Lifespan Development Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Development?

A

The sequence of changes over the full life span of an organism, a continuous process from conception to death.

Development includes both prenatal and postnatal changes and refers to qualitative changes.

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2
Q

How is Growth defined in the context of lifespan development?

A

Changes that occur in the fetus after fertilization in the womb, referring to quantitative changes.

Examples include measurable changes such as weight, size, and shape.

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3
Q

What does Maturation refer to?

A

Changes determined largely by our own genes, following an orderly sequence dictated by the genetic blueprint.

Maturation produces commonalities in growth and development.

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4
Q

What are the key differences between Growth, Development, and Maturation?

A

Growth is quantitative changes; Development includes physical, emotional, socio-cultural, cognitive changes; Maturation is influenced by genetic makeup.

Development occurs from birth to death.

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5
Q

What determines the interaction of heredity and environment?

A

Genetic influence and environmental factors.

Variations in characteristics such as skin color, intelligence, and learning abilities arise from this interaction.

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6
Q

Define genotype.

A

The actual genetic material or a person’s genetic heritage.

It is not all apparent in observable characteristics.

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7
Q

What is phenotype?

A

The way an individual’s genotype is expressed in observable and measurable characteristics.

Includes physical traits and psychological characteristics.

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8
Q

How does the environment influence development?

A

The environment can modify genetic predispositions and affect developmental outcomes.

For example, an introverted child in an extroverted environment may become slightly more extroverted.

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9
Q

What is the lifespan perspective in development?

A

The view that significant modifications occur throughout development across all age groups from conception to old age.

It emphasizes multidimensional and multidirectional changes.

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10
Q

List the characteristics of development according to Paul Baltes.

A
  • Development is life-long
  • Development is multi-dimensional
  • Development is multidirectional
  • Development is highly plastic
  • Development is multicontextual
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11
Q

What are normative age-graded influences?

A

Specific age groups that share particular experiences and developmental changes.

Examples include toddlers, adolescents, or seniors.

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12
Q

What are non-normative life influences?

A

Unique experiences that shape an individual’s development, despite sharing age and history with peers.

Example: losing a parent at a young age.

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13
Q

What is Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Systems Theory?

A

A theory stating that understanding human development requires focusing on relationships between individuals and their environment at various levels.

It includes microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

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14
Q

Define the microsystem in Bronfenbrenner’s theory.

A

Settings in which the developing person interacts directly with people and objects.

Examples include family, peers, and school.

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15
Q

What is the macrosystem?

A

Widely shared cultural values, beliefs, and laws that influence all inner systems and an individual’s life and development.

It encompasses the broader societal context.

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16
Q

What is the significance of the Chronosystem?

A

It involves events in the individual’s life course and socio-historical circumstances that affect development.

Examples include parental divorce or economic setbacks.

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17
Q

What is the period known as Infancy?

A

The period from birth to around 18 to 24 months, during which language, attachment, and basic motor movement develop.

Simple cognitive abilities also begin to develop during this time.

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18
Q

What are motor milestones?

A

Major developmental tasks that depend on movement by the muscles, reflecting physical growth and strengthening.

Achievements develop systematically from simple to complex actions.

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19
Q

What are reflexes in infants?

A

Innate, involuntary behavior patterns in response to stimulation in certain areas of the body.

Examples include rooting, grasping, and the Moro reflex.

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20
Q

What does Piaget’s stage theory suggest?

A

All human beings move through an orderly and predictable series of changes regarding cognition.

It emphasizes the development of knowledge as a form of adaptation.

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21
Q

Define Assimilation in Piaget’s theory.

A

The tendency to understand new information in terms of existing mental frameworks.

Example: A child calling a banana a jet is assimilating new information.

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22
Q

Define Accommodation in Piaget’s theory.

A

The process of changing existing mental frameworks to incorporate new information.

It involves adapting one’s understanding based on new experiences.

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23
Q

What is Piaget’s stage theory?

A

A type of theory suggesting that all human beings move through an orderly and predictable series of changes with regards to cognition.

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24
Q

Define cognitive development according to Piaget.

A

Development of knowledge as a form of adaptation involving the interplay of assimilation and accommodation.

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25
Q

What is assimilation?

A

The tendency to understand new information in terms of existing mental frameworks.

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26
Q

Provide an example of assimilation.

A

A child hoists a banana and runs around in a circle shouting “Look – it is a jet.”

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27
Q

What is accommodation?

A

The modification of existing mental frameworks to take account of new information.

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28
Q

Provide an example of accommodation.

A

A child sees a zebra and calls it a horse because it has 4 legs, then is corrected by the parent.

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29
Q

What is equilibration in Piaget’s theory?

A

The tendency of the developing individual to stay in balance intellectually by filling in gaps in knowledge.

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30
Q

What is the sensorimotor stage?

A

The earliest stage of cognitive development lasting from birth until 18-24 months.

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31
Q

What do infants learn during the sensorimotor stage?

A

The relationship between their actions and the external world, including basic cause and effect.

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32
Q

What is object permanence?

A

The understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are hidden from view.

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33
Q

What is a schema according to Piaget?

A

An action sequence guided by thought.

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34
Q

What are the four attachment styles identified by Ainsworth?

A
  • Secure attachment
  • Insecure-Avoidant Attachment
  • Insecure-Ambivalent Attachment
  • Disorganized/Disoriented Attachment
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35
Q

Describe secure attachment.

A

Infants freely explore new environments and actively seek contact with their caregiver upon return.

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36
Q

Describe insecure-avoidant attachment.

A

Infants do not cry when the caregiver leaves and may avoid or be slow to greet the caregiver upon return.

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37
Q

Describe insecure-ambivalent attachment.

A

Infants seek contact with the caregiver before separation but resist or reject comfort after reunion.

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38
Q

Describe disorganized/disoriented attachment.

A

Infants show contradictory responses and may perceive the caregiver as frightening.

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39
Q

What is the age range for childhood development?

A

From 2 years to before the onset of puberty.

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40
Q

What are gross motor skills?

A

Larger movements made with arms, legs, feet, or entire body, such as crawling and jumping.

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41
Q

What are fine motor skills?

A

Smaller movements involving wrists, hands, fingers, feet, toes, lips, and tongue.

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42
Q

What is the preoperational stage?

A

A cognitive stage from ages 2 to 7 where children form mental representations and begin to use verbal symbols.

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43
Q

What is egocentrism in children?

A

The inability to understand that others may perceive the world differently.

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44
Q

What is the principle of conservation?

A

Knowledge that certain physical attributes of an object remain unchanged despite alterations in appearance.

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45
Q

What is the concrete operational stage?

A

A stage occurring roughly between ages 7 and 11 where children understand the permanence of objects and can solve simple problems.

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46
Q

What does gender identity refer to?

A

Understanding of the fact that one is male or female.

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47
Q

What is gender stability?

A

Children’s understanding that gender is stable over time.

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48
Q

What is gender identity?

A

Understanding of the fact that one is male or female

Gender identity is established early in life, often by age two.

49
Q

What is gender stability?

A

Children’s understanding that gender is stable over time

Typically understood by age four.

50
Q

What is gender consistency?

A

Understanding that sex identity remains the same even if one dresses or behaves like members of the opposite sex

Usually develops by age six or seven.

51
Q

What does sex-category constancy (SCC) refer to?

A

Complete understanding of one’s sexual identity involving gender identity, stability, and consistency

Emphasizes the link between gender and biological sex.

52
Q

What differentiates biological sex from gender?

A

Biological sex refers to the physical characteristics of male or female, while gender relates to societal beliefs about traits and behaviors characteristic of males and females.

53
Q

What are gender stereotypes?

A

Beliefs, often exaggerated, about traits possessed by males and females and differences between them.

54
Q

What are gender roles?

A

Expectations concerning the roles males and females should fill and the ways they should behave.

55
Q

What is the sequence of gender constancy development in children according to Chauhan, Shastri, and Mohite (2005)?

A
  1. Gender identity for self
  2. Gender stability
  3. Gender consistency
56
Q

At what age do children typically establish gender identity?

A

By age two.

57
Q

At what age do children typically understand gender stability?

A

By age four.

58
Q

What is the significance of peer relationships in childhood?

A

They provide learning opportunities for social-emotional skills such as empathy, cooperation, and problem-solving.

59
Q

What is solitary play?

A

Play where children prefer to be near others but engage in independent activities.

60
Q

What is parallel play?

A

Play where children use similar materials and engage in similar activities but do not interact much.

61
Q

At what age do children begin to show cooperative play?

A

By age three.

62
Q

What is Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development?

A

Children judge morality largely in terms of consequences.

63
Q

What are the two stages of the preconventional level?

A
  1. Punishment-and-obedience orientation
  2. Naive hedonistic orientation
64
Q

What characterizes the conventional level of moral development?

A

Children judge morality in terms of what supports and preserves societal laws and rules.

65
Q

What are the two stages of the conventional level?

A
  1. Good Boy-Good Girl orientation
  2. Social Order maintaining orientation
66
Q

What is the postconventional level of moral development?

A

Individuals believe that certain obligations and values transcend societal rules.

67
Q

What are the two stages of the postconventional level?

A
  1. Legalistic orientation
  2. Universal ethical principle orientation
68
Q

What criticism is often directed at Kohlberg’s theory?

A

It may not apply well to females, as noted by Gilligan (1982).

69
Q

What is adolescence?

A

Period beginning with the onset of puberty and ending when individuals assume adult roles and responsibilities.

70
Q

What are the physical changes associated with puberty?

A

Rapid changes that signal the attainment of sexual maturity.

71
Q

What is egocentric thinking?

A

A type of reasoning focused on oneself, often disregarding others’ perspectives.

72
Q

What are the three stages of moral development according to the age ranges?

A
  • Preconventional: below 7 years
  • Conventional: 7-11 years
  • Postconventional: 11 years onwards
73
Q

Define adolescence.

A

The period beginning with the onset of puberty and ending when individuals assume adult roles and responsibilities.

74
Q

What physical changes characterize puberty?

A

Rapid physical growth and sexual maturity.

75
Q

At what age do girls typically experience their growth spurt during puberty?

A

Around age ten or eleven.

76
Q

At what age do boys typically experience their growth spurt during puberty?

A

Around age twelve or thirteen.

77
Q

What are primary sex characteristics?

A

Characteristics directly related to reproduction.

78
Q

What are secondary sex characteristics?

A

Features or signs of achieving sexual maturity.

79
Q

At what age do most girls begin menstruating?

A

By age thirteen.

80
Q

At what age do most boys begin to produce sperm?

A

By age fourteen or fifteen.

81
Q

What is the formal operational stage?

A

The final stage of cognitive development where individuals acquire deductive or propositional reasoning.

82
Q

What is hypothetico-deductive reasoning?

A

A type of reasoning that involves formulating a general theory and deducing specific hypotheses from it.

83
Q

What is interpropositional thinking?

A

Thinking in which multiple propositions are tested for validity.

84
Q

What is reflective thinking?

A

The process of evaluating or testing one’s own reasoning.

85
Q

What is identity according to Erikson?

A

Who you are and what your values, commitments, and beliefs are.

86
Q

What is the primary task of adolescence?

A

To establish an identity separate from parents.

87
Q

What is the identity versus role confusion stage?

A

A stage where teenagers ask themselves questions about their identity.

88
Q

What are the four identity statuses identified by Marcia?

A
  • Identity achievement
  • Identity moratorium
  • Identity foreclosure
  • Identity diffusion
89
Q

What factors influence adolescent identity formation?

A
  • Cultural background
  • Family and societal values
  • Ethnic background
  • Socioeconomic status
90
Q

What is gender identity?

A

Understanding of oneself as male or female.

91
Q

What is gender dysphoria?

A

The distress a person feels due to a mismatch between their gender identity and sex assigned at birth.

92
Q

What is sexuality?

A

Sexual feelings, thoughts, attractions, and behaviors towards others.

93
Q

What is delinquency?

A

A variety of behaviors including legal offenses and criminal acts.

94
Q

What age range is referred to as delinquent?

A

7-18 years.

95
Q

What are some characteristics of delinquent behavior?

A
  • Theft
  • Gambling
  • Cheating
  • Violence and assault
96
Q

What are the causes of delinquency?

A
  • Hereditary factors
  • Psychological factors
  • Intelligence factors
  • Environmental and social factors
97
Q

What is substance abuse?

A

A maladaptive pattern of substance use resulting in significant adverse effects.

98
Q

What are some symptoms of substance abuse?

A
  • Failure to meet obligations
  • Repeated use in hazardous ways
  • Legal problems related to the substance
99
Q

What is substance abuse?

A

A maladaptive pattern of substance use that results in repeated, significant adverse effects and maladaptive behaviours

100
Q

List some symptoms of substance abuse.

A
  • Failure to meet obligations at work, school, or at home
  • Repeated use of a psychoactive substance in hazardous ways
  • Recurrent legal problems related to the substance
  • Continued use despite negative effects on social relationships
101
Q

What are the most widely used drugs in the world?

A
  • Caffeine
  • Nicotine
  • Alcohol
102
Q

What is a common age for first marijuana use?

103
Q

What are some physical signs of substance abuse in adolescents?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Repeated health complaints
  • Red and glazed eyes
  • Lasting cough
104
Q

What emotional symptoms might indicate substance abuse in adolescents?

A
  • Personality change
  • Sudden mood changes
  • Irritability
  • Low self-esteem
  • Depression
105
Q

How is the diagnosis of substance use made?

A

Through careful interview, observations, laboratory findings, and history provided by reliable sources

106
Q

What is the treatment for substance abuse?

A
  • Use of medicines
  • Counselling
  • Behavioural therapy
  • Support groups
107
Q

True or False: Substance abuse disorder and substance abuse are the same.

108
Q

Define alcoholism as a concern in adolescence.

A

A complex disorder that includes social and inter-personal issues, often leading to harmful consumption affecting personal and social responsibilities.

109
Q

What is Anorexia Nervosa?

A

An intense and excessive fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake.

110
Q

What are the two subtypes of Anorexia?

A
  • Restricting type
  • Binge eating/purging type
111
Q

What is Bulimia Nervosa?

A

A disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain.

112
Q

What are some symptoms of Bulimia?

A
  • Preoccupation with body shape and weight
  • Fear of gaining weight
  • Episodes of abnormal eating
  • Loss of control during bingeing
113
Q

What role does psychotherapy play in the treatment of eating disorders?

A

It involves discussing issues with a mental health professional to improve symptoms.

114
Q

What is the difference between anorexia-purging type and bulimia?

A

Anorexia involves being underweight with a fear of gaining weight, while bulimia usually involves normal or above-average weight with guilt from binge eating.

115
Q

Fill in the blank: Eating disorders are illnesses in which people experience severe disturbances in their _______.

A

eating behaviors and related thoughts and emotions

116
Q

What are some gastrointestinal symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa?

A
  • Constipation
  • Vomiting
117
Q

True or False: Eating disorders only affect females.

118
Q

What is a common psychological treatment for Bulimia?

A

Cognitive behavioral therapy

119
Q

List some causes of alcohol abuse.

A
  • Internal and external motivation
  • Impairment of brain levels of dopamine