for:

a. equivalent jobs.
b. all ethnic groups.
c. all jobs.
d. both sexes.

A

a. equivalent jobs.

174
Q

During a legal side bar a judge comments, “But what would a reasonable person have thought about it?” This trial is likely about:

a. age discrimination.
b. a glass ceiling.
c. sexual harassment.
d. pay equity.

A

c. sexual harassment.

175
Q

Jeremy has worked for the same marketing company for several years. Because he has not really put an effort into keeping his computer skills up-to-date, he really has no chance at advancing beyond his present position. Which term best describes what Jeremy is experiencing?

a. the glass ceiling
b. alienation
c. career plateauing
d. job satisfaction

A

c. career plateauing

176
Q

Loss of a job is most likely to negatively impact men who are:

a. middle-aged.
b. retirement-aged.
c. early in their career.
d. college-aged.

A

a. middle-aged.

177
Q

Carrie is a full-time physician and Ken is a full-time school teacher. Who likely does most of the housework and child care?

a. Ken
b. It is likely that most housework and child care is done by their children.
c. Carrie and Ken probably do about the same amount of housework.
d. Carrie

A

d. Carrie

178
Q

Who is most likely to be experiencing the most stress related to work-family conflicts?

a. Lisa, who has 3 children.
b. Lori, who has no children.
c. Lana, who has 4 children.
d. Laura, who has 1 child.

A

c. Lana, who has 4 children.

179
Q

Osteoporosis is best thought of as involving a loss of bone:

a. porousness.
b. mass.
c. brittleness.
d. hormones.

A

b. mass.

180
Q

One difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis is that:

a. osteoarthritis is not painful.
b. women are more likely to be affected by rheumatoid arthritis.
c. osteoarthritis typically occurs in adolescence.
d. there is more swelling of the joints in rheumatoid arthritis.

A

d. there is more swelling of the joints in rheumatoid arthritis.

181
Q

How are menopause and the climacteric related?

a. Menopause occurs during the climacteric.
b. Menopause and the climacteric are unrelated.
c. Menopause typically ends right before the climacteric.
d. The climacteric typically ends right before menopause.

A

a. Menopause occurs during the climacteric.

182
Q

Some males experience an age-related decline in ________ resulting in menopause-like symptoms (e.g., hot flashes).

a. dopamine
b. testosterone
c. estrogen
d. progestin

A

b. testosterone

183
Q

Stress has been shown to decrease:

a. risk for irritable bowel syndrome.
b. estrogen levels.
c. cholesterol levels.
d. angina.

A

b. estrogen levels.

184
Q

What appears to be the main reason why an individual’s Type A or Type B behavioral pattern influences their recovery rate following a heart attack?

a. It affects how much physicians like being around them when they are patients.
b. It is a good predictor of the type of genetic factors known to cause future attacks.
c. It appears to influence one

s motivation to follow postattack health suggestions.
d. The two types vary by sex, as do recovery rates.

A

c. It appears to influence one’s motivation to follow postattack health suggestions.

185
Q

Dr. Zorba is giving 44-year-old Annette an intelligence test. Annette finds that she really likes answering the questions because they seem to be based on her life experiences. Dr. Zorba is most likely attempting to assess Annette’s:

a. fluid intelligence.
b. ego resilience.
c. generativity.
d. practical intelligence.

A

d. practical intelligence.

186
Q

When confronted with a problem in his relationships with his wife, Frank scoffs it off, saying “Ahhh, that’s not really an issue… it will work itself out.” This is probably best classified as:

a. avoidant thinking.
b. a cognitive analysis.
c. passive-dependent behavior.
d. problem-focused action.

A

a. avoidant thinking.

187
Q

The “biological process of thinking” would be best associated with:

a. the mechanics of intelligence.
b. neuroticism.
c. cultural influences.
d. the pragmatics of intelligence.

A

a. the mechanics of intelligence.

188
Q

One negative effect of encapsulation is the:

a. increase in time needed to solve a task.
b. inability to solve practical problems.
c. loss of expertise.
d. loss of the ability to explain why you came to a correct solution.

A

d. loss of the ability to explain why you came to a correct solution.

189
Q

If Barney is accurately described as being very even-tempered and unemotional. He would likely score very low on a test of:

a. openness to new experience.
b. neuroticism.
c. agreeableness.
d. encapsulation.

A

b. neuroticism.

190
Q

Ahmed is in charge of hiring new employees for his company. He wants to hire people who are very organized, very responsible, and will work very hard for the company. In which trait is Ahmed most interested?

a. agreeableness
b. extroversion
c. openness to experience
d. conscientiousness

A

d. conscientiousness

191
Q

Based on the research findings of the Srivastava (2003) study of the Big Five, you would be most accurate in predicting that women’s scores on ________ tend to ________ as they age.

a. openness; increase
b. extroversion; increase
c. neuroticism; decrease
d. conscientiousness; decrease

A

c. neuroticism; decrease

192
Q

When he was much younger, Garnett was a star on his college basketball team. Now, he is the assistant coach of the team. Even though he is too old to play pro basketball, he is consumed by what could have been and still dreams of life as a professional basketball player. As a result, Garnett is frequently frustrated by the younger players who to him seem to be lazy, and not utilizing their natural ability. Obviously, he is not a very good coach. What term best describes Garnett’s situation?

a. encapsulation
b. filial obligation
c. generativity
d. stagnation

A

d. stagnation

193
Q

Which statement on “midlife crisis” is true?

a. Midlife crises are common in both males and females.
b. Those who experience such a crisis may be suffering from general psychopathology.
c. Midlife crises are typically triggered by generativity.
d. A midlife crisis usually has a profound effect on one

s gender-role identity.

A

b. Those who experience such a crisis may be suffering from general psychopathology.

194
Q

How could Silvia enter the “sandwich generation?”

a. Have her father move in with her while she is still caring for a child at home.
b. Enter a nursing home.
c. Get married.
d. Have her youngest child finally go to college, leaving her at home with just her husband.

A

a. Have her father move in with her while she is still caring for a child at home.

195
Q

Garner thinks that the best part of being a grandparent involves telling stories about his childhood to his grandchildren so that these kids see him as possessing wisdom. This motivation best fits with the ________ dimension of grandparenting.

a. valued elder
b. social
c. indulgence
d. personal

A

a. valued elder

196
Q

Chatava is a professional who does research to determine the numbers of people in different countries, their ages, and how these numbers might change in the years to come. Chatava would best be described as a:

a. metabolic theorist.
b. social worker.
c. cartographer.
d. demographer.

A

d. demographer.

197
Q

Elijah asks his doctor how long he can plan to live without any major medical problems or impairments. Elijah is asking about ________ life expectancy.

a. average
b. maximum
c. useful
d. modal

A

c. useful

198
Q

Environmental toxins appear to play ________ role in determining longevity.

a. no
b. some
c. a major
d. a minimal

A

c. a major

199
Q

Fourth Age is also characterized as:

a. young-young.
b. oldest-old.
c. young-old.
d. old-young.

A

b. oldest-old.

200
Q

In explaining why people age and eventually die, Dr. Filipovsky talks about “free radicals” and how their buildup produces tissue damage. Dr. Filipovsky is promoting a ________ theory of aging.

a. metabolic
b. wear-and-tear
c. programmed cell death
d. cellular

A

d. cellular

201
Q

If the programmed cell theory of aging is correct:

a. people under stress should die sooner than those not under stress.
b. a low fat diet should extend life.
c. humans are born with a

prewired death clock.


d. the elimination of free radicals should greatly extend life.

A

c. humans are born with a “prewired death clock.”

202
Q

The defining characteristic of a cerebral vascular accident is:

a. an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
b. neuritic tangling.
c. the cessation of respiratory output.
d. death.

A

a. an interruption of blood flow to the brain.

203
Q

Carmen has a very difficult time breathing. Even after walking short distances, she is gasping for air. Carmen is exhibiting symptoms of:

a. circadian rhythms.
b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
c. Parkinson

s disease.
d. presbycusis.

A

b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

204
Q

Joyce’s doctor has just told her that the fluid in her eyes is not draining properly and that she’ll have to administer eye drops to prevent experiencing damage to the pressure in her eyes. Joyce has most likely been diagnosed with:

a. glaucoma.
b. diabetic retinopathy.
c. cataracts.
d. macular degeneration.

A

a. glaucoma.

205
Q

Presbycusis is the most common age-related:

a. visual disorder.
b. variety of COPD.
c. type of hearing problem.
d. form of dementia.

A

c. type of hearing problem.

206
Q

Al’s statement, “During the last 30 years my living arrangement pattern would best be described as single to married with children to divorced and on my own,” exemplifies:

a. external discontinuity.
b. internal continuity.
c. external continuity.
d. internal discontinuity.

A

c. external continuity.

207
Q

Adaptation level is reached when:

a. the environmental press makes no demands on competence but competence still exists.
b. competence exceeds an environmental press.
c. environmental press exceeds competence.
d. the environmental press is at the average state for a given level of competence.

A

d. the environmental press is at the average state for a given level of competence.

208
Q

The “zone of maximum comfort” is reached when:

a. competence slightly exceeds environmental press.
b. people are right at their adaptation level.
c. people are maladaptive.
d. environmental press slightly exceeds competence.

A

a. competence slightly exceeds environmental press.

209
Q

As you believe in Erikson’s theory, you would most likely view your 90-year-old grandmother as struggling with a conflict of:

a. industry versus inferiority.
b. integrity versus despair.
c. generativity versus stagnation.
d. identity versus role confusion.

A

b. integrity versus despair.

210
Q

Which statement indicates that Joel is engaging in assimilative activity (primary control)?

a.

I first identify environmental demands and then try to meet them.


b.

I always make my environment match my desires.


c.

I rely on faith and prayer to guide my actions.


d.

I just let things happen naturally.


A

b. “I always make my environment match my desires.”

211
Q

Who is most likely to say, “When I cannot go to church, I feel bad about myself?”

a. Cher, who is a European American female.
b. Ike, who is a an African American male.
c. Tina, who is a an African American female.
d. Sonny, who is a European American male.

A

c. Tina, who is a an African American female.

212
Q

A pattern of full-time work, retirement, full-time-work, another retirement, provides a good example of ________ retirement.

a. blurred
b. social convoy
c. skilled
d. crisp

A

a. blurred

213
Q

One interesting gender issue concerning satisfaction in retirement is that:

a. traditional gender roles may create difficulties in older retiring males.
b. satisfied retired wives tend to have been influenced to retire by their husbands.
c. finances are only important to male retirees.
d. gender issues have no influence on retirement satisfaction.

A

a. traditional gender roles may create difficulties in older retiring males.

214
Q

“Socioemotional selectivity” is a term that describes the process involved in:

a. arriving at subjective well-being.
b. developing relationships with others.
c. maximizing one

s zone of maximum comfort.
d. mastering instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs).

A

b. developing relationships with others.

215
Q

Dee would describe her relationship with her brother Lee as neither close, involved, nor envious. This sounds like a(n) ________ relationship.

a. congenial
b. intimate
c. hostile
d. apathetic

A

d. apathetic

216
Q

When comparing the average middle-aged married couple with the average older married couple, the older couple is more likely to be characterized as:

a. docile.
b. similar.
c. disengaged.
d. unhappy.

A

b. similar.

217
Q

Levi has just become a great-grandfather. If he is like most other great-grandparents, Levi:

a. is looking forward to being a surrogate parent.
b. views being a great-grandparent as a burden.
c. is pleased with the diversion great-grandchildren provide.
d. views himself with the sense that he has lived too long.

A

c. is pleased with the diversion great-grandchildren provide.

218
Q

In the United States, ________ would be considered an instrumental activity of daily living.

a. taking a bath
b. opening a door
c. walking
d. purchasing a car

A

c. walking

219
Q

An elderly individual with few cognitive or physical limitations but who sometimes requires help with everyday living needs would most likely live in:

a. an assisted living facility.
b. a nursing home.
c. intermediate care.
d. skilled nursing care.

A

a. an assisted living facility.

220
Q

Bethany is now living in an environment where her life-threatening medical condition is monitored 24 hours a day. Bethany is most likely in a(n) ________ facility.

a. age-integrated housing
b. intermediate care
c. assisted living
d. skilled nursing care

A

d. skilled nursing care

221
Q

After seeing a cat run over by a car, Felix says, “That thing is as dead as a cooked pig.” This provides an example of death as a(n):

a. image.
b. event.
c. boundary.
d. analogy.

A

d. analogy.

222
Q

After an accident, Steve’s heart is not beating and he has stopped breathing. Steve is:

a. clinically dead.
b. mourning.
c. whole-brain dead.
d. in a persistent vegetative state.

A

a. clinically dead.

223
Q

Dr. Rahman has made a career out of studying mercy killing and new surgical options to extend life. She is most likely interested in:

a. grief.
b. death as an object.
c. bioethics.
d. death as a statistic.

A

c. bioethics.

224
Q

Which is the best example of active euthanasia?

a. Not performing a potentially lifesaving surgery.
b. Withholding a lifesaving drug.
c. Withdrawing an experimental drug that might prevent a disorder.
d. Pulling the plug on a respirator.

A

d. Pulling the plug on a respirator.

225
Q

Dr. Steinmetz decides to follow the wishes of her patient and withhold treatment for the patient’s terminal cancer, thus allowing the patient to die. This is an example of:

a. a near-death experience.
b. passive euthanasia.
c. active euthanasia.
d. bioethics.

A

b. passive euthanasia.

226
Q

Stacey has been diagnosed with a terminal illness. She is currently going to different doctors to determine whether her diagnosis is correct. Stacey is probably in the ________ stage of dying.

a. bargaining
b. denial
c. depression
d. anger

A

b. denial

227
Q

In Kübler-Ross’s original theory, the emotion of ________ was thought to typically precede feelings of acceptance.

a. anger
b. depression
c. resignation
d. euphoria

A

b. depression

228
Q

Which is the best example of an end-of-life issue?

a. Deciding on whether to have a memorial service after you die.
b. Differentiating between clinical and whole-brain death.
c. Focusing on whether you are going to heaven or hell.
d. Trying to raise enough money for a comfortable retirement.

A

a. Deciding on whether to have a memorial service after you die.

229
Q

When compared to terminally-ill hospital patients, hospice patients are more likely to be:

a. anxious.
b. mobile.
c. depressed.
d. avoided by a spouse.

A

b. mobile.

230
Q

For most European Americans, ________ would be the best example of a mourning ritual.

a. having an open casket
b. writing a will
c. being cremated
d. wearing black

A

d. wearing black

231
Q

Heather’s father just died. One thing she has been doing is talking a lot about the time her father won a big golf tournament. Muller and Thompson (2003) would say that this reflects the ________ theme of the experience of grief.

a. narrative
b. relationship
c. affect
d. coping

A

a. narrative

232
Q

Guffy has just lost his wife to cancer and has begun to question the point of his own existence. This concern best fits with Bonanno and Kaltman’s (1999) ________ component of grief.

a. emotional-regulation
b. context of loss
c. changing representation of lost relationship
d. continuation of subjective meaning associated with loss

A

d. continuation of subjective meaning associated with loss

233
Q

The defining element of separation distress during prolonged grief is that it:

a. is an emotionless reaction.
b. is based on disbelief about death.
c. interferes with daily activities.
d. must involve a child-parent dyad.

A

c. interferes with daily activities.

234
Q

Your text suggests that you should ________ when explaining death to children.

a. be honest and supportive
b. hide the reality of death
c. use euphemisms like

Grandma went away


d. be unemotional

A

a. be honest and supportive

235
Q

________ tend to have the most intense feelings concerning death.

a. Older adults
b. Young children
c. Young adults
d. Adolescents

A

c. Young adults

236
Q

What is most likely to help Anita recover from the loss of her spouse?

a. Having many acquaintances.
b. Feeling supported by a small, but close, set of friends.
c. Social withdrawal.
d. Being a member of a large family.

A

b. Feeling supported by a small, but close, set of friends.

237
Q

Vygotsky emphasized the role of cultural context on human development.
True
False

A

True

238
Q

The embryo is connected to the uterus via the Fallopian tube.
True
False

A

False

239
Q

Visual expansion is a form of depth perception based on the retinal size of an image.
True
False

A

True

240
Q

The quality of an autobiographical memory can be influenced by culture.
True
False

A

True

241
Q

Babies who exhibit avoidant attachment are not upset when their mothers leave the room.
True
False

A

True

242
Q

Dynamic testing measures potential.
True
False

A

True

243
Q

Children whose friends are all members of the opposite sex are more likely to be well adjusted than children whose friends are all members of the same sex.
True
False

A

False

244
Q

Overprotective parenting has been associated with the onset of anorexia but not bulimia.
True
False

A

False

245
Q

A child’s self-esteem is influenced by how they are viewed by their parents.
True
False

A

True

246
Q

Secondary mental abilities subsume primary mental abilities.
True
False

A

True

247
Q

A unique element of foster parenting is the concern over the level of bonding that should take place between a child and the foster parents.
True
False

A

True

248
Q

Mentoring is one way to address the issue of generativity suggested by Erikson.
True
False

A

True

249
Q

Experts are always faster and use more rules than novices.
True
False

A

False

250
Q

If you have significant levels of opaque spots on your lens you have glaucoma.
True
False

A

False

251
Q

Congenial sibling relationships are characterized by high level of closeness and low levels of resentment.
True
False

A

True

252
Q

Mourning rituals and states of bereavement are pretty much the same across all cultures.
True
False

A

False